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N2 > Oral Path > Flashcards

Oral Path Flashcards

1
Q

What is usually seen with affected hypertrophic filiform pappilae

A

Hairy tongue

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2
Q

cause of hairy tongue?

A

bad OH

extended use of antibiotics, corticosteroids, hydrogen perioxide, and smoking

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3
Q

Hyperplastic lingual tonsils may resemble which of the following?

a. Epulis fissuratum.
b. Lingual varicosities.
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Median rhomboid glossitis.
e. Prominent fungiform papillae

A

SCC (?)

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4
Q

Loss of filliform papilla- vitamin____def

A

vit B def

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5
Q

fact: Bilateral swelling of parotid cannot be caused by: Anorexia

A

anorexia: loss of apetite

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6
Q

Ulcer on tongue repeated every 4 months

A

apthous ulcer

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7
Q

Bechets syndrome produces what type of mouth lesion: Apthous Ulcers , apthous stomatitis, recurrent. herpes

A

aphtous ulcers (mem)

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8
Q

Pathognomonic for measles?

A

Koplik’s spots

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9
Q

koplick spot?

A

Pathognomonic for measles

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10
Q

stages of syphilis is most infectious: primary and secondary, primary, secondary, tertiary,
primary secondary and tertiary

A

2ndary

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11
Q

Heck’s disease caused by what virus?

A

HPV 13 and 32

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12
Q

baby with streaks on palate
• bone nodulus
• Epstein pearls
• congenital epulus

A

epstein pearls

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13
Q

neonate with a bunch of nodules on alveolar ridge. What is it?
􀁸 Bohn’s nodule
􀁸 Eruption cyst
􀁸 Congenital cyst of newborn

A

Bohn’s nodule

- keratin-filled cysts of salivary gland origin on palate of newborn

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14
Q

Which syndrome has rash on cheeks, ulcers, kidney, etc?

A

lupus

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15
Q

a cavernous sinus infection would most likely come from, maxillary sinus, paranasal sinus,
frontal sinus, ant. Max. teeth

A

ant max teeth

mem

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16
Q

Why are you afraid of having infection in anterior triangle (i.e. upper lip)?

A

because there are valve-less veins that can send infection back to the brain

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17
Q

Which of the following causes Cavernous sinus thrombosis: A)Subcutaneous Abscess of
upper lip b)Subcutaneous abscess of lower anterior region

A

a) subcutaneous abscess of upper lip

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18
Q 
Danger zone of Cavernous Sinus: Signs and symptoms. What is the first one?
blurred vision
periorbital edema
proptosis
ptosis
A

blurred vision (or headache)

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19
Q

Which space is not involved in ludwig’s angina? (sublingual, submandibular,
retropharyngeal, or submental)

A

retropharyngeal

DD OP 115

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20
Q

complication of lugwig’s angina

A

edema of glottis

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21
Q

Mandibular 2nd molar infection spreads to what space?

A

submandibular

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22
Q

Which muscle separates 2 potential infection spaces from a maxillary 2nd molar?
Buccinator or Masseter

A

buccinator

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23
Q

if you have an infection in the lateral pharyngeal space what muscle is involved?

A

Medial pterygoid

wiki, mem

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24
Q

You are extracting a mandibular 3rd molar and the distal root disappears into which space?

A

submandibular space

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25
Q

Which disorder has loss (or hypoplasia) of zygomatic bone?

A

Treacher collins syndrome

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26
Q

Treacher collins syndrome

A

NOT developmental (mutation of 5q32 gene)
hypoplasia of zygomatic bone
malformed ear
mandibular hypoplasia

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27
Q

Strawberry tongue seen in ____

A

scarlet fever

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28
Q

Fordyce granule is what?
• salivary gland
• sebaceous gland
• sweat gland

A

ectopic sebaceous glands

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29
Q

QUESTION: Most probable reason for a Turner Tooth?

