Oral Questions Flashcards

1
Q

CALLS PANEL

What happens when a pilot presses and holds the MECH pb on the CALLS panel?

A

It illuminates a blue light on the EXT PWR PANEL (in the nose L/G bay) and sounds an external horn

(AOM Vol 1 23.20.21)

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2
Q

CALLS PANEL

How should a pilot call the forward flight attendant?

A

Press the FWD button on the Calls Panel

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3
Q

CALLS PANEL

When would a pilot push the EMER pushbutton on the CALLS panel?

A

When there is an emergency and the Pilot would like to speak with the Flight Attendant A

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4
Q

OXYGEN Panel

What happens when a pilot pushes the CREW SUPPLY PUSHBUTTON?

A

Valve opens to supply low pressure oxygen to the masks

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5
Q

OXYGEN Panel

How does the passenger fixed oxygen system work and how long does it last?

A

Chemical oxygen generators last for approximately 15 minutes

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6
Q

OXYGEN Panel

What does the illumination of the SYS ON light mean? Does this mean that all the masks have deployed?

A

The signal has been sent to release the oxygen mask doors, but some masks may have to be deployed manually.

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7
Q

OXYGEN Panel

What causes automatic deployment of the masks?

A

Cabin altitude reaching approximately 14,000 feet

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8
Q

OXYGEN Panel

How is the crew oxygen mask microphone deactivated when the mask is stowed?

A

The RESET control slide with accomplish this - it does not happen automatically

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9
Q

OXYGEN Panel

What indication would a pilot have of a crew oxygen cylinder thermal discharge?

A

The green disk on the lower left side of the forward fuselage would be missing

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10
Q

OXYGEN Panel

Could the passenger oxygen mask provide oxygen for anything other than depressurization?

A

No

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11
Q

OXYGEN Panel

On the ground, if there is an amber half frame around the CKPT OXY PSI box, where would you look to see if you have enough oxygen for the flight?

A

COM Book 1 Performance - Limitations - Oxygen

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12
Q

INDICATING/RECORDING Systems

Why is the GND CTL pushbutton selected to ON during the preflight?

A

To record preflight activities in the cockpit

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13
Q

INDICATING/RECORDING Systems

If the GND CTL pushbutton was not selected ON, how would the system work in automatic mode?

A

On the ground:

  • during the first 5 minutes after the aircraft electrical network is energized
  • after the first engine start
  • it is stopped automatically 5 minutes after the last engine shutdown provided the CVR jack is not used

In flight (whether the engines are running or not)

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14
Q

INDICATING/RECORDING Systems

What allows the cabin PAs to be recorded?

A

ACP 3 PA volume knob out and set at or above the medium range

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15
Q

GPWS Panel

What does pressing the SYS pushbutton do?

A

All basic GPWS alerts (mode 1 to 5) are inhibited

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16
Q

GPWS Panel

What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pushbutton indicate on the GPWS panel?

A

Any failure of the GPWS mode 1 through 5

(AOM Vol 1 34.70.12)

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17
Q

GPWS Panel

What effect, if any, does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pushbutton have on the TERR mode

A

No effect at all

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18
Q

GPWS Panel

Describe a situation when a pilot might press LDG FLAP 3

What would LDG MEMO display?

A

To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing in CONF 3
- In this case, LDG MEMO displays FLAPS…CONF 3 instead of CONF FULL

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19
Q

GPWS Panel

Describe a situation when a pilot might press the FLAP MODE pushbutton

A
  • To avoid a nuisance warning in case of landing with flaps setting reduced
  • FLAP SYS 1 (2) FAULT would require the selector of FLAP MODE off
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20
Q

GPWS Panel

What effect, if any, does the failure of TERR mode have on basic GPWS?

A

No effect whatsoever

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21
Q

EMER ELEC PWR Panel

What is the significance of the red FAULT illuminating on the RAT & EMER GEN light?

A

AC BUS1 and AC BUS2 are lost and the emergency generator is not supplying electrical power

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22
Q

EMER ELEC PWR Panel

When would the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN light normally illuminate?

A

The fault light will illuminate once the RAT is deployed and electrical power is not being supplied (approx. 8 seconds)

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23
Q

EMER ELEC PWR Panel

How can the RAT be deployed?

A
  1. Manually by pushing MAN ON (EMER ELEC PWR panel) or RAT MAN ON (HYDRAULIC Panel)
  2. Automatically by the loss of both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2
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24
Q

EMER ELEC PWR Panel

What is the difference between the automatic RAT deployment and manual RAT deployment by pressing the RAT MAN ON on the HYD panel?

A

RAT MAN ON supplies Blue Hydraulic pressure only, no electrical generation

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25
Q

EMER ELEC PWR Panel

After deploying the RAT by pressing the RAT MAN ON pushbutton on the HYD panel it becomes necessary to also extract electrical power. How can this be accomplished?

A

By pressing the MAN ON pushbutton on the EMER ELEC PWR

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26
Q

EMER ELEC PWR Panel

What does the RAT supply?

A

Blue Hydraulic System pressure and the emergency electrical generator

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27
Q

EMER ELEC PWR Panel

What would cause the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light to illuminate?

A

Smoke detectors (particle detectors) in the avionics ventilation ducting

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28
Q

EMER ELEC PWR Panel

Aside from GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light, what would be other indications of avionics smoke?

A
  1. ECAM warning
  2. Amber FAULT lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER pushbuttons on the VENTILATION panel
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29
Q

EMER ELEC PWR Panel

If the ECAM directs the pilot to select GEN 1 LINE pb sw to OFF, what will be accomplished?

A
  1. Gen 1 line contactor opens (white OFF light illuminates)
  2. AC BUS 1 powered by GEN 2 through the Bus Tie Contactors
  3. Gen 1 powers one fuel pump directly in each wing tank
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30
Q

EVAC Panel

Why do we select the CAPT position using the CAPT/PURS sw?

What would happen in cockpit if cabin CMD pushbutton is pressed?

A
  • The alert may only be activated from the cockpit
  • If one of the cabin CMD pushbuttons is pressed, on the cockpit horn sounds for 3 seconds
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31
Q

EVAC Panel

While conducting the Emergency Evacuation Checklist, the pilots determine that evacuation is required. How should the pilots command the evacuation?

A
  1. Make a PA announcement
  2. Press the EVAC COMMAND pushbutton
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32
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

What type of flight control system does the A320 family aircraft utilize?

A

Fly-By-Wire system

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33
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

Describe how the flight controls are controlled and activated?

A

Electrically controlled and Hydraulically Activated

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34
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

How is NORMAL LAW indicated on the PFD?

A

Green “=” for pitch, bank, and overspeed limits
Amber/black (ALPHA PROT) airspeed tape

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35
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

How is ALTERNATE LAW indicated on the PFD?

A

Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)

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36
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

How is DIRECT LAW indicated on the PFD?

A
  1. Amber “USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM”
  2. Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)
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37
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

How is MECHANICAL BACKUP indicated on the PFD?

A
  1. Red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”
  2. Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)
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38
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

When operating in NORMAL LAW in flight mode, what does the side stick command for pitch and roll?

A

Pitch ….. G load
Bank ….. Roll rate

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39
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

What is the significance of the Side Stick Priority (Red Arrow) Light?

A

The other pilot has gained side stick authority

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40
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

Name the Flight Control Computers and the number of each

A

ELAC - Elevator Aileron Computer (2)
SEC - Spoiler Elevator Computer (3)
FAC - Flight Augmentation Computer (2)

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41
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

What does SEC 3 control?

A

Spoiler Control - one flight spoiler and one ground spoiler on each wing

  • controls #2 Spoiler in each wing (used for roll control, speed brakes and ground spoilers)
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42
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

What should happen to the THS after landing?

A

Reset to zero

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43
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

Describe some of the protections a pilot will have in NORMAL LAW?

A
  1. High Speed
  2. High Angle of Attack (AOA) Protection
  3. Load Factor Limitation +2.5G / -1.0G (+2.0G / 0.0G with Flaps/Slats)
  4. Pitch Attitude Protections (30° UP / 15° DOWN)
  5. Bank Angle Protection (67°)
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44
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

Describe High Speed Protection

What happens if no sidestick input applied?

How does positive spiral static stability and bank angle limits change?

A

If VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch-up to limit aircraft speed

If no sidestick input, the aircraft will slightly overshoot VMO/MMO and

Positive spiral static stability is introduced at (instead of 33º in normal law), so that with sidestick released, the aircraft always returns to bank angle of 0º.

Bank angle limit is reduced from 67º to 40º

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45
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

What, if anything, can a pilot do to override high-speed protection pitch up?

A

It is not possible to override a protection while still in NORMAL LAW. In this case, the aircraft would need to be forced into ALTERNATE LAW (by turning 2 ADRs off, for example).

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46
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

What is ALPHA MAX?

How is it indicated?

A

The maximum angle of attack allowed in NORMAL LAW

indicated by the top of the red stripe on the airspeed scale.

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47
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

How does the High Angle of Attack Protection operate?

A

When the angle of attack exceeds ALPHA PROT:

  • nose up pitch trim ceases and
  • angle of attack is now proportional to side stick deflection, not to exceed ALPHA MAX even with full aft side stick deflection
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48
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

What protections and stabilities, if any, does a pilot have in ALTERNATE LAW?

A
  1. Load Factor
  2. High-speed stability
  3. Low speed stability
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49
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

What protections, if any, does a pilot have in DIRECT LAW?

A

None

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50
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

When, if at all, does flare mode activate in ALTERNATE LAW? Describe the whole process?

A

There is no flare mode if operating in ALTERNATE LAW. The aircraft proceeds directly from ALTERNATE LAW to DIRECT LAW when the gear is selected down, and flare mode will not be available.

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51
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

If in ALTERNATE LAW, when will the aircraft revert to DIRECT LAW?

A

If the controls degrade to ALTERNATE LAW for any reason other than recovery from abnormal attitude, DIRECT LAW automatically becomes active with:

  1. gear extension and
  2. autopilots not engaged.

In this case, full use of autopilot is recommended until they must be disconnected.

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52
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

When is there a direct relationship between side stick and flight control surface deflection?

A
  1. When in DIRECT LAW
  2. On the ground (Ground Mode)
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53
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

It’s common Airbus philosophy that the Airbus *cannot* stall in NORMAL LAW. However, there are condition in which it can. Describe how this can happen.

A
  • A good pilot will operate under the philosophy that anything can happen.
  • Preventative systems such as ALPHA PROT, ALPHA MAX, etc, could interpret bad data as valid data and subsequently fail to recognize the actual AOA or flight path of the airplane
  • Therefore, hard to pinpoint exact scenarios when Airbus can stall in NORMAL LAW, but we need to understand anything is possible and we should recognize stall indications and recover regardless of the active control law
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54
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

How would the aircraft enter ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW?

What is the purpose of ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW?

A

By exceeding approximately double the NORMAL LAW limits.

Purpose is to allow the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude

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55
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

If the flight crew is flying at 300 knots and they happen to pull full back on the side stick, how high can they pitch up?

A

30° up

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56
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

If the pilot selects 100 knots on the speed knob, how slow would the aircraft fly if the autopilot and auto thrust are engaged?

A

VLS

It is the lowest selectable speed for the autopilot and the autothrust. Even if the
selected target speed is below VLS, the A/THR will maintain VLS as a minimum. VLS
is indicated by the top of the amber strip on the PFD airspeed scale

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57
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

Describe, in detail, what would happen if the pilot slowly pulled the thrust to idle in NORMAL LAW.

