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Board Exam > ORAL SURGERY > Flashcards

ORAL SURGERY Flashcards

1
Q

condition in which circulation fails to meet the nutritional need of a cell and at the same time fails to remove the metabolic waste products

A

SHOCK

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2
Q

most common type of shock in maxillofacial trauma

A

hematogenic or hypovolemic shock

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3
Q

1st sign that appears in shock

A

tacchycardia

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4
Q

shock is a circulatory disturbance characterized by

A

decrease volume of circulation of blood

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5
Q

first sign of syncope (faint)

A

pallor

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6
Q

type of shock where there is hypovolemia due to bleeding both externally and internallyfrom ruptured liver or sleen

A

traumatic shock

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7
Q

treatment of hypovolemic or hematogenic shock

A

ringers lactate solution / hartmanns solution

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8
Q

due to blockade of sympathetic nervous systemresulting in oss of arterial and venous tone with pooling of blood in the dilated peripheral nervous system

A

neurogenic shock

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9
Q

treatment of neurogenic shock

A

vasoconstrictor drug

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10
Q

caused by the injury of the heart myocardia infarction cardiac arrythmias or congestive heart failure
mainly left ventricles fails to pump blood

A

cardiogenic shock

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11
Q

most often due to gram negative septicemia

A

septic shock

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12
Q

treatment of anaphylaactic shock

A

0.2 -0.5 ml of ‘1:1000 adrenaline / epinephrine IM

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13
Q

loss of effective contractile function of myocardium

A

cardiogenic shock

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14
Q

rupture of berry aneurysm

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

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15
Q

loss of continuity of bone

A

fracture

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16
Q

compete loss of congruity between the articulating surfaces of a joint

A

dislocation

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17
Q

incomplete tear of a ligament or a complex of ligaments around a joint

A

sprain

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18
Q

fracture not communicating with exterior

A

simple or closed fracture

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19
Q

fracture communicates with exterior

A

open or compound fracture

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20
Q

trauma causes the fracture
causes soft tissue injury and breaks off the skin and mucous membrane fracture

A

external compound fracture

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21
Q

sharp end of a fracture fragment penetrates throughoverlying soft tissue and skin

A

internal compound fracture

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22
Q

fracture due to repeated stress

A

stress or fatigue fracture

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23
Q

seen in children
one ortex is fractured while other cortex remains intact

A

greenstick fracture

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24
Q

fracture seen in cd patient or edentulous px

A

torus or buckle fracture

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25
Q

guerin or horizontal or telescopic fracture

A

lefort 1

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26
Q

floating maxilla
bleeding into antrum
low level fracture

A

lefort 1

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27
Q

pyramidal or infra zygomatic fracture
panda`facies
edema around the eyes lacrimal nasal maxilla

A

lefort 2

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28
Q

high level or suprazygomatic fracture
craniofacial dysjunction /dishface
4 bones involve lacrimal maxilla nasal and ethmoid

A

lefort3

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29
Q

most common fracture

A

angle of mandible or condyle

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30
Q

rounding off and sclerosis of bone ends

A

eburnation

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31
Q

extraoral xray used in fracture of mandible

A

posteroanterior view

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32
Q

best xray view if we want to diagnose if fracture is unfavorable or favorable

A

lateral oblique view

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33
Q

mass of new bone formation at the site of a fracture

A

callus

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34
Q

main treatment of delayed union

A

perfect and prolong immobilization

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35
Q

fracture united in a deformed positon

A

mal union

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36
Q

principles in treating fracture

A

reduction of fracture
fixation of fracture
restoration of occlusion
immobilization

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37
Q

how long should we immobilized mandible

A

6weeks

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38
Q

close upper and lower jaw together

A

intermaxillary fixation

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39
Q

bone healing and closure

A

osteosynthesis

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40
Q

what is the optimum length of screw for fixation of plates

A

4mm

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41
Q

used to immobilized oblique fracture

A

lag screw

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42
Q

it causes osteoradionecrosis of jaw

A

radiation therapy

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43
Q

anti resorptive drug

A

biphosphonates

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44
Q

Simplest and wires are attached directly to teeth

A

gilmores wiring

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45
Q

best treatment of patient that has unfavorale fracture of the angle of the mandible