Syphilis or Trauma?

A

Trauma

DD OP 11

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30
Q

Ulcer that appears often on buccal vestibule that goes away without scarring after a week or
so?

A

aphtous ulcer

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31
Q

A chancre due to Syphilis mostly resembles

A

aphtous ulcer

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32
Q

fact: What don’t u treat aphthous ulcers with – acyclovir

A

fact: What don’t u treat aphthous ulcers with – acyclovir

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33
Q

fact: Pemphigoid = D = DEEPER (subepithelial separation) than pemphigus S = SURFACE (epithelial separation)

A

fact: Pemphigoid = D = DEEPER (subepithelial (basement membrane) separation) than pemphigus S = SURFACE (epithelial separation)

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34
Q

Another name for chronic desquamative gingivitis?

A

Cicatricial pemphigoid

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35
Q

which conditions cause desquamative gingivitis:

A 
•lichen planus
• pemphigoid
• pemphigus vulgaris
• chronic ulcerative stomatitis
• lupus erythematosus
• erythema multiforme
(KNOW ALL)
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36
Q

Child formed blisters with minor lip irritation?
pemphigus, pemphioid, erythema
multiform, epidermolysis bullosa

A

epidermolysis bullosa

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37
Q

Condyloma accuminatum is caused by which virus

A

hpv 6 and 11

know subtypes

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38
Q

Which of the following does not have cauliflower like , pebbly appearance? Verrucous carcinoma,
fibroma ,
condyloma accuminata,
papilloma

A

condyloma accuminata,

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39
Q 
Hiv patient with oropharyngeal candidiasis, what would u prescribe
A. Acyclovir
B. Nystatin
C. AZT
D. Chlorhexidine
A

nystatin

asda k

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40
Q

which oral medication would you give to tx vaginal candidiasis? Nystatin, griseofulvin, monistat, Diflucan

A

Diflucan (fluconazole): vaginal

Nystatin: oral rinse

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41
Q

Pt has multiple white patches that can be scraped off

A

candidiasis

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42
Q

Oral cytology smears are MOST appropriately used for the diagnosis of which of the
following?

A

Pseudomembraneous candidiasis

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43
Q

What oral manifestation is seen in children with HIV?

A

candidiasis

DD Pediatric 49

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44
Q

systemic med for candida

A

Amphotericin B

mosby

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45
Q

Healthy 36 year old, red patch on palate, redness in middle of tongue:

  • kaposi sarcoma,
  • syphilis
  • median rhomboid glossitis
  • gonorrhea
A

median rhomboid glossitis

healthy = no kaposi or syphilis

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46
Q

Kid with herpes. What is the age of infection?

2 yo, 4 yo, 6 yo, 8 yo, 10 yo

A

2 yo

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47
Q

ways to treat kid w/ herpetic gingivostomatitis EXCEPT

a. antibiotics
b. give numbing anesthetic before eating
c. have pt rest and drink lots of water

A

antibiotics

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48
Q

fact: aphtous ulcers in non keratinized tissue – herpes in keratinized tissue

A

fact: aphtous ulcers in non keratinized tissue – herpes in keratinized tissue

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49
Q

Patient gets recurrent herpetic lesions very often with gingivostomatitis. What should be done?

A 
prescribe ACYCLOVIR (if in early course of primary or recurrent herpes)
Pallative care if not
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50
Q

Patient comes with recurrent herpetic stomatitis on the lips and history shows no signs
of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis. Why?

A

Most primary infections are subclinical

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51
Q

pt presents at 3 days with secondary herpes lesion? What the treatment of choice?

Palative treatment
Acyclovir

A

Palative treatment

acyclovir works best within 3 days you get lesion

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52
Q

MOA of acyclovir?

A

it inhibits viral DNA polymerase

mosby

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53
Q 
Post herpetic neuralgia caused by:
VZV
HSV1
HSV2 
CMV
A

VZV (chickenpox virus)
HSV1 (waist up herpes)
HSV2 (waist down herpes)

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54
Q

What does histoplasmosis oral lesion look like?