Continuing the scenario above, describe what would happen if the flight crew continued to pull back on the side stick. How slow would the aircraft go?

At some point, during this demonstration the AUTOTHRUST automatically applies TOGA power. What is this protection, and how does it work?

A
  1. As airspeed decays, the THS adjusts the pitch attitude to maintain altitude.
  2. If the AOA increases to a threshold value, known as ALPA PROT, the pitch function of the side stick changes. Stick movement commands a specific AOA instead of G load change
  3. Since nose up pitch trim ceases, the pilot must hold continuous back pressure in order to flow slower than the speed for ALPHA PROT
  4. The aircraft would go the speed corresponding to ALPHA MAX
  5. With the stick full aft, the elevators will adjust the pitch attitude to maina a maximum safe AOA (ALPHA MAX). This maximum AOA , induced by the pilot, is slightly lower than the stall AOA; therefore the aircraft theoretically cannot be stalled in NORMAL LAW
  6. ALPHA FLOOR is a function of AUTOTHRUST. It will activate at any airspeed based on AOA and automatically apply TOGA thrust regardless of thrust lever position.
    - ALPHA FLOOR is available if:
  7. the AUTOTHRUST is functional (it does not need to be active)
  8. an engine is running (not both), and
  9. the aircraft is in NORMAL LAW
    - AOA protection does not depend on ALPHA FLOOR to function
    - On NEO aircraft, ALPHA FLOOR is inhibited above M0.6
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58
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

Describe what would happen if a flight crew attempted to overstress the aircraft while in NORMAL LAW.

What happens if G Loads become greater that normal?

What happens when side stick pushed forward

What happens to pitch when side stick returned to neutral?

A
  • Maneuver protection prevents a pilot from over stressing the aircraft by limiting flight control inputs
  • If G loads become greater than normal, they are displayed in amber on the lower ECAM above the digital clock (> 1.4g or less than .7g for > 2 sec - displays for 5 secs - AOM 1 p.727)
  • When the side stick is pushed forward, less than 1G is commanded. A given pitch input always results in the same pitch response regardless of airspeed.
  • When the stick is returned to neutral, the new pitch is held constant regardless of airspeed changes
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59
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

What will happen if the pilot over speeds the aircraft? Are there any protections that are available to the pilots

How is the speed at which the protection activates shown on the the airspeed indicator?

What type of warning is generated? Can it be silenced?

How do bank protections change in high speed protection?

A
  • An over speed causes the flight control computers to provide a nose up input to reduce aircraft damage due to excess speed. This protection limits the max airspeed by increasing the pitch attitude even if full forward stick is held
  • The speed at which this protection activates is show on the airspeed indicator as a green “=” sign
  • An overspeed warning is generated as VMO is exceeded (specifically at VMO +4). This warning can only be silenced by the EMER CANCEL pushbutton
  • If the stick is released, the speed will return to VMO/MMO. The protection will allow a momentary increase in airspeed up to VMO+16/MMO+0.04 permit any necessary maneuvering but then the speed will again slow to the limit
  • Positive spiral static stability is introduced to 0 degrees bank angle (instead of 33 deg in normal law) so that with the side stick released the aircraft always returns to bank angle of 0 degrees. The bank angle limit is reduced from 67 deg to 40.
  • If high-speed protective is active, positive spiral stability occurs at all bank angles, and control pressure is required to hold any bank angle greater than zero.
  • It is possible to over speed the aircraft. The computers merely limit the max attainable speed.
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60
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

When a pilot rolls into a bank, what is provided by the Flight Control Laws?

What flight controls does sidestick command?
What is the roll rate at full deflection?
Up to what bank angle is pitch trim automatic?
What do you need to do to maintain bank angle above this?
What is positive spiral static stability

A
  • In “flight” mode of NORMAL LAW, roll control is a roll rate demand.
  • Side stick inputs command the
    1. ailerons,
    2. spoilers 2-5, and the
    3. rudder to achieve the commanded roll rate with bank angle protection, turn coordination, and Dutch roll damping
  • The roll rate demanded by the pilot is proportional to side stick deflection. When the side stick is neutral the ailerons and spoilers are positioned to maintain the roll rate at 0° per second. This results in a constant bank angle.
  • When the side stick is displaced laterally, increasing roll rates are commanded. At full deflection, a roll rate of 15° per second is commanded in NORMAL LAW. The ailerons and spoilers are positioned as necessary to achieve the commanded roll rate.
  • The side stick position cannot be used as a reference to determine the actual positions of flight control surfaces
  • In normal turns (up to 33°) pitch trim is automatic and assists the pilot in maintaining altitude
  • If the bank is increased beyond 33° and the side stick is released, the aircraft would return to 33° of bank. This is known as positive spiral stability
  • Positive spiral stability is a characteristic programmed into the flight control computers, which returns the aircraft to a more stable condition (0° if high speed or AOA protection is active)
  • Beyond 33° of bank, positive spiral stability is active and automatic pitch trim is inhibited. To maintain a bank angle greater than 33°, continuous side stick pressure must be used. Also, continuous back pressure will be needed to maintain altitude since automatic pitch trim is inhibited
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61
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

The pilots find themselves in ALTERNATE LAW. Describe the indications and available protections, and flight control logic.

A
  • In most cases, a single system component failure will not cause a flight control degradation (jammed stabilizer causes a degradation).

Indications:

  • Amber X’s and EW/D message
  • ECAM states PROT LOST, but maneuver protection is still available

Available protections and flight control logic:

  • Autopilot availability in ALTERNATE LAW depends on the failures that caused the degradation. Generally speaking, if the failures do not affect a primary flight control surface, the autopilot should be available
  • Pitch is the same as NORMAL LAW
  • Roll is direct (not roll rate demand) - instead of commanding a specific roll rate, there is a direct relationship between side stick position and control surface position. As a result, roll sensitivity now changes with aircraft speed and amount of side stick deflection. Depending on the failure combination, the maximum roll rate may be as much as twice what it was in NORMAL LAW.
  • Bank angle protection is not available in ALTERNATE LAW. Roll commands are carried out directly without modification
  • Yaw loses coordination
  • Attitude, high speed, and AOA protections are lost. Replaced by high speed stability and low speed stability, respectively.
  • High speed stability activates just prior to the over speed warning. Nose down trim is inhibited
  • Low speed stability activates just prior to the stall warning. Nose up trim is inhibited.
  • The pilot can override the stabilities and over speed or stall the aircraft
  • Attitude protection is lost and the green “=” signs on the PFD are replaced with amber Xs. There are now no limits on how far a pilot can pitch or roll the aircraft. The aircraft can roll beyond the amber Xs. Positive spiral stability is also lost.
  • In ALTERNATE LAW, turn coordination is always lost regardless of FAC status. Yaw damping, rudder trim and rudder limiting is available if a FAC is operational.
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62
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

The pilot finds themselves in DIRECT LAW. Describe the indications, protections, and flight control logic.

In what condition / phase of flight would you mostly likely find yourself in DIRECT LAW?

A
  • When in ALTERNATE LAW, there is no landing mode that would provide consistent control during landing for all possible failure combinations. Consequently, the flight controls transition to DIRECT LAW when the landing gear is extended and autopilot is off.
  • DIRECT LAW is very unlikely in flight. It usually results from lowering the gear while in ALTERNATE LAW.
  • Pitch control is direct. Load factor demand is lost. Pitch sensitivity or control is a factor of airspeed and the amount flight control deflection. Roll control is the same as ALTERNATE LAW (direct relationship with no protections).

Indications:

  • An ECAM message is generated and says “PROT LOST”. Unlike in ALTERNATE LAW, this is now true. There are no protections and stabilities available in DIRECT LAW.
  • Message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” in amber is displayed on the FMA because automatic pitch trim is lost
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63
Q

Flight Controls & Flight Control Laws

  1. The pilots find themselves in MECHANICAL BACKUP. What functions are available?
  2. What would cause the airplane to revert to mechanical backup?
A
  1. control is provided for the rudder and THS (as long as hydr press avail)
  2. complete loss of flight control computers or electrical power, provided that there is hydraulic pressure

———————————————————————————————-

  • MECHCANICAL BACKUP control is provided for the rudder and THS in the event of a complete loss of flight control computers or electrical power, provided that there is hydraulic pressure.
  • Although the airplane can be flown indefinitely in this condition, it is intended to be used only as long as it takes to restore the computers.
  • Note: the EW/D warning message and red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” indication on the FMA. There isn’t a specific mechanical backup ECAM message.

** The side sticks are inoperative.

  • Pitch is controlled with the trim wheel via the mechanical connection to the pitch system
  • Roll and yaw are controlled through the rudder pedals and the mechanical connection to the rudder.
  • In reality, the failure of only four flight control computers may result in mechanical backup: both ELACs and SEC 1 and 2 fail, all computerized pitch control is lost. In this case, because SEC 3 is still available, the side sticks can control roll using one spoiler on each wing, but pitch control is mechanical
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64
Q

ADIRS Panel

What is the ADIRS?

A

Air Data and Inertial Reference System

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65
Q

ADIRS Panel

What type of information does the Air Data Reference System provide?

A
  1. Airspeed
  2. Temperature
  3. AOA
  4. Mach
  5. Barometric altitude
  6. Over speed warnings
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66
Q

ADIRS Panel

What type of information does the IR provide?

A
  1. Aircraft position
  2. Attitude
  3. Acceleration
  4. Angular rates
  5. Flight Path Vector (FPV)
  6. Track
  7. Heading
  8. Groundspeed
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67
Q

ADIRS Panel

If there was an IR1 FAULT, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?

A

ATT/HDG to Capt 3

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68
Q

ADIRS Panel

If there was an ADR1 FAULT, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?

A

AIR DATA to Capt 3

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69
Q

ADIRS Panel

Explain the ADIRS Power-up and Initialization

A
  1. Switch from OFF to NAV
  2. ON BAT light illuminates and then extinguishes
  3. White ALIGN light illuminates for the duration of alignment (only on 319; 502-534)
    - In 319 535-536, 320s and 321s, the E/WD memo section displays “IRS IN ALIGN” during alignment and replaces the ALIGN lights on the overhead panel.
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70
Q

ADIRS Panel

What are some indications of an ADIR having reverted to battery power on the ground?

A
  1. An external horn sounds
  2. The ON BAT light comes on
  3. An ADIRU & AVNCS light illuminates in amber on the external power panel
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71
Q

ADIRS Panel

What is the significance of a steady FAULT light on the IR?

A

IR has failed and cannot be recovered

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72
Q

ADIRS Panel

What is the significance of a flashing FAULT light on the IR?

A

Navigation function is lost. Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode.

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73
Q

ADIRS Panel

Describe what would happen if an ADR was selected OFF?

How could you recover the functions?

A
  • The pilot would lose from that one ADR:
    1. barometric altitude
    2. airspeed
    3. Mach
    4. AOA
    5. temperature
    6. over speed warnings
  • The ECAM would instruct the pilot to select the AIR DATA SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate
  • At that point the affected pilot’s side would return to normal
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74
Q

ADIRS Panel

What functions are lost when an IR is turned OFF?
How can the functions be recovered?

