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Instrument Checkride > Oral Questions > Flashcards

Oral Questions Flashcards

1
Q

WHEN IS AN INSTRUMENT RATING
REQUIRED? §61.51

A
  • When acting as PIC under IFR or in weather conditions less than prescribed for VFR. (§61.3)
  • When carrying passengers for compensation or hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM or at night. (§61.133)
  • For flight in Class A airspace (§91.135)
  • For Special VFR between sunset and sunrise
    (§91.157)
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2
Q

What recency of experience must you have to fly in IFR conditions?

A

6 - Within 6 cal. months preceding the month of flight
6 - 6 instrument approaches
H - Holding procedures & tasks
I - Intercepting
T - Tracking Courses
S - Through the use of navigational electronic systems

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3
Q

How else may you fulfill your IFR recency? Is a flight instructor necessary?

A

Through the use of an approved flight simulator that represents the category of aircraft for the instrument rating privileges to be maintained and the pilot performs the tasks and iterations in simulated instrument conditions.

A flight instructor is not needed.

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4
Q

How may you log instrument time?

A

A person may log instrument time only for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions.

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5
Q

When may an instructor log instrument time?

A

In actual instrument flight conditions

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6
Q

How can you regain currency if you haven’t done an approach in 6 months? What are the three requirements?

A

You can still log the required “6 HITS” with a safety pilot (under simulated conditions), examiner or instructor.

The Safety pilot requirements are:
- At least a private pilot with appropriate category and
class.
- Have adequate vision forward and to each side of the
aircraft.
- Aircraft must have a dual control system.

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7
Q

How can you regain currency if you haven’t done an approach in 12 months?

A

Through an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) administered by a CFII, examiner, or other approved person.

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8
Q

How can you regain currency if you haven’t done an approach in 12 months?

A

Through an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) administered by a CFII, examiner, or other approved person.

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9
Q

How can you carry passengers while acting as PIC?

A

Must have completed 3 Takeoffs + Landings in the same Category, Class, and Type in the proceeding 90 days.

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10
Q

How can you carry passengers while acting as PIC at night? When might you be able to do this?

A

Must have completed 3 Takeoffs + Landings to a full stop 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

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11
Q

In order to log recent flight experience, what must you do?

A

Name the:

  • Type of approach
  • Location
  • Safety Pilot
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12
Q

What personal documents must you have for flight?

A
  • Pilot Certificate
  • Medical Certificate
  • Authorized Photo ID
  • Radio License (if operating outside the US)
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13
Q

When do you need alternate?

A

A destination alternate is always required, unless:

  • An instrument approach is published and available for the destination
  • For at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA:
  • Ceiling will be at least 2000’ above airport
    elevation; and
  • Visibility will be at least 3 SM.
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14
Q

What are the minimum weather conditions to list an alternate at an airport for a precision approach?

A
  • 600 ft ceiling
  • 2 SM of visibility
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15
Q

What are the minimum weather conditions to list an alternate at an airport for a Non - precision approach?

A
  • 800 ft ceiling
  • 3 SM of visibility
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16
Q

What are the minimum weather conditions to list an alternate at an airport without any Instrument Approaches?

A
  • Ceiling & visibility must allow descent from MEA, approach and landing under VFR
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17
Q

What are the IFR minimum fuel requirements?

A
  • Enough fuel from departure to destination
  • Plus fuel from destination to alternate
  • Plus 45 minutes calculated at normal cruising speed
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18
Q

What are the standard takeoff minimums for an aircraft with 1 - 2 engines?

A
  • 1 SM of visibility
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19
Q

What are the standard takeoff minimums for an aircraft with more than 2 engines?

A
  • 1/2 SM of visibility
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20
Q

What are the two types of departure procedures?

A
  • Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)
  • Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
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21
Q

What is a Departure Procedure (DP)? What does it provide?

A

It ensures obstacle clearance, provided:

  • the airplane crossed the departure end of the
    runway at least 35 ft AGL,
  • reaches 400 ft AGL before turning, and
  • climbs at least 200 Feet per NM (FPNM), or as
    published otherwise on the chart.
  • FPNM to feet-per-minute conversion:
    fpm = FPNM * Groundspeed / 60
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22
Q

What is an ODP? What does it provide?

A

Obstacle Departure Procedure

Provides only obstacle clearance.
- Graphic ODPs will have “(OBSTACLE)” printed in the chart title.
- Printed either textually or graphically.

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23
Q

What is a SID? What does it provide?

A

Standard Instrument Departure.

In addition to obstacle clearance it reduces pilot and controller workload by simplifying ATC clearances and minimizing radio communications.

  • Some SIDs may depict special radio failure procedures.
  • Always printed graphically.
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24
Q

Are you required to accept a Departure Procedure? How do you avoid getting one?