A

recurrent herpes

painful ulcer with irregular borders, similar to cancer

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55
Q

Syphilis Chancre resembles

1) Cancer
2) Herpes
3) Herpangina
4) Apthous Ulcer

A

aphtous ulcer

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56
Q

location where kaposi sarcoma is most likely to occur?

A

hard palate

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57
Q

A patient has a denture and a firm, swelling under the buccal flange midway
between incisors and molars. What is it?

A

traumatic neuroma

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58
Q 
Pink growth on palatal between canine and 1st pre molar:
Papilloma, 
pyogenic granuloma,
peripheral ossifying, 
irritation fibroma
A

Pyogenic granuloma

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59
Q 
Which lesion shows the most rapid change in size?
• oncocytoma
• pleomorphic adenoma
• fibroma
• pyogenic granuloma
A

pyogenic granuloma

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60
Q

Patient is female and pregnant and is said to have this enlargement and picture has it
on the corner of her mouth (vermillion border) and she said it just developed; the picture had it
shown as a boil and very red, said it bled, and was no painful

A

pyogenic granuloma

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61
Q

Where do u find giant cells? Hyperthyroidism,
Hypothyroidism,
Hyperparathyroid,
Hypoparathyroid

A

hyperparathyroid

OP lecture

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62
Q 
The causes of Verrucus xanthoma?
VZV
HSV1
HSV2 
HPV
CMV
A

HPV

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63
Q

The most common between five? 1-Papilloma 2-Rhabdomyoma 3-Leiomyoma 4-Lymphangioma 5-Neurofibroma

A

papilloma

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64
Q

Cauliflower looking lesion

A

papilloma

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65
Q

Epulis fissuratum is most similar cellularly to: fibroma or granulomar cell tumor

A

fibroma

both fibroma and epulis fissuratum share trauma as etiology

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66
Q 
In most of the cases, localized fibromas are often: 
Dysplasias, 
metaplasia, 
anaplasia,
hyperplasia
A

heperplasia

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67
Q 
Which of the following does not have cauliflower like , pebbly appearance: 
Verrucous carcinoma , 
fibroma, 
condyloma accuminata, 
papilloma
A

fibroma

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68
Q

Congential epulis histological similar to:
hemangioma,
lymphangioma,
granular cell myoblastoma

A

granular cell myoblastoma

(Lecture: Congenital Epulis microscopically shows a benign proliferation of cells having granular cytoplasm

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69
Q

If you have leukoplakia for biopsy, do you incise or excise for biopsy?

A

incise

the white patch is going to be very big, and excision is not indicated for biopsy

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70
Q

In smoker’s soft palate, theres red points, wut could it be?
erythroplakia,
initial stages of SCC,
nicotinic stomatitis

A

erythroplakia

nicotinic stomatitis is in hard palate

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71
Q

most rate of SCC is in what race?

A

black men

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72
Q

Lesion that resembles SCC…16wks and then disappers

a. papilloma
b. keratoacanthoma
c. papillary hyperplasia

A

keratoacanthoma

mem

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73
Q

Which of the following has the best survival rate?

a. squamous cell carcinoma
b. adenocarcinoma
c. osteosarcoma

A

adenocarcinoma

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74
Q

1 risk factor for oral cancer

A

tobacco

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75
Q

Most likely site for SCC?