A
  • There are two ADIRS control panels installed on the fleet. On the older panel with keypad and digital display, the pilot would lose the IR (Inertial Reference) part which supplies:
    1. aircraft position
    2. attitude
    3. accelerations
    4. angular rates
    5. flight path vector
    6. track
    7. heading
    8. groundspeed
    along with all the ADR information
    The ECAM instructs the pilot to select the ATT HDG SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate. At that point the affected pilot’s side returns to normal
  • The newer panel with no keypad and digital display allows the pilot to turn off only the IR, and in this case, only the IR information would be lost and the ADR information would still be available.
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75
Q

ADIRS Panel

When would a pilot perform a full alignment versus a quick alignment

A

Full Alignment:

  1. If the IR mode selectors are currently off
  2. First flight of the day
  3. If there is a change of flight crew
  4. If GPS is not available and the Flight Crew expects long segments in poor NAVAID coverage

Quick alignment:
1. For all other flights, if the deviation of the IRS position from the FMGC is greater than 5nm

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76
Q

ADIRS Panel

What could cause the flashing white ALIGN light to illuminate on the ground?

A
  1. PPOS not entered within 10 minutes of alignment or within 3 minutes of fast-alignment
  2. Large difference in LAT/LONG between shutdown position and entered position
  3. Aircraft movement during alignment

Note: no align light on A320 - the E/WD memo section displays “IRS IN ALIGN” during alignment and replaces ALIGN lights on the overhead panel. This memo flashes in green for the same reasons as the ALIGN lights flash on the other aircraft

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77
Q

EXT LTS Panel

If the RWY TURN OFF, LAND and NOSE switches are all in the ON position, which lights automatically extinguish after takeoff?

A

The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted

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78
Q

EXT LTS Panel

What is the difference between position 1 and 2 on the NAV & LOGO Toggle Switch?

A

Separate bulbs

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79
Q

EXT LTS Panel

When do the strobes flash in AUTO?

A

When the main landing gear is not compressed.

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80
Q

APU Panel

What does the illumination APU MASTER SW FAULT indicate?

A

Automatic APU shutdown has occurred

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81
Q

APU Panel

What is the significance of the APU AVAIL light illuminating?

A

APU is running above 99.5% or 2 seconds after N speed reaching 95%. In practical terms it is ready to accept and support ELEC and/or AIR load.

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82
Q

APU Panel

What condition in the APU system would cause an external horn to sound on the ground?

A

APU fire

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83
Q

APU Panel

With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which system is powering the aircraft?

A

2 Avails = APU powering the aircraft

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84
Q

APU Panel

If possible, how would the APU be used if it has already started the cool-down cycle?

A

Pressing the APU MASTER SW pushbutton

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85
Q

APU Panel

When running the securing checklist why is it important to wait 2 minutes after the APU avail light goes out before switching off the batteries?

A

Switching the batteries off before the APU flap is closed may cause smoke in the cabin during the next flight.

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86
Q

SIGNS Panel

What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF?

A
  1. All lights OFF
  2. Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates
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87
Q

SIGNS Panel

Why do we place the NO SMOKING SIGN to AUTO instead of ON?

A

It allows the EMER EXT LT to charge their batteries

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88
Q

INT LTS Panel

What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?

A
  1. Captain’s instrument panel
  2. Right dome light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT)
  3. Standby compass
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89
Q

CABIN PRESS Panel

How is the landing field elevation entered into the pressurization system in automatic, semi-automatic and manual modes?

A

Automatic - FMGC (LDG ELEV must be in AUTO)
Semi-automatic - by LDG ELEV selector button
Manual - by selecting the MODE SEL to MAN and then using the MAN V/S CTL toggle switch

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90
Q

CABIN PRESS Panel

What does selecting the DITCHING pushbutton ON accomplish?

A

Closes all openings below the waterline

Note: If you lose both cabin pressure systems 1 +2, you have to manually close the outflow valve

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91
Q

CABIN PRESS Panel

When would a pilot push the ditching pushbutton?

What does it do?

Which valves?

A
  1. When ditching
  2. When directed by the deicing checklist

1SP Answer:
- closes 5 valves below the waterline

1SP Answer:
(right to left on ovrhd panel)
1. EXTRACT valve
2. Inlet (BLOWER) valve
3. RAM AIR valve
4. PACK flow control valves
5. Main outflow valve
AOM 1 p.120/22

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92
Q

CABIN PRESS Panel

How many controllers are in the pressurization system?

A

Two, only one is used at a time and they swap roles after each landing

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93
Q

CABIN PRESS Panel

How can a pilot manually switch controllers?

A

Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO

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94
Q

CABIN PRESS Panel

What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL pushbutton indicate?

A

Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty

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95
Q

CABIN PRESS Panel

What protects the airframe from excessive cabin differential pressure?

A

Two pressure relief valves

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96
Q

ANTI ICE Panel

What is accomplished if the WING anti-ice pushbutton is selected ON while the aircraft is on the ground?

A

The system will self-test for 30 seconds, and then the valves will close until the aircraft is airborne

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97
Q

ANTI ICE Panel

What does the WING FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?

A
  1. Valve disagreement (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)
  2. Low pressure
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98
Q

ANTI ICE Panel

What does the ENG 1(2) FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?

A

Valve disagreement (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)

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99
Q

ANTI ICE Panel

After selecting the probe/window heat pb on the ground to remove ice or fog on the window, would the pilot need to select it off before T/O?

A

Yes, so it can happen in the automatic mode

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100
Q

ANTI ICE Panel

What part of the wing is heated?

A

Outboard 3 slats

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101
Q

ANTI ICE Panel

In what position do the WING and ENGINE anti ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?

A

Wing - valves CLOSE
Engine - valves OPEN

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102
Q

ANTI ICE Panel

What is the significance of high swept wings versus less swept wings in ice accumulation?

A

The more swept the wing, the less time for the moisture to attach

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103
Q

ANTI ICE Panel

A flight crew is arriving to the aircraft in DTW early in the morning and notice that the cockpit windows are frosted over. What should the flight crew do?

A

Select the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT on. This must be selected off prior to takeoff in order to regain normal system logic

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104
Q

ANTI ICE Panel

The temperature outside is 2C with visible moisture. What should the flight crew turn on?

A

ENG anti-ice after engine start.

Icing conditions may be expected when the OAT (on ground
and for takeoff), or the TAT (in flight), is 10°C or below, and there is visible moisture in any form (such as clouds, fog with low visibility, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals), or when standing water, slush, ice, or snow is present on the taxiways or runway

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105
Q

ANTI ICE Panel

After takeoff, when should the flight crew turn on the WING anti-ice.

A

WING anti ice can be used after the aircraft is in a clean wing and when conditions warrant use

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106
Q

ANTI ICE Panel

Climbing through FL240 in visible moisture, the crew notices the TAT is -22C and the SAT is -45C. What would be appropriate use of the ENG anti ice.

A

Engine anti ice may be turned OFF in this scenario. Engine anti ice is required when icing conditions exist or are expected except during climb or cruise when the SAT is below -40C.

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107
Q

ANTI ICE Panel

Starting a descent out of FL350 with visible moisture, the TAT is -32C and SAT is -53C. What would be appropriate use of the ENG anti ice?

A

Engine anti-ice must be ON during the descent in icing conditions even if SAT is below -40C.

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108
Q

ANTI ICE Panel

Descending through 10,000ft, the pilots notice ice accumulation on the cockpit windshield blades. What should they do?

When can Wing Anti-ice be used?

A

Turn on the WING anti-ice. WING anti-ice may either be used to prevent or remove ice accumulation from the wing leading edges. After takeoff, WING anti-ice can be used after the aircraft is in a clean wing configuration. Ice accumulation can be detected by observing the ice indicator located between the two cockpit windshields or by observing the windshield wiper blades.

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109
Q

ANTI ICE Panel

Can the WING anti-ice be used on the approach and landing?

A

Yes, but it should only be considered in severe icing because second segment climb performance could be affected if a go-around is performed.

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110
Q

ANTI ICE Panel

What is TAT?

A

Total air temperature
- it is also called Indicated Air Temperature (IAT) or Ram Air Temperature (RAT)

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111
Q

ANTI ICE Panel

What is SAT?

A

Static Air Temperature
- is also called Outside Air Temperature (OAT) or True Air Temperature

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112
Q

ANTI ICE Panel

Should a flight crew use TAT or SAT when determining whether to turn anti-ice systems on?

A

TAT indicates when to turn anti-ice ON. SAT indicated when it may be able to be turned OFF

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113
Q

AIR COND Panel

If PACK FLOW is selected to LO, NORM or HIGH and only the APU is providing BLEED AIR or one pack is selected OFF, what will the pack provide?

A

HIGH flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic

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114
Q

AIR COND Panel

If the HOT AIR valve faults, what will happen to the temperature control system?

A

All trim air valves close and PACK 1 controls the cockpit temperature to the selected valve. PACK 2 controls the cabin to the averages selected by the FWD and AFT CABIN temperature selector knobs

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115
Q

AIR COND Panel

How are the PACKS controlled and operated?

A

Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated

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116
Q

AIR COND Panel

What are some potential causes from a PACK FAULT light?

A

PCS

  1. Valve position disagrees with selected
  2. Compressor outlet overheat
  3. Pack outlet overheat
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117
Q

AIR COND Panel

What are some potential causes for ENG BLEED FAULT light?

A
  1. Bleed overpressure
  2. Bleed overheat
  3. Wing or engine leak on the related side
  4. Bleed valve NOT closed during engine start
  5. Bleed valve NOT closed with the APU BLEED ON

1 SP Answer:
E - Excessive Pneumatic Temp or Pressure
W - Wing or Engine Leak
D - Disagreement between ENG and APU bleed valves (failure of auto logic)

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118
Q

AIR COND Panel

What is the logic for the X-BLEED rotary selector?

A
SHUT = the valve is closed 
AUTO = open if the APU bleed valve is open; closed if APU bleed valve is closed or there is a wing, pylon or APU leak (except during engine start) 
OPEN = the valve is OPEN
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119
Q

AIR COND Panel

What does APU BLEED FAULT illumination indicate?

A

APU bleed leak

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120
Q

AIR COND Panel

What does selecting RAM AIR pushbutton accomplish?

A

Ram air inlet opens if the differential pressure is less than 1 PSI

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121
Q

AIR COND Panel

What is the RAM AIR pushbutton used for?

A
  1. Smoke/fumes removal in the cabin
  2. Ventilation of cabin with a dual pack failure

1SP Answer:
RAM AIR utilized for
- unpressurized flight below 10,000ft
- when both PACKs inop and
- ventilation needed (i.e. smoke removal)

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122
Q

AIR COND Panel

How is the Bleed leak detection different on CEO and NEO aircraft?

A

If Bleed Air Monitoring Computer (BMC) fails on NEO airplane, over temperature protection is lost on the affected side. Has no effect on the CEO.

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123
Q

AIR COND Panel

When should you select LO pack flow?

A

319: when number of passengers < 138
320: when number of passengers < 141
321: select ON ECON FLOW when the number of passengers is below 168

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124
Q

ELEC Panel

What is the minimum battery voltage?

A

25.6v

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125
Q

ELEC Panel

What would a pilot do if BAT voltage is 25.5 or below on originating preflight?

How long should the batteries be charged?

A

Charge the batteries with external power by selecting BAT pushbuttons to AUTO

20 minutes, then recheck the voltage

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126
Q

ELEC Panel

Explain how to conduct the BAT check. What if it fails the test?