A

No, you are not required to accept a DP.

When filing a flight plan, state, “No SIDs” in the remarks section.

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25
Q

What is a clearance void time? How long until you must notify ATC that you did not depart?

A
  • The time at which your clearance is void and after which you may not takeoff.
  • You must notify ATC within 30 min after the void time if you did not depart
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26
Q

What does “Hold for Release” mean?

A
  • You may not takeoff until you are released for IFR departure
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27
Q

What is an Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT)?

A

A runway release time given under traffic management programs in busy airports. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT.

28
Q

What is Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)?

A

It serves as a transition between the en route structure and a point from which an approach to landing can be made.

29
Q

Are you able to decline a STAR? If so, how would you do so?

A

Yes, you are able to decline a STAR.

As with a SID, you can state “NO STARs” in the remarks section of the flight plan, to avoid getting a clearance containing a STAR.

30
Q

What minimum altitudes are you not allowed to fly under?

A
  • Minimum altitudes prescribed for the flown segment
  • Mountainous areas: 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course.
  • Non-mountainous areas: 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM from the course.
31
Q

What minimum altitudes are you not allowed to fly under?

A
  • Minimum altitudes prescribed for the flown segment
  • Mountainous areas: 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course.
  • Non-mountainous areas: 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM from the course.
32
Q

When do you need a Mode C Transponder?

A
  • In Class A, B, and C airspace
  • Within 30 NM of class B airspace
  • Above the ceiling within the lateral boundaries of class B or class C up to 10,000’ MSL
  • ALL airspace at and above 10,000’ MSL, excluding the airspace below 2,500’ AGL
33
Q

What is an MEA? What does it provide?

A
  • Minimum En-Route Altitude is the lowest published altitude between radio fixes the gurantees adequate navigational signal reception.
  • It also provides obstruction clearance of 1,000’ in non-mountainous and 2,000’ in mountainous terrain.
34
Q

What is a MOCA? What does it ensure?

A
  • Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude
  • Ensures reliable navigation only within 22 NM of facility and obstacle clearance
35
Q

What is an OROCA? What does it provide?

A
  • Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude
  • It provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 ft buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas and 2,000 ft in mountainous areas.

*OROCA may not provide navigation or communication signal coverage.

36
Q

What is an MSA? Where is it found? What does it provide?

A
  • Minimum Safe Altitude
  • It is found on Approach Plates
  • It provides 1,000’ terrain clearance within 22 NM of the airport
  • It is generally used in emergencies
37
Q

What is an MCA? How is it depicted?

A
  • Minimum Crossing Altitude
  • It is the lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher minimum en route IFR altitude
  • It is depicted by a flag with an “X” inside of it.
38
Q

What is an MTA? What does it provide? How is it depicted?

A
  • Minimum Turning Altitude
  • It provides vertical and lateral obstacle clearance in turns over certain fixes.
  • It is depicted with a flag with an “X” inside of it. With an annotation describing the restriction.
39
Q

What is the MAA? How will it be depicted?

A
  • Maximum Authorized Altitude.
  • Annotated “MAA-17000” (17,000ft as an example) on IFR charts.
40
Q

What is an MVA?

A
  • Minimum Vectoring Altitude
  • The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches. MVAs may be lower than the minimum altitudes depicted on aeronautical charts, such as MEAs or MOCAs.
41
Q

What are the two principles of a gyroscope?

A

Rigidity in space and precession

42
Q

What principle does the Attitude Indicator operate on? What does it show us?

A

The Attitude Indicator operates on Rigidity in Space. It shows us our Pitch and Bank Information.

43
Q

What are the three Gyroscopic Instruments in our planes?

A
  • Attitude Indicator
  • Heading Indicator
  • Turn Coordinator
44
Q

What principle does the Heading Indicator operate on? What does it reflect? How do you make it indicate properly?

A

It operates on Rigidity in Space. It only reflects changes in headings, but it cannot measure the heading directly. You have to calibrate it with a magnetic compass in order for it to indicate correctly.

45
Q

What principle does the Turn Coordinator operate on? What does it show us?

A

It operates on the principle of precession. It shows us the rate-of-turn and the rate-of-roll.

46
Q

What does an Aneroid Barometer show us? How does it work?

A

It shows the height above a given pressure level, based on standard pressure lapse rate of 1000’ per
inch of mercury.

A stack of sealed aneroid wafers expand and contract with changes in atmospheric pressure received from the static port.

47
Q

In the US, when operating below 18,000’ MSL, how should you set the altimeter?

A

Regularly set the altimeter to a station within 100 NM

48
Q

When operating above 18,000’ MSL, what should your altimeter setting be set to?

A

The altimeter should be set to the standard sea level pressure of 29.92” Hg.

49
Q

What is indicated Altitude?