A

ventrolateral tongue

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76
Q

Most common malignancy in the oral cavity?

a. metastatic ca
b. basal cell ca
c. epidermoid ca
d. mucoepidermoid ca
e. adenoid cystic ca

A

c. epidermoid ca (aka SCC)

- BCC is most common type of skin cancer

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77
Q

lesion on buccal mucosa. stretch and it disappears

A

Leukoedema

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78
Q

A 6 years old patient has acute lymphatic leukemia. Her deciduous molar has a large carious
lesion and furcation lucency. How will you treat this person?
a. pulpotomy
b. pulpectomy
c. extraction
d. nothing

A

ext

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79
Q

An 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a
painless, hard swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three
weeks ago. radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass.
which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma
d. osetosarcoma
e. hyperparathyroidism

A

osteosarcoma

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80
Q

Best prognosis?
Verrucous carcinoma in vestibule, verrucous carcinoma floor of mouth,
SCC floor of mouth, SCC in other areas

A

Verrucous carcinoma in vestibule

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81
Q

virus responsible for Verricus leukoplakia

A

HPV 16 and 18

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82
Q

Most common salivary gland neoplasm

A

pleomorphic adenoma

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83
Q

Most common intraoral salivary gland malignancy

A

mucoepidermoic carcinoma

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84
Q

Perineural invasion is seen in:_____

A

adenoid cystic carcinoma

Lec

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85
Q

Histologically, you can see swiss cheese pattern in ______

A

Adenoid cyctic carcinoma

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86
Q

Histologically, the center of this tumor islands is composed of loosely arranged polyhedral epithelial cells that resemble STELLATE RETICULUM

A

Ameloblastoma

87
Q

What is the most definite way to distinguish ameloblastoma from OK?

a. smear cytology
b. reactive light microscopy
c. reflective microscopy

A

reactive light microscopy

88
Q

what can lead to ameloblastoma?

A

Dentigerous cyst

89
Q

Most common odontogenic tumor

A

Dentigerous cyst

90
Q

Compound vs complex odontoma

A

Compound: anterior jaw (The compound odontoma presents as a collection of small malformed teeth surrounded by a narrow radiolucent rim, often overlying an impacted tooth)

Complex: posterior jaw (The complex odontoma presents as a calcified mass that, if fully formed, has the density of tooth structure)

91
Q

A 16 year old boy. Xray showed maxillary anterior tooth with a radiolucency with
“SPECKS” in it (yes that’s the word that was used).

A

AOT (adenomatoid odontogenic tumor)

lec

92
Q

amelogenesis imperfecta:
AD
AR
x-linked

A

AD

93
Q

All of the following are congenital except…

a. dentinal dysplasia
b. amelogenesis imperfecta
c. regional odontodysplasia
d. ectodermal dysplasia

A

regional odontodysplasia

94
Q

Ghost teeth

A 
regional odontodysplasia
(DD)
95
Q 
At what stage does enamel hypoplasia occur?
initiation
bud
cap
bell
A

bell stage

96
Q

What is seen with Osteogenesis Imperfecta

a. DI
b. AI
c. hypercementosis
d. cleidocranial dysplasia

A

Dentinogenesis imperfecta

97
Q

No Pulp

  • DI
  • AI
  • Dentin dysplasia
A

DI (no pulp)
Dentin dysplasia type I (obliterated pulp)
Dentin dysplasia type II (enlarged pulp)

98
Q 
all of the following are differential for Dentinogensis imperfecta except?
ectodermal dysplasia,
amelogenesis imperfecta,
enamel dysplasia,
dentinal dysplasia
A

ectodermal dysplasia

99
Q

What is this condition?
Clinically the dental crowns appear normal while radiographically,
the teeth are characterized by pulpal obliteration and short blunted roots. The teeth are generally
mobile, frequently abscess and can be lost prematurely

A

Dentinal dysplasia

100
Q

what condition has Short roots?

A

Dentin dysplasia

101
Q

Some teeth appear to be clinically normal, but exhibit (1 ) globular dentin, (2) very
early pulpal obliteration, (3) defective root formation, (4) periapical granulomas and cysts, and (5)
premature exfoliation. The condition is known as which of the following?