A
  1. Select ELEC on ECAM
  2. Turn BAT 1 & 2 OFF then ON
  3. Check BAT charge current is < 60 amps and decreasing within 10 seconds
  • If it fails the test, wait until the end of the charging cycle, and repeat the test
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127
Q

ELEC Panel

Describe the electrical power system

A
  • The electrical power system consists of a three-phase 115/200-volt 400-hertz constant frequency AC system and 28-volt DC
  • Normally, the system produces alternating current, some of which is then transformed into direct current for certain applications
  • Each of the aircrafts 3 generators can supply the whole network
  • If all normal AC generation is lost, an emergency generator can supply AC power
  • If all AC generation is lost, the system can transform DC power from the batteries to AC power
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128
Q

ELEC Panel

If all AC power is lost, what happens?

A

DC power from the batteries converted into AC

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129
Q

ELEC Panel

What would be an expected indication in the GEN pushbuttons prior to engine start?

A

FAULT indication

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130
Q

ELEC Panel

Define and describe an IDG

A
  • Integrated Driver Generator
  • Takes variable engine output and gives a constant output
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131
Q

ELEC Panel

How would a pilot disconnect an IDG?

How would an IDG be reconnected?

A

Lift the red guard and push the IDG pushbutton, being careful not to hold the pushbutton for longer than 3 seconds

This cannot be done by the flight crew - it is a maintenance function

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132
Q

ELEC Panel

Describe the function of the BUS TIE in AUTO

A
  • Allows a single source to power AC BUS 1 and 2
  • Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT power to the system
  • Inhibits multiple sources connected simultaneously
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133
Q

ELEC Panel

If GEN 1 fails to supply AC Bus 1, what happens?

A

GEN 2 (or APU GEN if available) powers the system through the bus tie

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134
Q

ELEC Panel

How is the AC ESS bus normally powered?

A

From AC Bus 1

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135
Q

ELEC Panel

If AC BUS 1 fails, how is the AC ESS bus powered?

A

AC Bus 2 automatically feeds the AC ESS bus

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136
Q

ELEC Panel

What indication will be present on the ELEC panel that the AC BUS 2 is feeding the AC ESS bus?

A

AC ESS FEED ALTN light illuminated only if the switch is manually selected

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137
Q

ELEC Panel

What does a GALLEY fault light indicate?

A

At least one generator load is above 100% output

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138
Q

ELEC Panel

Explain the AUTO function of the GALLEY pushbutton

A

Sheds main galley if only 1 GEN is available

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139
Q

ELEC Panel

How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?

A

DC BUS 1 through the DC tie contactor

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140
Q

ELEC Panel

What buses are powered by the EMER GEN?

A

AC ESS BUS
AC ESS SHED
DC ESS BUS by the ESS TR
DC ESS SHED

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141
Q

ELEC Panel

What does a BAT FAULT light indicate?

A
  • Battery charging current outside limits
  • BAT contactor open
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142
Q

ELEC Panel

When are the batteries connected to the battery bus?

A
  1. APU start
  2. Battery charging
  3. AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered and airspeed below 100kts
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143
Q

FUEL Panel

Generally, what is the total fuel capacity?

A

42,000 lbs (41,285)

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144
Q

FUEL Panel

Why is it possible for there to be a value higher than 42,000lbs on the ECAM FOB?

A

The fuel can expand by 2% without venting overboard

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145
Q

FUEL Panel

How many fuel pumps are on the aircraft and where are they located?

A

There are 7 total fuel pumps:

  • 2 center tank pumps
  • 4 wing tank pumps (2 in each wing)
  • 1 APU fuel pump
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146
Q

FUEL Panel

Explain the flow of fuel from before engine start to climb (assume full tanks)

A
  1. At engine start, the fuel is fed from the wing tanks
  2. After an engine is started, the center tank pumps turn on and continue to run for 2 minutes
  3. If slats are selected within those 2 minutes, the center tank pumps will continue to run until the time has elapsed, then they will stop.
    - If the slats are extended at any other time, the center pumps will shut off
  4. At takeoff, the engines feed fuel from their respective wing tanks
  5. When slats are retracted to zero, the fuel is fed from the center tank
  6. When the center tank runs low, the pumps continue to run for 5 minutes
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147
Q

FUEL Panel

What is the difference between the CTR TK Pump on an A319 and some older A320s (601-628) versus CTR TK XFR (transfer) on the A321 and newer A320s (629-656, 690-696, 901-915)?

A

CTR TK Pumps are identical to the main tank fuel pumps. The CTR TK XFR are jet pumps that transfer center tank fuel to the main L (R) pumps

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148
Q

FUEL Panel

What does a fault light in one of the L(R) TK PUMPS pushbuttons indicate?

A

Low delivery pressure

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149
Q

FUEL Panel

What does a fault light in the MODE selector indicate?

A
  1. Failure of the AUTO mode
  2. Center tank has more than 550lbs and either wing tank has less than 11,000lbs
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150
Q

FUEL Panel

How would a pilot know that fueling is in progress?

A

REFUELG message appears on the ECAM. This does not mean the fuel is entering the tanks, merely that the refueling door is open

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151
Q

FUEL Panel

Describe IDG cooling and how it relates to the FADEC

A
  • Some of the fuel supplied to each engine goes from the high-pressure fuel line in that engine, through the integrated drive generator (IDG) heat exchanger (where it absorbs heat), to the fuel return valve, and back to either the wing tank or outer tank, depending on the aircraft.
  • This operation ensures IDG cooling when the oil temperature is high or when at low engine power
  • The FADEC controls the fuel return depending on the temperature of the IDG - the higher the temperature, the higher the flow.
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152
Q

FUEL Panel

What happens if returned IDG cooling fuel fills the wing tanks while the center tanks are feeding?

A

The center tank pumps will cut off until the wing tank quantity is reduced by 1100lbs in the inner tank.

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153
Q

FUEL Panel

What is the approximate fuel capacity of each outer fuel tank, when installed?

A

Approximately 1,500 lbs

154
Q

FUEL Panel

When do the wing outer tanks drain into the inner tanks?

If only one inner tank reaches ____lbs, what happens to the other transfer valve?

A

When the inner tank quantity reaches approx. 1650lbs

All four transfer valves open

155
Q

FUEL Panel

Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer valves closed?

A

Automatically at the next refueling operation as long as there is AC power on the aircraft

156
Q

FUEL Panel

Describe the layout of the fuel tanks

Which airplanes have inner and outer wing tanks?

A

The fuel tank layout depends on the specific aircraft

Fuel is stored in a center tank and wing tanks:

  • On the 319s and 320s, the wing tanks are divided into inner tanks, outer tanks, and vent tanks
  • On 321s, the wing tanks are not divided into inner and outer tanks, but still have vent tanks
157
Q

HYD Panel

What are the three HYD systems called?

A

GREEN, BLUE and YELLOW Systems

158
Q

HYD Panel

How is each hydraulic system normally powered?

A

GREEN - engine driven
BLUE - electrically driven
YELLOW - engine or electrically driven

159
Q

HYD Panel

When does the BLUE pump normally operate?

A

After the first engine is started

160
Q

HYD Panel

If the BLUE system lost pressure, how would pressure be restored?

A

The RAT must be deployed. It does not deploy automatically upon BLUE system loss of pressure, so if needed, it must be manually deployed with the RAT MAN ON pushbutton.

161
Q

HYD Panel

What can be done to correct low ACUM PRESS indication?

A

On the ground, coordinate with ground personnel and turn on the beacon and YELLOW ELEC pump

162
Q

HYD Panel

With no HYD system power, how can the FWD CARGO door be opened?

A

By using a hand pump

163
Q

HYD Panel

What causes the PTU to operate in if in AUTO?

A

Differential pressure of 500 psi between GREEN and YELLOW systems

164
Q

HYD Panel

When is the PTU inhibited?

A
  1. On the ground with ENG MASTER levers split AND either the nose wheel steering disconnected OR the parking brake ON
  2. For 40 seconds after cargo door is operated
165
Q

HYD Panel

What are some users of the GREEN system?

A
  1. Landing gear
  2. ENG 1 thrust reverser
  3. Normal brakes
  4. Slats and flaps
166
Q

HYD Panel

What are some users of the BLUE system?

A
  1. Emergency generator
  2. Slats
167
Q

HYD Panel

What are some users of the YELLOW system?

A
  1. Flaps
  2. Alternate brakes
  3. Nose wheel steering
168
Q

HYD Panel

What do the priority valves do in the HYD system?

A

Removes hydraulic power from the heavy users and protects the flight controls

169
Q

HYD Panel

What would cause a FAULT light in the ENG 1 pump?

A
  1. Pump low pressure
  2. Over temp in reservoir
  3. Low air pressure in reservoir
  4. Low quantity
170
Q

HYD Panel

If the FAULT light illuminates in the ENG 1 pump, what would identify the specific reason for the FAULT?

A

ECAM will display the reason

171
Q

FIRE Panel

Where are the engine fire loops (heat) sensors located?

A
  1. Pylon nacelle
  2. Engine core
  3. Fan section
172
Q

FIRE Panel

How many fire loops are installed per engine?

A

Two - Loop A and B

173
Q

FIRE Panel

In the event of an engine fire, what action arms the fire extinguishing squibs?

A

Pushing to release the ENG FIRE pushbutton

174
Q

FIRE Panel

What happens if both fire loops fail simultaneously?

A

FIRE warning will be issued (if the failure occurs within 5 seconds)

175
Q

FIRE Panel

What does an amber DISCH light mean?

A

Bottle has lost its pressure either by fault or pilot selection

176
Q

FIRE Panel

How many fire bottles are provided for each engine?

A

Two

177
Q

FIRE Panel

How do you conduct a successful engine fire test?

A
  1. ENG 1 and 2 FIRE pb-sw checked in and guarded
  2. AGENT 1 and 2 light checked off
  3. ENG 1 and 2 TEST pb press and maintain to check:
    - Continuous aural chime
    - ENG FIRE pb lighted read + SQUIB and DISCH lights on
    - CRC + MASTER WARN light
    - ENG 1(2) FIRE warning on ECAM ENG SD page displayed
    - FIRE light (on ENG panel) on
178
Q

FIRE Panel

What would occur if the APU is running and an APU fire is detected on the ground? In flight?

A

On ground:
- APU EMER shut down and bottle discharge

In the air:
- no automatic functions

179
Q

ENG Panel

What must the flight crew be aware of when doing a Manual Start on the ground or an Auto Start in the air?

A

The crew must abort the start if something goes wrong

180
Q

ENG Panel

What are the primary differences between a manual and a normal automatic start?

A

The FADEC provides monitoring during a manual start and will provide appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures to follow in the event of a start fault
Automatic start interruption and auto-crank are not available.

181
Q

ENG Panel

With the ENG MODE selector in IGN/START what occurs when the ENG MAN START pushbutton is pressed?

A
  1. The start valve opens
  2. Both pack flow control valves close
182
Q

ENG Panel

What is the primary difference between the IAE V2500 and the PW1100G engine?

A

The NEO PW1100G engine includes a Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS) which allows the low pressure turbine to operate at higher rotational speeds for peak efficiency while the engine’s fan can operate at lower speeds for optimum propulsion efficiency and lower noise levels

183
Q

ENG Panel

When would a First Officer manually abort an AUTOMATIC start on the ground and what COM procedure would you apply when after selecting the master switch off?

A
  1. The ground crew reports a tail pipe fire, Accomplish the COM Abnormal/Emergency Procedures “Engine Tailpipe Fire” procedure
  2. In the case of electrical power supply interrupted during the start sequence (indicated by loss of ECAM DUs), COM supplemental procedure Engine Ventilation (Dry Cranking)
184
Q

ENG Panel

What is the approximate time the engine will dry crank during an Automatic engine start?