A

Uncorrected altitude indicated on the dial when set to local pressure setting.

50
Q

What is pressure altitude?

A

Altitude above the standard 29.92. Hg plane.

51
Q

What is density altitude? What is it used for?

A

Pressure alt. corrected for nonstandard temperature. Used for performance calculations.

52
Q

What is the Vertical Speed Indicator? How does it work?

A
  • It indicates rate-of-climb
  • A diaphragm inside the instrument is connected directly to the static source.
  • The area outside the diaphragm also receives static pressure, but via a calibrated leak (a restricted orifice).
  • This configuration essentially responds to static pressure change over time.
  • As the diaphragm expands or contracts, a mechanical linkage moves the pointer needle to display the current rate of climb to the pilot.
53
Q

What does the airspeed indicator do? How does it work?

A
  • The airspeed indicator measures the difference between impact (ram) air pressure from the pitot tube and ambient pressure from the static port. The result pressure is called dynamic pressure and corresponds to airspeed.

▷ Dynamic Pressure (airspeed) = Impact Pressure – Static pressure.

  • A diaphragm in the instrument receives ram pressure from the pitot tube. The area outside the diaphragm is sealed and connected to the static port. A mechanical linkage converts the expansion and contraction of the diaphragm to airspeed shown on the display dial.
54
Q

What is indicated airspeed (IAS)?

A
  • indicated on the airspeed indicator
55
Q

What is calibrated airspeed (CAS)?

A
  • IAS corrected for instrument & position errors
56
Q

What is True Airspeed (TAS)?

A
  • Actual speed through the air. Equivalent Airspeed (EAS) corrected for nonstandard
    temperature and pressure
57
Q

What is ground speed?

A
  • Actual speed over the ground. TAS corrected for wind conditions.
58
Q

What happens when the Ram Air inlet is clogged and the drain hole is open?

A

The airspeed drops to zero

59
Q

What happens when both ram air and the drain hole are clogged?

A

The airspeed indicator will act as an altimeter, and will no longer be reliable.

60
Q

When there is a pitot tube blockage, which instrument will be affected?

A

The airspeed indicator

61
Q

What does the Air Data Computer (ADC) do?

A

It replaces the mechanical pitot-static instruments. The ADC receives inputs from the pitot, static and outside temperature ports and computes airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed and altitude.

62
Q

What equipment is required for Day IFR Flight?

A
  • All VFR Day equipment + GRABCARD

G - Generator/ Alternator
R - Radios (Two-way radio communication & navigational equipment suitable for the route to be flown.)
A - Altimeter
B - Ball (slip- skid indicator)
C - Clock (Shows hours, minutes and seconds with sweep-second pointer or digital representation.)
A - Attitude Indicator
R - Rate-of-Turn Coordinator
D - Directional Gyro (Heading Indicator)

63
Q

What equipment is required for Night IFR flight?

A
  • All Night VFR equipment + GRABCARD

G - Generator/ Alternator
R - Radios (Two-way radio communication & navigational equipment suitable for the route to be flown.)
A - Altimeter
B - Ball (slip- skid indicator)
C - Clock (Shows hours, minutes and seconds with sweep-second pointer or digital representation.)
A - Attitude Indicator
R - Rate-of-Turn Coordinator
D - Directional Gyro (Heading Indicator)

64
Q

What navigational equipment is required when flying at and above flight level 240?

A
  • DME
  • RNAV
  • VOR
65
Q

What are the Mandatory reporting points under IFR?

A

M - Missed approach
A - Airspeed ±10 kts / 5% change of filed TAS (whichever is
greater)
R - Reaching a holding fix (report time & altitude)
V - VFR on top when an altitude change will be made.
E - ETA changed ±2 min, or ±3 min in North Atlantic (NAT) *
L - Leaving a holding fix/point
O - Outer marker (or fix used in lieu of it) *
U - Un-forecasted weather
S - Safety of flight (any other information related to safety of flight)
V - Vacating an altitude/FL
F - Final Approach fix *
R - Radio/Nav/approach equipment failure (§91.187)
C - Compulsory reporting points ▲ * (§91.183)
500 - unable climb/descent 500 fpm

66
Q

When can you descend below the MDA/ DA?

A
  • The aircraft is in a continuous position to make a normal rate of descent.
  • The flight visibility cannot be less than the prescribed visibility on the Approach Plate
  • At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot
67
Q

What are the Visual References that you must have in sight to land on IAP?

A

i. The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.
ii. The threshold.
iii. The threshold markings.
iv. The threshold lights.
v. The runway end identifier lights.
vi. The visual glideslope indicator.
vii. The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings.
viii. The touchdown zone lights.
ix. The runway or runway markings.
x. The runway lights.

Instrument Checkride (16 decks)

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