A. Shell teeth B. Dentin dysplasia C. Regional odontodysplasia D. Amelogenesis imperfect
E.Dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

Dentin dysplasia

102
Q

Definition of Ectodermal dysplasia

A

Abnormality of 2 or more ectodermal structures: Hair loss, thick nails,
light skin, no sweat glands, missing teeth

103
Q 
Radiographs of a patient's teeth reveal that the crowns are bulbous; the pulps,
obliterated; and the roots, shortened. These findings are associated with which of the
following?
Porphyria
Pierre Robin syndrome
Amelogenesis imperfecta
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Erythroblastosis fetalis
A

OI

104
Q

Ground glass appearance

A

Fibrous dysplasia
and
hyperparathyroidism

105
Q 
Which of the following is frequently accompanied by melanin pigmentation (cafe-aulait
spots)?
A. Osteomalacia
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
D. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
A

Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

106
Q

Radiographs of an asymptomatic, 20-year-old
patient reveal a sharply outlined radiolucent lesion
in the mandibular first molar area. This 2 cm lesion
scallops between the roots of vital teeth. The most
probable diagnosis is
A. radicular cyst.
B. dentigerous cyst
C. traumatic bone cyst.
D. odontoma

A

traumatic bone cyst

107
Q

what’s tx for traumatic bone cyst?

A

nothing (spontaneous healing)

108
Q

what happens in pagets disease?

A

increase in alkaline phosphatase

109
Q 
Which of the following has the potential for undergoing spontaneous malignant
transformation?
A. Osteomalacia
B. Albright's syndrome
C. Paget's disease of bone
D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
E. von Recklinghausen disease of bone
A

paget’s

110
Q

floating teeth in air

A

Langerhans x

111
Q

what’s Hand-Schuller-Christian triad?

A

o Diabetes insipidus
o Exophthalmos
o Bone lesions (Langerhans dis)

112
Q

A patient has a swelling under the upper lip that is by her lateral incisor and raises
the ala of the nose from the outside. What is it?

A

nasolabial cyst

113
Q

Lining of Nasolabial cyst

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelial lining

114
Q 
Patient (young child) w/ nodules on right side of tongue that are fluid filled the rest of
the mouth is WNL no other systemic signs
a. Neurofibromatosis
b. Lymphangioma 
c. Granular cell tumor
A

lymphangioma

115
Q

which disease has multiple OKC’s?

A

nevoid basal cell carcinoma (aka gorlin syndrome)

116
Q

where do you see bifid rib?

A

Nevoid Basal Cell Carcinoma Syndrome

117
Q

where do you see calcified falx cerebri?

A

Nevoid Basal Cell Carcinoma Syndrome (aka Gorlin syndrome)

118
Q

Which condition presents w/ many osteomas?

A

Gardner’s syndrome

119
Q

What do Gardners and Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have in common?

A

GI Polyps

120
Q

best diagnostic eval for TMJ disc? MRI, CT, PA radiograph

A

MRI

121
Q

Football player with mouthguard, crepitation of left TMJ, trigger zone tenderness L
temporalis, stiffness upon wakening:

A

myofacial pain syndrome

122
Q

symptoms of pain and tenderness upon palpation of the TMJ are usually associated with
which of the following
a. impacted mandibular third molars
b. flaccid paralysis of the painful side of the face
c. flaccid paralysis of the non painful side of the face
d. excitability of the second division of the fifth nerve
e.deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening the mouth

A

e.deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening the mouth.

123
Q

TMJ pain are mostly related to:

1- VII, 2-V3, 3-V2, 4-V111

A

V3

124
Q

What branch off facial nerve gets damaged the most during TMJ surgey?

A

temporal

125
Q

target lesion

A

Erythema multiforme

126
Q

Steven Johnson syndrome is associated with?

A

Erythema multiforme

127
Q

immunofluoresence used for dx of

A

pemphigus and pemphigoid v.

lec, mem

128
Q

Nikosky sign?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris and

Mucous membrane pemphigoid

129
Q

Widening of PDL and loss of ramus of mandible

A

Scleroderma

130
Q

CREST syndrome is associated with what disease?