A
  1. IAE V2500 - Approximately 30 seconds
  2. PW1100G - Approximately 2 minutes
185
Q

VENTILATION Panel

When would a pilot select the EXTRACT to OVRD?

A
  1. Heavy rain on the ground
  2. When directed to by the ECAM
186
Q

VENTILATION Panel

What are some potential causes for the illumination of the BLOWER FAULT pb light?

A
  1. Low blower pressure
  2. Duct overheat
  3. Computer power supply failure
  4. Smoke warning activated
187
Q

VENTILATION Panel

What are some potential causes for the illumination of the EXTRACT FAULT light?

A
  1. Low extract pressure
  2. Computer power supply failure
  3. Smoke warning activated
188
Q

VENTILATION Panel

What condition in the avionics ventilation system would cause an external horn to sound?

A

BLOWER FAULT or EXTRACT FAULT on the ground with both engines stopped

189
Q

VENTILATION Panel

Describe the avionics ventilation system

A
  • It is a fully automated system that considers the skin temperature and adjusts inlet and outlet flaps to optimize cooling and airflow
  • During normal operations, the AIR COND INLET VALVE remains closed

OPEN CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION - both the inlet and the outlet flaps are fully open (aircraft is on the ground and the skin temperature is above a set threshold)

CLOSED CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION - Both the inlet and outlet flaps are fully closed. The SKIN EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS VALVE and SKIN EXCHANGE ISOLATION VALVE is open, allowing air to the cargo under the floor, eventually exiting via the outflow valve (aircraft is on the ground or in-flight and the skin temperature below a set threshold)

INTERMEDIATE CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION - The inlet flap is fully closed, the outlet small flap is open (aircraft is in-flight and the skin temperature is above a set threshold)

During abnormal operations, the AIR COND INLET VALVE always opens providing fresh ventilation air.

BLOWER or EXTRACT FAULT - Both inlet and outlet flaps are fully closed, SKIN EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS VALVE closed.

SMOKE CONFIGURATION - Once the BLOWER and EXTRACT pushbuttons have been selected to OVRD, the blower fan will stop, the extract fan will continue to run. The inlet flap closes, the small outlet flap opens, the SKIN EXCHANGE ISOLATION VALVE closes and the SKIN EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS VALVE closes.

190
Q

CARGO SMOKE PANEL

Following a cargo smoke indication and subsequent discharge of the cargo smoke bottle, what would be the expected indication on the CARGO SMOKE panel?

A

The SMOKE light and associated ECAM warning may remain illuminated due to the halon concentration present in the cargo compartment.

191
Q

CARGO SMOKE PANEL

How many fire extinguishing bottles are there in the cargo extinguishing system?

A

Only one that has ducting to both FWD and AFT compartments, but the discharge can only be directed to one compartment.

192
Q

AUDIO MGMT PANEL

When would the AUDIO SWITCHING be used?

A

Enables Captain or First Officer to utilize the overhead Audio Control Panel in case of individual ACP failure.

193
Q

MAINTENANCE PANEL

When would the pilots use the maintenance panel?

A
  1. If an MEL requires its use.
  2. If the engine oil quantity indication does not appear on the ENG SD page. set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pbs on the overhead maintenance panel to ON.
194
Q

MAINTENANCE PANEL

Do the pilots use the maintenance panel?

Which pushbutton would be used?

A

Only if an MEL required pressurization of the BLUE system on the ground with the engines OFF.

The BLUE PUMP OVRD pushbutton

195
Q

MAINTENANCE PANEL

If a mechanic pressed the APU AUTO EXTING TEST pushbutton what would occur?

A

The APU would shut down.

196
Q

OVERHEAD CIRCUIT BREAKER PANEL

What is the significance of black and green circuit breakers?

A
  • Green – monitored by ECAM
  • Black – not monitored by ECAM
197
Q

OVERHEAD CIRCUIT BREAKER PANEL

What is the significance of a red collared circuit breaker?

A

The flight crew should not pull or manipulate these collared circuit breakers.

198
Q

MCDU/FMGS

What are the two modes of flight guidance?

What is the managed mode of flight guidance used for?

Does selected or managed guidance have priority?

A
  1. Managed guidance - long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS.
  2. Selected guidance - temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected with the FCU.

• Selected guidance has priority

199
Q

MCDU/FMGS

What is the managed mode of flight guidance used for?

A

• Long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS.

200
Q

MCDU/FMGS

What is the selected mode of flight guidance used for?

A

• Temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected with the FCU.

201
Q

MCDU/FMGS

Does selected or managed guidance have priority?

A

• Selected guidance

202
Q

MCDU/FMGS

What does ACTIVATE/CONFIRM APPR phase do for the pilot if in managed speed?

What happens if the pilots forget to ACTIVATE/ CONFIRM the APPR phase while in the descent phase?

A
  • Allows autothrust and speed target to follow a predetermined schedule, based on flap selection:
  • F0 = green dot
  • F1=Sspeed
  • F2=Fspeed
  • F3 = F speed or VAPP (depending on landing flap selection)
  • Full = VAPP
  • If using managed speed, GSMINI is available. If using selected speed, GSMINI is not available.

What happens if the pilots forget to ACTIVATE/ CONFIRM the APPR phase while in the descent phase?
Once you select manage speed the airplane will add power to obtain 250 kts below 10,000 ft.

203
Q

MCDU/FMGS

What time of day would a pilot have to switch to a new Navigation Database?

A

0901z

204
Q

MCDU/FMGS

Can the crew modify data in the navigation database?

A

The crew has limited ability to create pilot stored navigational data.

205
Q

MCDU/FMGS

How would a flight crew determine the validity of the navigation database?

A

On the A/C STATUS page.

206
Q

MCDU/FMGS

What input does each FMGC normally use for position determination?

A

A hybrid IRS/GPS position.

207
Q

MCDU/FMGS

What is the normal operational mode of the FMGS?

A

Dual mode, with one FMGS as master and the other FMGS as slave

AOM 1, p.161
Each FMGS performs it’s own computations and exchanges data through a crosstalk bus

If 1 AP engaged, related FMGC is master
If 2 APs engaged, FMGC 1 is master
If no AP/FD engaged, FMGC 1 controls A/THR

208
Q

MCDU/FMGS

How does autopilot selection influence master FMGS logic?

A
  • If one autopilot is engaged, the respective FMGS is master
  • If both autopilots are engaged, FMGS 1 will be the master
  • If no autopilot is engaged FMGS 1 is the master
209
Q

MCDU/FMGS

If an amber OFF SIDE FM CONTROL message is displayed on the ND what action should the crew take?

A

An FMGS has failed and both NDs must be set to the same mode and range. The full procedure can be found in the COM.

210
Q

MCDU/FMGS

In cruise flight with AP1 engaged, what would happen if AP2 was selected?

A

The AP2 would takeover, and AP1 would disengage. It is only possible to engage both autopilots in the approach phase after selection of the APPR pushbutton while conducting a ILS approach.

211
Q

MCDU/FMGS

What is the difference between the large and small fonts utilized in the MCDU?

A
  • Large – Pilot entries and modifiable data
  • Small – Default or computed, non-modifiable data
212
Q

MCDU/FMGS

If the FLEX TEMP is not entered on the TAKEOFF page of the MCDU, and the thrust levers are positioned in the FLEX detent, what will occur and what should be done?

A
  • A ECAM CAUTION will be generated
  • Thrust levers should be moved into the TOGA detent and continue the takeoff.
213
Q

GLARESHIELD / FCU

What are some causes for an AUTOLAND light?

A
  1. Excessive LOC or GS deviation or signal failure
  2. Radio altimeter difference of greater than 15 feet
  3. Both autopilots fail
214
Q

GLARESHIELD / FCU

Explain the side stick operation and the associated glare shield SIDE STICK PRIORITY light.

What happens if both pilots move respective side sticks?

How can the pilot losing authority regain side stick authority?

How can a side stick be rendered inoperative?

When do the Green CAPT/FO lights flash?

A
  • Normally only one side stick should be operated at any given time.
  • Should there be dual inputs, an aural “DUAL INPUT” will be annunciated over the speaker and the SIDE STICK PRIORITY green CAPT and F/O lights will flash. Side stick inputs are algebraically summed.
  • Any time a pilot monitoring has to assume control, it MUST be verbally annunciated (“I HAVE CONTROL”). An aural alert “PRIORITY LEFT (RIGHT)” will be annunciated over the speaker and the SIDE STICK PRIORITY red arrow light will illuminate in front of the pilot losing authority
  • If the pilot previously flying does not relinquish control (or if there is a malfunction present) the light in front of the pilot with priority lights up it will go out when the other pilot returns the stick to the neutral position, the side stick can be rendered inoperative by holding the takeover push button for 40 seconds.
  • The pilot having lost side stick authority can regain it by momentarily pressing the takeover pushbutton
  • Red Arrow light is illuminated on the pilot losing authority
  • The Green CAPT / FO lights flash when both pilots move the side stick simultaneously.
215
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

What does each column mean on the PFD?

A

A/THR | VERTICAL | LATERAL | APPCH CAPABILITY, DH/MDA | AP, FD, A/THR ENGAGEMENT STATUS

216
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

How is the crew made aware of mode changes on the FMA?

A

A white box is temporarily displayed around the new indication.

217
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

Modes are displayed in the FMA in blue, magenta, and green. What do they indicate?

A
  • Blue – armed
  • Magenta – armed because of a constraint
  • Green – engaged
218
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

When going around in the A320 NEO, if the FMA displays an amber message reading, “FOR GA: SET TOGA”, what action should the pilot take?

When would this message display?

A
  • The Pilot should move the thrust levers into the TOGA detent.
  • When AP/FD is in approach vertical mode and aircraft is below 1000 ft RA, this message is displayed if all thrust levers are moved to or above the MCT detent, but below the TOGA detent.
219
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

When is the side stick position indication icon (white cross) displayed?

A
  • Displayed when the first engine is started
  • Disappears at liftoff
220
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

What do the large red arrowheads indicate?

A

Pitch attitude of +30°

221
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

After loading an ILS approach into the MCDU and selecting the (I)LS pushbutton, what indications on should be present on the PFD?

A
  1. ILS frequency and course
  2. ILS identifier (once in range and identified)
  3. LOC and GS scales
222
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

When would the sideslip index change from yellow to blue?

A

In case of an engine failure during takeoff/go-around, it becomes a blue beta target.

223
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

What does the yellow speed trend line on the airspeed display indicate?

A

The speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds if acceleration/deceleration remains constant.

224
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

What is the difference between the magenta and blue target airspeeds?

A
  • Magenta – Managed speed computed by the FMGC
  • Blue – Selected speed on the FCU
225
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

What is VLS and how is it displayed?

In approach mode, what is it equivalent to?

A
  • Represents lowest selectable speed providing an appropriate margin to the stall speed
  • Defined by the top of the amber strip along the airspeed scale
  • In approach mode, it is equivalent to VREF
226
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

What speed does VMAX represent and how is it displayed?

A
  • It is the lowest of VMO/VMMO, VLE or VFE
  • Defined by the bottom of a red and black strip along the speed scale
227
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

What is Green Dot speed?

A
  • Engine out operating speed in clean configuration
  • Appears when the aircraft is in the clean configuration
  • Corresponds to the best lift-to-drag ratio
228
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

What are the benefits of Ground Speed Mini (GSMINI)?

A
  • Calculated groundspeed at the runway
  • Protects against actual groundspeed dropping below this calculated groundspeed
229
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

What does it mean if the magenta target airspeed triangle is above VAPP on the approach?