A

open reduction with rigid bone formation

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46
Q

symphysis fracture is best treated with

A

risdon wiring

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47
Q

formed due to disturbance during 4-6 weeks iu

A

cleft lip

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48
Q

formed due to disturbance during 8-12 weeks iu

A

cleft palate

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49
Q

formed due to defect in the fusion of medial nasal process with maxillary process

A

cleft lip

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50
Q

formed due to defective fusion of premaxilla develope from the medial nasal process and the two palatine process

A

cleft palate

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51
Q

optimum repair of cleft lip is at the age of

A

3 months and baby is 5-6 kg

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52
Q

optimum tim repair of cleft palate is

A

1-1.5 yrs

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53
Q

best graft of cleft palate

A

posterior iliaccrest

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54
Q

intraoral prosthetic device

A

obturator

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55
Q

principle of straight elevator

A

lever and wedge

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56
Q

used to elevate broken root from a socket

A

pick type

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57
Q

most commonly used principle

A

lever

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58
Q

between effort and resistance

A

fulcrum

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59
Q

extract mandibulat molar

A

16 cowhorn

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60
Q

most common periosteal elvator in OS

A

no.9 molt periosteal elevator

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61
Q

most common used hemostat in OS

A

curve hemostat

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62
Q

smoothen any sharp and rough edges in bone
only pull motion

A

bone file

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63
Q

remove epulis fissuratum

A

alis

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64
Q

cut delicate tissue only

A

metzenbaum scissors

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65
Q

most commonly used suture in OS

A

black silk non absorbable

66
Q

anther name of dry socket

A

localized osteitis

67
Q

most common hereditary blood clotting disorder

A

von willebrand disease

68
Q

loss of sensation

A

anesthesia

69
Q

abnormal sensation

A

paresthesia

70
Q

hypersensitive

A

hyperesthesia

71
Q

pain sensation to normal stimulus

A

dysesthesia

72
Q

nerve regeneration

A

1-1.5mm/day

73
Q

orders of force used in tooth removal

A

apical
buccal
lingual
rotation
traction

74
Q

order of tooth to be removed

A

maxillary first before mandibular
posterior first before anterior

75
Q

gum separator

A

woodson periosteal elevator

76
Q

heart shape
tonge retraction

A

weider retractor

77
Q

bur used for surgery

A

557
703
8

78
Q

removal of granuloma cyst debris

A

currette

79
Q

universal blade

A

15

80
Q

stab incision

A

11

81
Q

skin incision

A

10

82
Q

distal incision

A

12

83
Q

it must provide access and visualization

A

flap

84
Q

the organism that is responsible for dry socket

A

treponema denticola

85
Q

imaginary line to get exact position and depth of tooth

A

winters line

86
Q

conditions for a root to be left in alveoar process

A

root must be no more than 4-5mm
root must be deeply embeded in bone
tooth must not be infectected or no radiolucency on sorrounding apex
risk is to great that can cause excessive destruction in sorrounding tissue

87
Q

it is completely anterior to ramus

A

class 1

88
Q

1/2 of crown covered by ramus

A

class 2

89
Q

tooth completely inside ramus

A

class 3

90
Q

occlusal plane of 3rd molar almost the same level of 2nd molar

A

position a

91
Q

occlusal plane of 3rd molar is between occlusal plane and cej of 2nd molar

A

position b

92
Q

occlusal plane of 3rd molar is below cej of 2nd molar

A

position c

93
Q

most commonly impacted teeth

A
94
Q

associated with non surgical handpieces that blows air

A

tissue emphysema

95
Q

what drugs are given to patient with oro anthral complicatons

A

antibiotic and decongestant

96
Q

biateral involvement of submandibular sublingual and submental space

A

ludwigs angina

97
Q

treatment of mucocele

A

enucleation and excision involving minor salivary gland involved

98
Q

complete removal of a cyst without rupture

A

enucleation

99
Q

removal of 1-2 mm of bone around periphery of cyst

A

currettage

100
Q

presence of small red spots in the palate
associated with smoking

A

stomatitis nicotina

101
Q

creating a surgical window in the lining of the cyst and is left in place

A

marsupialization

102
Q

removal of tumor by dissecting uninvolved tissues around the tumor

A

resection

103
Q

necrosis of jaw due to excessive radiation therapy

A

osteoradionecrosis

104
Q

chemotherapy drug

A

5-fluorouracil

105
Q

chemicals that prevents cells from dividing

A

chemotherapy

106
Q

most common fracture site in mandible

A

neck of condyle

107
Q

2nd most common fracture site in mandible

A

angle of mandible

108
Q

least common site of fracture

A

coronoid fracture

109
Q

most common fractured site inface

A

nasal bone

110
Q

fracture in the right condyla neck will cause the mandible to deviate in what side during opening