A

Systemic sclorosis

131
Q

other name for geographic tongue?

A

erythema migrans

132
Q

Painless ulcer, upper lip, it grew bigger after 2 weeks

A

Basal cell carcinoma

133
Q

what kind of cell death is Aspirin burn?

A

coagulative necrosis

134
Q

most common site for mucocele?

A

lower lip

135
Q

how treat ranula?

Excisional, incisional, or aspiration

A

excise (all of it)

136
Q 
ranula is due to:
sialolith
mucus plug
trauma
fibrous plug
A

mucus plug

mosby

137
Q 
Sialolithiasis is found where?
Parotid
Small glands
Submand
Subling
A

submand gland
(wharton’s duct plug)

(lec)

138
Q

Sialography shows:
Sausage-links appearance of ductal system

what’s the condition?

A

sialolithiasis

139
Q

which can become ameloblastomic ??
dentigerous cyst,
lymphedema,
epidermoid

A

dentigerous cyst

mosby

140
Q

Cause of Parulis?

A

incomplete root canal

141
Q

What does tuberculosis lesion in the oral cavity look like?

A

large ulcer

142
Q

Hemangioma excised from tongue. Which is it?

Choristoma, hamartoma, teratoma

A

Ans: Hamartoma
wiki: a hamartoma is an excess of normal tissue in a normal situation (e.g., a birthmark on the skin and hemangioma), while a choristoma is an excess of tissue in an abnormal location (e.g., pancreatic tissue in the duodenum).
A teratoma is a tumor with tissue or organ components resembling normal derivatives of more than one germ layer

143
Q

Common cause of “plasma cell gingivitis”

A

cinnamon flavors in dentrifice

144
Q

What do you see intraorally in patients with Crohn’s disease?

A

Granulomatous gingivitis

145
Q

Which would be located in the floor of the mouth and be “doughy”?
A Ranula
B. Dermoid cyst
C Lymphoepithelial cyst

A

Dermoid cyst

lec JT

146
Q

Most common non-odontogenic developmental cyst of the jaws?

A 
Nasopalatine cyst (or incisive canal cyst)
(lec)
147
Q

How do you treat nasopalatine cyst?

A

enucleation

book

148
Q

leukoplakia that you cannot wipe off and does not disappear when stretched?

A

white sponge nevus

149
Q

Bacteria causing Maxillary sinusitis

A

Strep pneumoniae

book

150
Q

what age group does trigeminal neuralgia affects?

A

50+

151
Q

Tx for trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazapine

anti-convulsants drugs such as carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, gabapentin

152
Q

what can actinic chelitis progress to?

A

SCC

mosby

153
Q

Treatment for actinic cheilitis?

A

5-fluorouracil

book

154
Q 
Which of the following lesions has the greatest malignant potential?
A. Leukoedema
B. Lichen planus
C. Actinic cheilitis
D. White sponge nevus
A

actinic cheilitis

book

155
Q

All of the following cause xerostomia except?

a. caries,
b. candidiasis
c. dental attrition

A

attrition

156
Q

Histologically, the loss of the rete peg often is a sign of?

a. pemphigus
b. lichen planus
c. pemphigoid
d. syphills

A

lichen planus

book

157
Q

How does Lichen Planus happen?

A

T-lymphocytes target (destroy) basal keratinocytes

mosby

158
Q

Most common intra-oral location of lichen planus?

A

buccal mucosa

159
Q

Lichen planus:

  • Male
  • Female
  • Equal
A

Female
(it’s an immune problem; T-lymphocytes target basal keratinocytes)
(mosby)

160
Q

Tx for Erosive lichen planus?

  • antifungal
  • antiviral
  • corticosteroid
A

Topical corticosteroids
(ex: fluocinonide, betamethasone, or clobetasol gel)
(book)

161
Q

Which of the following reactive lesions of the gingival tissue reveals bone formation
microscopically?