A

• GSMINI has increased speed due to a higher headwind component at the present location.

230
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

What are the 3 key factors in the GSMINI Calculations?

A
  1. TWR wind = the MAG WIND entered in the PERF approach page (no gusts)
  2. TWR headwind component = the component of the MAG WIND projected on the runway axis (landing runway entered in the flight plan).
  3. Current Headwind Component = the actual wind measured by ADIRS is projected on the aircraft axis to define the current headwind component. The current headwind component is used to compute the variable speed target during final (IAS target).
231
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

What does it mean when the altitude digits on the altimeter change from green to amber?

A

The aircraft has descended below the MDA/DH entered into the FMGC.

232
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

When is radio height displayed on the PFD?

A

Below 2,500 feet

233
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

Information from ILS receiver 1 is displayed where?

A
  1. Captain’s PFD
  2. First Officer’s ND
234
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD)

What would a flashing amber ILS indicate on the bottom of the PFD?

A

Flashes amber when APPR mode is armed and the ILS pb is not selected.

235
Q

PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY (PFD) *Differences*

Is a visual warning provided to the pilot if the aircraft is stalling?

A
  • Non NEO Aircraft = No visual indication
  • NEO Aircraft = STALL warning indication on PFD
236
Q

NAVIGATION DISPLAY (ND) / SYSTEM DISPLAY (SD)

What colors are used to represent the various displayed flight plans?

Active
Secondary
Temporary
Alternate
Missed Approach
Flight Plan Capture
Database EOSID

A
  1. Active – continuous green line
  2. Secondary – continuous white line
  3. Temporary – dashed yellow line
  4. Alternate – dashed blue line
  5. Missed approach – continuous blue line
  6. Flight Plan Capture – continuous green with intercept path computed
  7. Data base EOSID – continuous yellow line
237
Q

NAVIGATION DISPLAY (ND) / SYSTEM DISPLAY (SD)

“Top of Descent” and “ Continue Descent” arrows are displayed in blue or white. What is the difference?

A
  • Top of Descent – Always white (never armed)
  • Continue Descent – Blue indicates armed, white indicates NOT armed
238
Q

NAVIGATION DISPLAY (ND) / SYSTEM DISPLAY (SD)

What color does each altitude constraint circle represent?

White
Magenta
Amber

A
  • White – constraint is not taken into account
  • Magenta – constraint is predicted to be satisfied
  • Amber – constraint is predicted to be missed
239
Q

NAVIGATION DISPLAY (ND) / SYSTEM DISPLAY (SD)

When is a STATUS page displayed?

A
  • After a failure is displayed on the SD and all failure items have been cleared
  • Display will reappear when the slats are extended
240
Q

ENGINE/WARNING DISPLAY (E/WD)

What are the 3 levels of ECAM Malfunction Notifications?

A
  • Level 3: WARNINGS – Associated with the red MASTER WARN light, CRC, red E/WD message, and require immediate action
  • Level 2: CAUTIONS – Associated with the amber MASTER CAUTION light, single chime, amber E/WD message, and require crew awareness
  • Level 1: CAUTIONS – Associated with amber E/WD message, no aural signal, and requires crew monitoring
241
Q

ENGINE/WARNING DISPLAY (E/WD)

If simultaneous failures occur, how will they be presented to the crew?

A

A Level 3 WARNING has priority over a Level 2 CAUTION, which has priority over a Level 1 CAUTION.

242
Q

ENGINE/WARNING DISPLAY (E/WD)

What does the appearance of a green arrow indicate at the bottom of the E/WD screen?

A

• Information has overflowed off the screen and the pilot must scroll down using the CLR pushbutton on the ECAM panel.

243
Q

ENGINE/WARNING DISPLAY (E/WD)

What does the display of T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT indicate?

A

Most warnings and cautions are inhibited to avoid unnecessary distractions during critical phases of flight.

244
Q

ENGINE/WARNING DISPLAY (E/WD)

What are some of the warnings NOT inhibited with T.O INHIBIT displayed?

A
  • ENGINE FIRE
  • APU FIRE
  • ENG FAIL
  • ENG OIL LO PR
  • L+R ELEV FAULT
  • A/P OFF
  • CONFIG
  • FWC 1+2 FAULT
245
Q

ENGINE/WARNING DISPLAY (E/WD)

If the flaps handle setting does not match the setting required by the MCDU, will you get a T/O CONFIG Warning?

A

No. As long as the flap handle is in 1, 2, or 3, no warning will be generated.

246
Q

ENGINE/WARNING DISPLAY (E/WD)

When does the Takeoff Memo appear and disappear?

A

Appears:
1. Two minutes after the 2nd engine is started
or
2. when the T.O. CONFIG TEST pushbutton is pressed with one engine running

Disappears:
• Memo is removed when takeoff power is applied

247
Q

ENGINE/WARNING DISPLAY (E/WD)

When does the Landing Memo appear and disappear?

A

Appears:
• below 2,000 feet RA
• After a go-around, if the aircraft does not climb above 2,200 feet RA, the landing memo appears only below 800 ft RA during the subsequent approach

Disappears:
• after touchdown (80 knots)

248
Q

ENGINE/WARNING DISPLAY (E/WD)

What does the boxed STS indicate when displayed on the E/WD?

When and why would it flash?

A
  • The STATUS page holds messages other than CANCELLED CAUTIONS
  • Flashes after engine shutdown to alert maintenance of any other applicable messages
249
Q

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL [LANDING GEAR]

What is the function of the two Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIUs)?

A
  1. Provide sequencing, operation, monitoring, and indications for the landing gear.
  2. Provide aircraft “In Flight” or “On the Ground” signals to other aircraft systems
250
Q

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL [LANDING GEAR]

What hydraulic system powers the landing gear and doors?

A

Green

251
Q

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL [LANDING GEAR]

When does the red arrow in the LND panel illuminate?

A

Below 750 feet RA, when the aircraft is in the landing configuration and the landing gear is not locked down.

252
Q

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL [LANDING GEAR]

What happens if airspeed is 280 knots and the Landing Gear lever is selected DOWN?

A

Nothing. A safety valve shuts off hydraulic power to the landing gear system when airspeed is above 260 knots.

253
Q

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL [LANDING GEAR]

What do the red UNLK lights indicate?

A

The landing gear is not locked in the selected position.

254
Q

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL [LANDING GEAR]

If LGCIU 1 fails will the lights still work?

A

Yes, as long as it is still powered.

255
Q

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL [LANDING GEAR]

What controls and manages all normal braking functions?

A

The Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU)

256
Q

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL [LANDING GEAR]

What happens when the A/SKID and N/W STRG is switched OFF?

A
  1. Loss of nose wheel steering
  2. Braking is powered by the YELLOW system
  3. Anti-skid is deactivated
  4. ABCU takes over
257
Q

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL [LANDING GEAR]

Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the brakes?

A
  • Normal brakes – GREEN
  • Alternate brakes – YELLOW backed up by a hydraulic accumulator
258
Q

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL [LANDING GEAR]

When do the Auto Brakes activate on landing if armed?

A

When the ground spoilers deploy.

259
Q

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL [LANDING GEAR]

What is the difference between LOW and MED AUTO BRK?

A
  • LOW – progressive pressure applied to brakes 4 seconds after ground spoilers deploy in order to decelerate the aircraft at a rate of 5.6 ft./s2
  • MED – progressive pressure applied to brakes 2 seconds after ground spoilers deploy in order to decelerate the aircraft at a rate of 9.8 ft./s2
260
Q

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL [LANDING GEAR]

What does the AUTO BRK green DECEL light indicate?

A

Actual rate of deceleration is within 80% of the selected rate.

261
Q

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL [LANDING GEAR]

What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK to activate on a rejected takeoff?

A
  1. Airspeed above 72 knots, and
  2. Thrust levers at IDLE, and
  3. Ground spoiler extension
262
Q

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL [LANDING GEAR]

What is the impact of the loss of GREEN hydraulic pressure on the Auto Brakes?

A

The Auto Brake function is lost, because the aircraft is now relying on the alternate brake system.

263
Q

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL [LANDING GEAR]

If on the alternate brake system, what is required in order to maintain Anti-skid function, if anything?

A

At least 1 channel of the BSCU

264
Q

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL [LANDING GEAR]

What would happen to the spoilers if they were not armed, but at least one engine was selected into reverse thrust?

A

They would still deploy, even if they were not armed

265
Q

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL [LANDING GEAR]

How many brake applications are available with accumulator pressure?

A

Approximately 7 full applications

266
Q

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL [LANDING GEAR]

What does the BRAKES and ACCU PRESS triple indicator indicate?

A
  • YELLOW hydraulic pressure delivered to the left and right brakes
  • YELLOW system brake accumulator pressure
267
Q

SWITCHING PANEL

What computers feed data to the six display units?

A

Three Display Management Computers (DMC)

268
Q

SWITCHING PANEL

If there are any automatic functions of the DMCs in the event of a failure, explain the automatic logic.

A

If DMC 1 fails (or DMC3 if “CAPT 3” was selected), DMC 2 automatically drives the ECAM.

AOM 1 p.700

269
Q

SWITCHING PANEL

What are the indications on the DUs if a DMC has failed?

A

“INVALID DATA” will be displayed in the respective EFIS/ECAM display unit.

270
Q

SWITCHING PANEL

What happens when the upper DU fails?

A

The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the lower DU display.

271
Q

SWITCHING PANEL

If both the E/WD and SD display units fail, how can the E/WD information be displayed?

A

By selecting the ECAM/ND XFR switch to CAPT or F/O

272
Q

ECAM CONTROL PANEL

If the upper DU knob is selected to OFF what will occur?

A

The E/WD display would automatically transfer to the “lower” display.

273
Q

ECAM CONTROL PANEL

With the E/WD displayed on the “ lower” screen, what steps should be taken to view SD information?

A

Press and hold the appropriate system button on the ECAM CONTROL panel. The information selected will be available for 30 seconds.

274
Q

ECAM CONTROL PANEL

What does the ALL pushbutton do?

A
  • Displays ALL the system pages successively in 1-second intervals when held down
  • Release the pushbutton to maintain display of the selected page
275
Q

ECAM CONTROL PANEL

What does pressing the RCL pushbutton do?

What does pressing for 3 seconds do?

A
  1. Allows the flight crew to review any warning or caution messages:
    - that the CLR pushbutton or
    - flight phase inhibition
    may have suppressed
  2. If held longer than 3 seconds, the E/WD will show any caution messages suppressed by the EMER CANC pushbutton
276
Q

ECAM CONTROL PANEL

If the STS pushbutton is pressed and the system has no STATUS messages, what will be displayed?

A

“NORMAL” for 5 seconds

277
Q

ECAM CONTROL PANEL

What occurs during the Before Takeoff Flow when the T.O. CONFIG pushbutton is pressed?

What happens if not configured properly?

What displays if config correct?

A
  • The system simulates the application of takeoff power and checks certain systems for proper configuration
  • A warning is displayed if a system is not configured properly
  • “TO CONFIG NORMAL” is displayed in the TO MEMO section if the configuration is correct
278
Q

ECAM CONTROL PANEL

What does the EMER CANC accomplish?

How can you recall inhibited messages?

A
  1. Cancels the audio for warning messages (without removing any ECAM message)
  2. Cancels the present caution for the rest of the flight
  3. Calls up the STATUS page, which displays “CANCELLED CAUTION” and the TITLE of the failure

• Inhibited message can be recalled by holding RCL for more than three seconds

279
Q

ECAM CONTROL PANEL

What is the purpose of having the EMER CANC pushbutton?