A
111
Q

type of jaw fracture that may cause airway obstruction

A
112
Q

treatment for fracture

A

reduction (close / open)

113
Q

synthetic grafts

A

alloplastic graft

114
Q

donor and recipient are not part of the same specie

A

xenograft

115
Q

donor and recipient are different individuals and genetically different but part of the same specie

A

allograft

116
Q

donor and recipient are dfferent individuals but of the same specie

A

isograft

117
Q

normal vital sign
temp
heart rate
bp
respiratory rate

A

98.6F / 37c
60-80 beats per minute
120/80 mmHg
12-18 breaths per minute

118
Q

indicates the amount of alveolar bone covering the impacted teeth

A

amber line

119
Q

indicates the depth of the toot in the bone

A

red line

120
Q

the most difficult third molar to remove

A

distoangular followed by horizontal

121
Q

the least difficult impacted 3rd molar to remove is

A

mesioangular followed by vertical

122
Q

to prevent damage to lingual nerve the posterior incision should be plced

A

more BUCALLY

123
Q

most common complication after surgical removal of mand 3rd molar is

A

LOSS OF BLOODCLOT

124
Q

most commonly seen and least difficult impaction to remove

A

mesioangular impaction

125
Q

survival rate of implants

A

5-10 yrs

126
Q

ideal implant material used today

A

titanium

127
Q

3 main parts of implant

A

implant
abutment
crown

128
Q

implant to natural tooth

A

1.5mm

129
Q

implant to IAN

A

2mm

130
Q

implant to implant

A

3mm

131
Q

implant to mental nerve

A

5mm

132
Q

time for osseointegration of implants

A

6months

133
Q

minimal width jaw bone needed in implant

A

6mm

134
Q

minimal height needed for implant

A

10mm

135
Q

artificial abutments place thru gingiva into bone

A

endosteal

136
Q

placed directly on bone

A

subperiosteal

137
Q

mandibular staple
pass thru mandible into mouth

A

transosteal

138
Q

removal of maxillary palatal torus

A

Y incision

139
Q

for labial frenectomy

A

Z plasty / Y-V plasty

140
Q

maxillary sinus opens into

A

inferior meatus

141
Q

muscle which is penetrated during IAN

A

buccinator

142
Q

first sign of lidocaine toxicity

A

nervousness , drowsiness

143
Q

main disadvantage of semilunar flap

A

limited accessibility

144
Q

golden period for treating wounds

A

within 6hours

145
Q

muscle involved in trismus

A

medial pterygoid muscle

146
Q

best view of max. sinus

A

waters view

147
Q

trismus is due to inflammation of what muscles

A

medial pterygoid

148
Q

thicknessof full thickness graft

A

1-1.15mm

149
Q

for what extraction does the occlusal plane is parallel to the ground

A

mandibular extraction

150
Q

inmaxillary extraction patient should be positioned i such

A

occlusal plane of mandibular arch is 45 degress to floor

151
Q

the best oral sedative drugs currently used in dentistry

A

benzodiazepines

152
Q

biopsy specimens removed for examination are immediately placed in

A

10% formalin

153
Q

most likely cause of tender swelling in submandibular triangle

A

lymphadenopathy

154
Q

first direction of force to be applied by the forceps for an extraction of tooth is

A

apical direction

155
Q

muscle which is mostly encountered in an incorrect infraorbital nerve

A

quadrats labii superioris

156
Q

maximum acceptable dose of adrenaline in normal patient

A

0.2mg

157
Q

maximum acceptable dose of adrenaline in cardiac paient

A

0.04mg

158
Q

optimum speed of adminstration of LA agent

A

0.1ml/sec

159
Q

pain of dry socket is usually experenced on

A

3rd day

160
Q

the gauge of needle used in dental syringe refers to

A

internal diameter of lumen

161
Q

during suture removal the suture is cut

A

at the point of entry into tissues

Board Exam (11 decks)

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