A

Peripheral ossifying fibroma

lec

162
Q

bumps on the gums

A

Pyogenic granuloma
Peripheral giant cell granuloma
Peripheral ossifying fibroma

163
Q

■ Conditions associated with multiple supernumerary teeth:

A

■ Gardener’s syndrome
■ Down’s syndrome
■ Cleidocranial dysplasia
■ Sturge–Weber syndrome

(FA)

164
Q

Which structures in a baby allow the head to deform in the birth canal?

A

Fontanelles

At birth, the bones are widely separated by loose connective tissues at the fontanelles
mosby

165
Q

when do Fontanelles close?

A

The posterior fontanelles ossify within 2 or 3 months after birth.
The anterior fontanelle is generally the last to close between 18–24 months.
(wiki)

166
Q

café au lait spots is associated with what syndrome?

A

Neurofibromatosis

167
Q

An adult patient presents with multiple, soft nodules and with macular pigmentation of the
skin. Which of the following BEST represents this condition?
lipomatosis
b. neurofibromatosis
c. metastatic malignant melanoma
d. polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
e. bifid rib-basal cell carcinoma syndrome

A

neurofibromatosis

168
Q

what condition has lisch nodule on the iris?

A

Neurofibromatosis

FA

169
Q

ghost cells

A

Calcifying Odontogenic Cyst (Gorlin cyst)
(book)

Ghost teeth: regional odontodysplasia

170
Q

Patient had portid surgery now sweats before he eats only on one side this is due to what

A

Frey syndrome

171
Q

How does Actinomycosis of jaw present?

A

lumpy jaw

172
Q

other name for dens in dente?

  • Dens invaginatus
  • Dens evaginatus
A

dens INvaginatus

173
Q

Talon cusp is accociated with:

  • Dens invaginatus
  • Dens evaginatus
A

dens Evaginatus

mosby

174
Q

Which one resembles Epilus Fissuratum?

A

Fibroma

epulis fissuratum is caused by ill-fitting denture

175
Q

Keratoacanthoma closely resembles ____

A

SCC

lec JT

176
Q

Where can you see Keratoacanthoma?

  • palate
  • buccal mucosa
  • floor of mouth
  • upper lip
A

upper lip

Keratoacanthoma lesions are usually happen at the sun-exposed skin. (book)

177
Q

Warthin tumor most common in what gland?

A

parotid

dont get it mixed up with wharton’s duct; submand duct

178
Q

Other name for Stafne defect?

A

Static bone defect
and
Salivary inclusion defect
(know both)

179
Q

What happens in Sjogrens?

A

autoimmune destroys glands

180
Q

QUESTION: Sjogrens Synd associated with all EXCEPT:

  • herpes
  • Keratoconjunctivitis
  • SLE
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
A

Keratoconjunctivitis

Keratoconjunctivitis: dryness of the eyes

-Sjogrens usually comes with other autoimmune disease, like SLE or rheumatoid arthritis.

(lec JT)

181
Q 
What is most common with Sjogrens?
Lymphoma
Pleomorphic adenoma
increased sweating
osteoarthritis
A

Lymphoma

Mosby: Patients are at risk for development of lymphoma.

182
Q 
Which articular disease most often accompanies Sjögren’s syndrome?
A. Suppurative arthritis.
B. Rheumatoid arthritis.
C. Degenerative arthrosis.
D. Psoriatic arthritis.
E. Lupus arthritis.
A

Rheumatoid arthritis

lec JT

183
Q

xerostomia is present in all of the following except?
Sjogrens syndrome,
Vit C. Defenciency

A

Vitamin C def
(lec JT)

Vitamin C def => Scurvy

184
Q

Lab tests for Sjogren syndrome?