A

Used to cancel spurious MASTER CAUTIONS

280
Q

TRIMMABLE HORIZONTAL STABILIZER

If no hydraulic power is available, what is the impact on the THS?

A

The THS is jammed.

281
Q

TRIMMABLE HORIZONTAL STABILIZER

What happens to the THS after landing?

A

The trim automatically resets to zero.

282
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

What controls the engines in all operating regimes?

A

FADECs (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls)

283
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

What is the power source for the FADEC?

A
  • The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above 10%
  • If this alternator fails, the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft electrical power
284
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

The FADEC detects a fault during automatic start. What crew intervention is required?

A

There is no crew intervention necessary. The FADEC will discontinue the start, dry crank to clear the fuel from the engine, and attempt a restart (if warranted) automatically.

285
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

How many igniters fire during a normal automatic ground start sequence?

How many igniters fire on manual or in-flight starts?

A

Automatic ground start:
• One igniter with the other serving as a backup
• The FADEC automatically alternates the igniters (A or B) at each start

In-flight:
• Two, both A and B

286
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

On the ground, how can the A/THR be armed?

A
  • By setting the thrust levers in the TOGA or FLEX gate (with a FLEX temperature inserted in the MCDU)
  • At least one FD must be ON for A/THR to arm during takeoff
287
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

What is the active range of the A/THR?

A
  • Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2 engines)
  • Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1 engine)
288
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR system will be able to command?

A

The thrust lever angle

289
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

What are three ways to disconnect the A/THR?

What is the proper method of disconnecting A/THR?

A
  1. A/THR pushbutton
  2. Instinctive disconnect pushbuttons
  3. Thrust levers to IDLE

Set the thrust lever angle to the existing EPR and push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons

290
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

How would the A/THR be disconnected for the remainder of the flight?

What’s protection would you lose if you did this?

A

Press and hold the instinctive disconnect pushbutton for 15 seconds. The A/THR cannot be re-engaged once this is done. ALPHA FLOOR is also lost if this is done.

291
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the FMA during ALPHA FLOOR?

A
  • Thrust – TOGA
  • FMA – “A.FLOOR”
292
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

When does the aircraft leave ALPHA FLOOR and what does the FMA change to?

A

Upon reaching a lower angle of attack. The FMA changes to “TOGA LK”

293
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

What should the pilot do to get out of TOGA LOCK?

A
  1. Push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons and 2. move the THRUST LEVERS to the CL detent, if not already in the climb detent

• Afterwards re-engage the autothrust

294
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

When will ALPHA FLOOR activate?

A

When the aircraft reaches a high AOA

295
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

When would Thrust Lock occur?

What happens?

How would you get out of thrust lock?

A
  1. Thrust levers in CL detent (or the MCT detent with one engine out) and A/THR pushbutton on the FCU is pushed, or
  2. A/THR disconnects due to a failure

The thrust is locked at its level prior to disconnection.

Moving the thrust levers out of CL or MCT suppresses the thrust lock and gives the Flight Crew manual control with the thrust levers.

296
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

How is A/THR normally armed?

A

By advancing the thrust levers to TOGA or FLX

297
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

What would be the normal FMA indications during a takeoff roll using FLEX thrust on a RWY with a localizer?

What would the FMA indications be during a takeoff roll using TOGA thrust on a runway without a localizer?

A

Rwy with a localizer:
MAN FLX, SRS, RWY, A/THR (blue)

Rwy without a localizer:
MAN TOGA, SRS, A/THR (blue)

298
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

What would the FMA indications be during takeoff roll if the A/THR didn’t arm on a runway with a localizer? Should the takeoff be aborted?

A

SRS, RWY

• Continuing the takeoff is a safe option, but the thrust levers must be moved to the climb detent at thrust reduction altitude and the crew must manually engage A/THR.

299
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

How should A/THR be turned off?

A

Match the blue thrust lever angle indicators to the present thrust setting on the EWD and push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons or move THRUST LEVERS to IDLE

300
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

What should the pilot do to get out of THRUST LOCK?

A

Move it out of the climb detent

301
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

What controls the engine LP fuel valves?

A
  1. Engine MASTER switch
  2. ENGINE FIRE pushbutton
302
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

What does a FAULT light on the ENG panel indicate?

A

HAT

HP FSOV is abnormal
Abort of auto eng start seq
Thrust control malfunction

  1. The position of the HP fuel shut off valve is abnormal, or
  2. Automatic start sequence of the associated engine aborts, or
  3. There is a malfunction of the thrust control.
303
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

When does continuous ignition automatically operate?

A

NEO Aircraft:

  1. Engine flameout detection
  2. Failure of the EIU
  3. In-flight unscheduled sub idle or surge
  4. Master switch cycled from ON to OFF then back to ON position

Non-NEO Aircraft:
1-4. All of the above
5. Engine anti ice ON
6. Approach idle
7. MAX/FLEX power selected

304
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

What is the required engine warm up time?

A
  • IAE V2500/PW1100G Shutdown - 2hrs = 3 Mins
  • IAE V2500/PW1100G Shutdown + 2hrs = 5 Mins
305
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

What is the required engine cool down time after landing?

A

• IAE V2500:
0 Mins Rev Idle
3 Mins Greater than reverse idle

PW1100G (NEO):
Minimum of 3 Mins, 5 Mins recommended

306
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

What does the cooling indication mean on the E/WD for NEO Aircraft?

A
  • Steady indication = Automatic dry cranking is about to begin and the timer indicates the time left before dry crank begins.
  • Pulsing indication = Automatic dry cranking is in progress
307
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

If icing conditions exist on the ground, how is the Engine Run-up procedure different for NEO and non-NEO aircraft?

A

Non-NEO IAE V2500:
Accelerate to Minimum of 50% N1 at intervals not more than 15 minutes apart

NEO PW1100G:
Accelerate to Minimum of 60% N1 at intervals not more than 30 minutes apart

(AOM 2 p.697, 2.320.5)

308
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

If during start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine, what should be done by the flight crew?

A

Non-NEO IAE V2500 = Run the engine for 5 minutes, if leak disappears, the flight can continue without Maintenance action

NEO PW1100G = Abort the engine start sequence, Maintenance action is Required

309
Q

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS

How is Approach Idle different on NEO vs non-Neo aircraft?

A

Non-NEO: When Flaps extended
Neo: Flaps 3 OR Flaps Full OR Gear Down

Non-NEO Minimum Approach Idle Speed occurs when:
• Aircraft is in flight and the flaps are extended (flap lever not at 0 position)

NEO Minimum Approach Idle Speed occurs when:
• Aircraft is in flight and the flaps are at CONF 3 or FULL or when the landing gear is down.

310
Q

FLAPS / SLATS

How are the flaps and slats affected if only GREEN hydraulic system pressure available?

A

The flaps and slats will still operate, but at half speed

311
Q

FLAPS / SLATS

What system prevents flap or slat asymmetry?

A

Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)

312
Q

FLAPS / SLATS

If the WTBs activate due to a flap asymmetry, how are the slats affected?

A

The slats can still operate normally - only flap operation is inhibited.

313
Q

FLAPS / SLATS

What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1 on the FLAPS lever and how do they differ?

A
  • CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + flaps
  • CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats only
314
Q

FLAPS / SLATS

When will the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) operate?

A

During acceleration in CONF 1+F, the flaps (not slats) will automatically retract to 0 at 210 knots.

315
Q

FLAPS / SLATS

What is ALPHA LOCK?

A

This function inhibits retracting slats from 1 to 0 at a high angle of attack and low airspeed.

316
Q

FLAPS / SLATS

What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?

A

The ailerons droop

317
Q

SPEED BRAKES / SPOILERS

Discuss the ground spoiler logic on a rejected takeoff.

A
  • If the ground spoilers are armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as both thrust levers are set to idle.
  • If the ground spoilers are not armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).
  • Therefore, selecting at least idle reverse will always provide ground spoiler deployment.
318
Q

SPEED BRAKES / SPOILERS

Discuss the ground spoiler logic on landing.

A

Full extension:
The ground spoilers will automatically extend when the following conditions are met:
• Speed brake lever not in the retracted position or ground spoilers armed and:
1. Both main landing gears on ground,
2. Both thrust levers at or below idle position, or Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
• Speed brake lever in the retracted position but ground spoilers not armed and:
1. Both main landing gears on ground,
2. Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position).

The ailerons are fully-extended, provided one aileron servocontrol is available on each side, when:

  1. The ground spoilers are fully extended
  2. Flaps are not in clean CONF
  3. Pitch attitude is lower than 2.5 °
  4. Flying manually
  5. In normal law only.

Partial extension:
In order to accelerate the full spoiler extension, the Phased Lift Dumping (PLD) function allows the ground spoilers to deploy with a reduced deflection when the following conditions are met:
• Speed brake lever not in the retracted position or ground spoilers armed and:
1. One main landing gear on ground,
2. Both thrust levers at or below idle position.
• Speed brake lever in the retracted position, but ground spoilers not armed and:
1. One main landing gear on ground,
2. Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
In order to reduce the bounce severity at landing in the case of an inappropriate thrust lever handling during flare, ground spoilers are also partially deployed when the following conditions are met:
1. Ground spoilers armed,
2. Both main landing gears on ground,
3. Both thrust levers at or below the Climb position.

Retraction:
The ground spoilers retract:
1. After landing,
2. After a rejected takeoff, when the ground spoilers are disarmed.
3. During a touch and go, when at least one thrust lever is advanced above 20°.

319
Q

SPEED BRAKES / SPOILERS

When will the ground spoilers automatically retract?

A

During a touch and go/balk landing and at least one thrust lever is advance above 20%

320
Q

SPEED BRAKES / SPOILERS

What are some conditions that inhibit speed brake extension?

A
  1. Angle of Attack protection is active
  2. Thrust levers above the MCT position
  3. ALPHA FLOOR is active
321
Q

SPEED BRAKES / SPOILERS

In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected or electrical power is lost?

A

The spoilers automatically retract.

322
Q

SPEED BRAKES / SPOILERS

Is there any landing configuration when speed brake extension is inhibited?

A
  • A319/A320 – Flaps FULL
  • A321 – Flaps 3 and FULL
323
Q

RADAR PANEL

How would a flight crew analyze windshear with the RADAR system off?

A

If the PWS switch is in AUTO, reactive windshear detection is still available, even though the RADAR system is off.

324
Q

RADAR PANEL

When are predictive windshear (WINDSHEAR AHEAD) alerts inhibited?

A
  • On takeoff above 100 knots and up to 50 feet.
  • During landing below 50 feet
325
Q

RADIO MANAGEMENT PANEL (RMP)

How are the communications radios tuned?

A

From any one of the three Radio Management Panels (RMPs)

326
Q

RADIO MANAGEMENT PANEL (RMP)

Which RMP is powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?

A

RMP 1

327
Q

RADIO MANAGEMENT PANEL (RMP)

Which communication radios are powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?

A

VHF COM 1, HF 1

328
Q

RADIO MANAGEMENT PANEL (RMP)

Why would a pilot select the NAV key on an RMP? In what scenarios?

A
  • When both MCDUs fail
  • An immediate landing into an airport not in the database.
329
Q

RADIO MANAGEMENT PANEL (RMP)

If RMP 1 fails, how can VHF 1 still be used?

A

By using RMP 2 or 3

330
Q

PARKING BRAKE

What effect does setting the parking brake have on other braking modes?