A

SS-A (Sjogren syndrome A)
SS-B (Sjogren syndrome B),
RF (Rheumatoid factor),
ANA (antinuclear antibodies)

(mosby)

185
Q

Diff btwn primary and secondary Sjogren?

A

Primary Sjögren’s syndrome consists of keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eyes) and xerostomia (dry mouth).

Secondary Sjögren’s syndrome consists of dry eyes and mouth plus another autoimmune disease, usually Rheumatoid arthritis

(mosby)

186
Q

Tx for Sarcoidosis?

  • corticosteroids
  • antibiotics
  • antivirals
A

corticosteroids

mosby

187
Q

Sarcoidosis primarly affects which organ?

A

lungs

188
Q

FACT: Sarcoidosis is granulomatous disease

A

FACT: Sarcoidosis is granulomatous disease

189
Q

onion skin pattern in radiograph is associated with

A

2 syndroms:

  1. Proliferative Periostitis (Garre’s)
  2. Ewing’s sarcoma
190
Q

intra oral melanin pigmentation is associated with______

A

Peut-jeghers syndrome

191
Q

PDL widening is associated with

A

2 syndromes:
1. Scleroderma
2. Osteosarcoma
(lec JT)

192
Q

sunburst appearance in radiograph is associated with ______

A

osteosarcoma

osteosarcoma: sunburst and widening PDL

193
Q

in what condition do you see “punched out” lesions?

A

Multiple Myeloma

lec JT

194
Q

first sign of multiple myeloma

A

bone pain

195
Q

saw tooth appearance of rete pegs

A

pathognomonic for Lichen Planus

DD

196
Q

disease associated with low caries rate

A 
down syndrome
(FA)
Trisomy 21 = down syndrome
197
Q

What is hypertelorism

A

wide-set eyes

198
Q

what is Teratogen?

A

substances that may cause birth defects via a toxic effect on an embryo
(wiki)
ex: chemotherapy drugs like Methotrexate

199
Q

what’s synchondrosis?
is it cartilage or bone?
which goes under closure the latest?

A

like epiphysial plates but for skull
(ex: spheno-ethmoid)
it is CARTILAGE
latest: SPHENO-OCCIPITAL

mosby

200
Q

when does the mand symphysis fuse?

A

6-9 months

201
Q

what is synostosis?

A

abnormal fusion of 2 bones

wiki

202
Q

what is craniosynostosis?

what condition causes craniosynostosis?

A

early closure of crainial suture (wiki)

disease: Crouzon syndrome (wiki)

203
Q

what do Hurler and Hunter’s syndromes have in common?

A

they both have mucopolysaccharidosis
(buildup of GAGs, long unbranched polysaccharide)
wiki

204
Q

what syndrome causes hyperkeratosis of hand and feet?

A

papillon-lefevre syndrome

also causes perio

205
Q

what condition has glossoptosis?

A

Pierre-Robin syndrome
glossoptosis = downward displacement of tongue
FA

206
Q

what syndrome has the Triad of glossoptosis, retrognathia, and cleft palate?

A

Pierre-robin syndrome

wiki

207
Q

what syndrome has port-wine stain?

A

Sturge-Weber syndrome

wiki

208
Q

symptoms of Thyrotoxic shock?

A

Fever
diaphoresis (sweating, bc of fever)
Tachycardia
(wiki)

209
Q

symptoms of hypothyroidism

A

weight gain

feeling cold

210
Q

symptoms of hyperthyroidism

A

weight loss

feeling hot

211
Q

increase in alkaline phosphatase is associated with:

  • hyperthy
  • hypothy
  • hyperparathy
  • hypoparathy
A

hyperparathy

wiki

212
Q

decrease in alkaline phosphatase is associated with what syndrome?

A

hypophosphatasia

wiki

213
Q

Central Giant Cell Granuloma is seen with pts with which condition?

A

hyperparathyroidism

lec

214
Q

What is the normal %fat intake per day

A

30%

online

N2 (14 decks)

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