A

All other braking modes and anti-skid are deactivated.

331
Q

PARKING BRAKE

How can a pilot recharge the brake accumulator pressure with the engine not running?

A

With the YELLOW ELEC PUMP.

332
Q

PARKING BRAKE

How is the parking brake activated when turning the parking brake switch ON?

A

Electrically

333
Q

PARKING BRAKE

How can the crew verify the parking brake is set?

A
  • ECAM PARKING BRK memo
  • Triple indicator brake pressure
334
Q

PARKING BRAKE

If during an engine start with the parking brake ON, the aircraft starts to move due to a parking brake failure, what are the appropriate actions?

A

Release the PARKING BRAKE handle to restore normal braking with the pedals.

335
Q

AFT PEDESTAL

When hand flying the aircraft how can the rudder be trimmed, if at all possible?

A

Using the RUD TRIM

336
Q

AFT PEDESTAL

What happens if the rudder trim is manipulated with the autopilot engaged?

A

Nothing

337
Q

AFT PEDESTAL

What is the RESET button used for?

A

To quickly reset the rudder trim to 0. This will not operate with the autopilot engaged.

338
Q

AFT PEDESTAL

What would be felt in the rudder pedals from the yaw damping or turn coordination functions?

A

Nothing. There is no feedback from these systems on the rudder pedals.

339
Q

AFT PEDESTAL

How many turns does it take to lower the gear manually?

A

Rotate the handle clockwise three times until reaching the mechanical stop.

340
Q

NOSE WHEEL STEERING

What hydraulic system supplies nose wheel steering?

A

YELLOW

341
Q

NOSE WHEEL STEERING

What does the rudder PEDAL DISC button on the steering hand wheel do?

A

Pressing the button removes control of nose wheel steering from the rudder pedals until released.

342
Q

NOSE WHEEL STEERING

What would occur if the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch were selected to OFF?

A
  1. Nose wheel steering is lost
  2. Anti-skid is deactivated
  3. YELLOW hydraulic system would supply the brakes
343
Q

DOORS

Why do we need one engine OFF before turning OFF the seat belt signs?

A

The residual cabin pressure light is inhibited with more than one engine running

344
Q

DOORS

If the yellow electric pump fails, can the cargo door be operated?

A

Yes, by using the hand pump, located on the hydraulic maintenance panel

345
Q

PNEUMATICS

Name three sources for high pressure pneumatic air

A
  1. Engine bleed system
  2. APU low compressor
  3. HP ground connection
346
Q

PNEUMATICS

What does BMC stand for?

A

Bleed Monitoring Computer

347
Q

INFORMATION SYSTEM OPERATIONS

What is the purpose of CPDLC (Controller/Pilot Datalink Communication)?

A

The CPDLC application enables an exchange of specific ATC messages between the flight crew and air traffic controller

348
Q

INFORMATION SYSTEM OPERATIONS

What preventative measure can be taken by the crew to help prevent takeoff data from improperly uplinking?

A

Clearing the ACARS cache (by swapping databases) as directed by AOM Vol. 2 may reduce the occurrence of bad Takeoff data uplinks

349
Q

INFORMATION SYSTEM OPERATIONS

Which VHF is used for ACARS?

A

VHF3 ?

350
Q

What is Alpha Prot?

How does it do that?

A

1 Step Prep answer:

The AOA where the FCCs intervene to prevent a stall

How?
“ASAP”
AOA commanded by the sidestick
Spoilers auto stow
AP disengages
Pitch trim (nose up) inhibited

351
Q

What is Alpha Max?

A

1 Step Prep answer:

The max AOA the ELACs will allow

352
Q

What is Alpha Floor?

When is it available?

A

1 Step Prep answer:

A predictive function of the auto-thrust system to prevent a low speed condition

Available when:

  1. FACs are operative, and
  2. Auto-thrust is available (does not have to be ON or ARMED)
353
Q

What do the FACs provide?

A

1 Step Prep answer:

YAWL

Yaw (turn coordination, yaw damper, rudder trim, rudder travel limiter)

Airspeed Envelope - Alpha Protections, displays on airspeed tape given to you by FACs

Windshear - predictive and reactive

Low energy warning - available 100-2000ft RA with FLAPS 2, 3, FULL
- if speed gets low will hear continuous aural “SPEED”

354
Q

How are some ways you would get into Alternate Law?

A

1 Step Prep answer:

  • *some* examples include
  • Dual failure of:
    1. hydraulics
    2. ADIRS
    3. FCCs
355
Q

Fuel Panel

When is the APU fuel pump used?

A

Fuel feed pressure is low, due to:

  • loss of tank pumps or
  • loss of normal AC electrical power
356
Q

How would cause airplane to get into MECHANICAL BACKUP?

What do you still need in MECHANICAL BACKUP?

A

Complete loss of:

  • flight control computers, or
  • electrical power

Hydraulic pressure must be available

357
Q

What is MECHANICAL BACKUP intended for?

A

Although the aircraft can be flow indefinitely in this condition, it is intended to be used only as long it takes to restore the computers

358
Q

In MECHANICAL BACKUP, how is pitch, roll and yaw controlled?

Is the sidestick operative

A

Pitch - with pitch trim wheel via mechanical connection to the pitch system

Roll and Yaw - controlled through rudder pedals and the mechanical connection to the rudder

359
Q

In what case could a failure of only 4 computers result in MECHANICAL BACKUP?

A

Both ELACs and SEC 1 and 2 - all computerized pitch control is lost.

In this case, because SEC3 is still available, the side sticks can control roll using one spoiler on each wing, but pitch control is mechanical

360
Q

How are roll and yaw different in ALTERNATE LAW?

A
  • Roll is direct (not roll rate demand)
    • Bank angle protection lost
  • Yaw loses turn coordination
  • Pitch is the same as NORMAL LAW
361
Q

What protections and stabilities are available in ALTERNATE LAW? How do they work?

A
  • Low Speed Stability (replaces normal AOA protections)
    • About 5-10kts above stall warning speed, gentle progressive nose down signal introduced and pitch up trim inhibited
      • can be overriden by pilot
    • “STALL STALL” aural warning and red PFD msg
  • High Speed Stability
    • Above VMO/MMO, nose up demand introduced and pitch down trim inhibited
      • can be overriden by pilot
    • Aural overspeed at VMO+4/MMO+.006 remains
362
Q

Which spoilers act as ground spoilers?

Which spoilers provide roll control?

Which spoilers act as speed brakes?

A

Ground spoilers: 1-5

Roll control: 2-5

Speed Brakes: 2-4

363
Q

What is max bank angle in NORMAL LAW?

A

67º

364
Q

What is max UP and DN pitch in NORMAL LAW?

A

30º nose up, 15º nose down

365
Q

What changes with sidestick pitch control at Alpha Prot?

A

Commands specific AOA instead of G Load change

366
Q

When is Alpha Floor available?

A
  • if Autothrust is functional (does not need to be active)
  • at least one engine is running
  • aircraft in NORMAL LAW
367
Q

On NEO aircraft, when is Alpha Floor inhibited?

A

Above M 0.6

368
Q

In NORMAL LAW, what happens when sidestick returned to neutral after pitching nose up or down?

A

The new pitch is held regardless of airspeed changes

369
Q

What happens when G Load becomes greater than normal?

A

G LOAD displays in amber on lower ECAM when value is above 1.4g or below 0.7g for more than 2 sec

370
Q
  1. How is the speed at which high speed protection activates shown?
  2. When is an overspeed warning generated? Can it be canceled?
  3. If sidestick is released at this point, what happens? What if sidestick held forward?
  4. What is max bank angle? When is positive spiral static stability introduced?
A
  1. Shown on the airspeed indicator as a green “=”
  2. When VMO exceeded (specifically VMO+4) and can only be cancelled by pressing EMER CANCEL pb
  3. Sidestick neutral: return to VMO/MMO,

sidestick held forward: momentary increase up to VMO+16/MMO+.04 permitted for any necessary maneuvering, but then speed will again slow to limit

  1. Max bank angle reduced from 67º to 40º. PSSS ccurs at all bank angles to return bank to 0º.
371
Q

What is the max roll rate with sidestick held full left/right in NORMAL LAW?

When is positive spiral static stability active?

A

15º/sec

PSSS is active at bank angles > 33º

372
Q

When is positive spiral static stability active in NORMAL LAW?

When high speed or high AOA protection is active?

A

NORMAL LAW: > 33º of bank. If bank increase beyond 33º and side stick released, aircraft will return to 33º of bank.

High speed or high AOA prot active: Activates is bank increased beyond 0º

373
Q

Is AP available in ALTERNATE LAW?

A

Depends on the failure that caused the degradation.

Generally, if failures do not affect a primary flight control surface, the autopilot should be available.

374
Q

How are pitch, roll and yaw different in ALTERNATE LAW?

A
  • Pitch - same as NORMAL LAW
  • Roll - direct (not roll rate demand)
  • Yaw - lose turn coordination
    • If a FAC is operational, Yaw Damping, rudder trim and rudder limiting is available
375
Q

What protections are lost in ALTERNATE LAW?

A

Attitude - no limits to how far pilot can pitch aircraft

High speed - replaced with high speed stability

Alpha protections - replaced with low speed stability

376
Q

If during the battery check, over 60 amps after 10 seconds, what does that mean?

A

Battery is not holding a good charge, might not last 30 minutes in emergency configuration

377
Q

What would cause external horn to sound?

A
  1. BLOWER or EXTRACT fault with both engines stopped
  2. Pilot presses MECH pb on CALLS panel
  3. ADIR reverts to battery power on the ground
  4. APU fire
378
Q

If ELAC 1 fails, what takes over?

If that fails too, what law are we in?

A

ELAC 2

If both ELAC 1 and 2 fail, we would be in ALTERNATE LAW

379
Q

A. What causes the Gen 1 line smoke light to illuminate?

B. What other lights would we expect to see?

C. As a captain, what is the first thing you would do?

D. What happens when you press the GEN 1 Line?

E. Now that we are down to one generator, what happens to our electrics?

F. Smoke is still filling the cockpit, what do you do?

G. Why don’t we just hit GEN 2 to deploy the RAT automatically?

H. You get down, landing is assured at your alternate, but the runway is 8000 ft long and according to your math you will need 10,000 feet. Anything you can do?

A

A. Caused by smoke detectors in the avionics ventilation ducting

B. Would also expect to see:

    1. ECAM msg
    1. BLOWER and EXTRACT FAULT lights

C. Declare an emergency and land ASAP

D. When you press the GEN 1 LINE button:

  • Gen line contactor opens
  • Gen still powers 1 fuel pump in each wing
  • Gen 2 now supplies AC BUS 1

E. Galley sheds

F. Enter emergency electrical configuration:

  1. Hit MAN ON to deploy RAT
  2. Wait the 8 seconds
  3. Turn off GEN 2

G. Because the emergency generator takes 8 seconds to provide power

H. Yes, when landing is assured (3 min from landing or 2000 AF) turn on GEN 2 and turn off GEN 1 line. This restores a lot of lost systems

380
Q

When you push the GND CTL pb during preflight, what is being turned on?

What happens if you don’t?

When does is turn off? What would cause it not to turn off?

A

Turns on:

  1. CVR
  2. FDR
  3. QAR (like FDR but more accessible for MX)

If not turned on, will shut down 5 minutes after electrical power supplied to aircraft and turns on again after engine start.

Turns off 5 minutes after engine shutdown. Doesn’t turn off if jack plugged into CVR panel