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Horizon Training > Oral Exam Cycle A > Flashcards

Oral Exam Cycle A Flashcards

0
Q

What is Va (Maneuvering speed)?

A

204 KIAS

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1
Q

What is the maximum airspeed for flight in severe turbulence?

A

210 KIAS

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2
Q

What is the engine starter cranking limits?

A

Start 1: 70 sec on 2 min off
Start 2: 70 sec on 2 min off
Start 3: 70 sec on 30 min off

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3
Q

When are the engine intake bypass doors required to be open?

A

Icing conditions

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4
Q

Regarding the use of ice protection equipment, what is the definition of Icing Conditions?

A 
Icing conditions exist when:
On the ground (taxi and takeoff roll to the point of lift-off): SAT is 10°C or below when precipitation in any form is present, or fog with visibility of one mile or less; also when operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, slush, or standing water may be ingested by the engines or freeze on engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.
In flight (after lift-off to landing):  SAT is 5°C or below and visible moisture is present in any form. Ice accretion on aerodynamic surfaces is not considered to exist at temperatures of -40°C or below
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5
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff or landing?

A

32 knots

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6
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance between the contents of main fuel tanks?

A

600 lb.

This is an inflight requirement only

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7
Q

When are the tank aux pumps required to be on?

A

Takeoff and landing

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8
Q

What is the maximum Main, Aux, and Standby Battery load meter reading for takeoff?

A

0.1

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9
Q

What is the minimum battery temperature for takeoff?

A

-20 deg C

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10
Q

Under normal operations, what is the maximum altitude with the landing gear and/or flaps extended?

A

15,000 feet

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11
Q

What is the maximum wind speed with the nose of the airplane more than 45 deg out of the wind when setting takeoff power prior to brake release?

A

8 knots

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12
Q

Is in flight operation of the power levers aft of the flight idle gate allowed?

A

No

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13
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential limit

A

5.95 psi

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14
Q

What is the maximum cabin pressure differential during takeoff and landing?

A

.5 psi

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15
Q

When must bleed air be off for takeoff?

A
  1. Tailwind component exceeds ten knots
  2. Takeoff is conducted with MTOP power selected
  3. Windshear is suspected QX
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16
Q

When must bleed air be off for landing?

A
  1. Tailwind component exceeds ten knots
  2. Reported OAT exceeds 39°C (100°F)
  3. Windshear is suspected QX
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17
Q

Is takeoff with AHRS in BASIC mode allowed?

A

No

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18
Q

Is takeoff with AHRS in DG mode allowed?

A

No

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19
Q

What is the airplane maximum temperature limit?

A

50 deg C or ISA + 35, whichever is lower

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20
Q

What is the airplane minimum ambient temperature limit?

A

-54 deg C

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21
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude?

A

25,000 ft ASL

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22
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude for takeoff?

A

10,000 ft ASL

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23
Q

What is Horizon’s V FE speed for Flaps 5?

A

195 KIAS

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24
Q

What is Horizon’s V FE speed for Flaps 10?

A

175 KIAS

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25
Q

What is Horizon’s V FE speed for Flaps 15?

A

165 KIAS

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26
Q

What is Horizon’s V FE speed for Flaps 35?

A

155 KIAS

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27
Q

What is Horizon’s V LO speed?

A

195 KIAS

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28
Q

What is the landing gear extended speed (V LE)?

A

215 KIAS

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29
Q

If the forward and aft baggage compartments are not empty, how far can the airplane be operated from a suitable airport for landing?

A

Not farther than one hour flying time

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30
Q

When using the flight deck speakers, how shall the Hot Mic switches be set on both ARCDUs?

A

HOT MIC select switches on the Captain and First Officer ARCDU shall be OFF and the INT/RAD switch on the observer’s Audio Control Panel shall be centered

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31
Q

How does the Observer’s INT/RAD switch need to be set when using flight deck speakers?

A

Centered

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32
Q

Can the APU be operated in flight?

A

No

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33
Q

May the APU be operated unattended with passengers on board?

A

No

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34
Q

May the APU be operated during gravity refueling?

A

No

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35
Q

May the APU be started during refueling?

A

No

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36
Q

What is the APU maximum ambient temperature limitation?

A

+50°C or ISA+35°C, whichever is lower

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37
Q

What is the APU minimum ambient temperature limitation?

A

-54 deg C

Prior to start, at temperatures below -35°C, the APU must be preheated in accordance with applicable maintenance procedures.

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38
Q

What are the APU Starter cranking limits?

A

1 60 seconds 5 minutes off
2 60 seconds Maintenance action required

NOTE: Including the time taken for maintenance action following the second start attempt, a minimum of 30 minutes must elapse prior to the next start attempt.

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39
Q

What is the minimum height for autopilot engagement?

A

1,000 ft AFE

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40
Q

Regarding adverse weather, when shall the autopilot be disengaged?

A

Severe icing

Severe or extreme atmospheric turbulence

41
Q

Autopilot coupled approaches are approved to what limits/minimums only?

A

AFCS is approved for autopilot coupled approaches to CAT I limits only.
For coupled approaches, the autopilot shall be disengaged at or above 200 feet AFE.

42
Q

The autopilot shall be disengaged at or above what altitude for autopilot coupled approaches?

A

For coupled approaches, the autopilot shall be disengaged at or above 200 feet AFE.

43
Q

When is the autopilot required to be disengaged at or above 1,000 AFE?

A
  • HGS approaches flown in AIII mode
  • Approaches flown with an inoperative engine
  • Approaches flown with Flap 0°
44
Q

When is the autopilot required to be disengaged on a SA Cat I approach?

A

1,000 AFE

45
Q

When is the autopilot required to be disengaged on a single engine approach?

A

1,000 ft AFE

46
Q

When is the autopilot required to be disengaged on a flaps 0 approach?

A

At or above 1,000 ft AFE

47
Q

What is the demonstrated crosswind component for autopilot coupled approaches? Is this limiting?

A

18 knots; No.

48
Q

The use of MTOP for takeoff is limited to how many minutes?

A

10 minutes

49
Q

When are reduced Np landings prohibited?

A
  • Landings are accomplished at the Solid Bug – VREF (ICE).
  • Performance requires Bleeds OFF
  • Tailwind component exceeds ten knots.
  • Windshear is reported or suspected
  • Runway is contaminated or braking action is less than good.
  • Landing performance is derived from the Emergency and Abnormal Checklist manual section 15, Adjusted Landing Speed and Distance Tables.
50
Q

Is a reduced Np landing allowed with ice on the airplane?

A

No

51
Q

Is a reduced Np landing allowed when the airport temperature is 40 deg C?

A

No

52
Q

Is a reduced Np landing allowed with a 5 knot tailwind?

A

Yes

53
Q

Is a reduced Np landing allowed if the wind speed is 10 gusting 25 knots?

A

No

54
Q

Is a reduced Np landing allowed if the runway friction reading (MU) is 33?

A

No

55
Q

Is a reduced Np landing allowed if the runway has 1/4” dry snow?

A

No.

56
Q

Is a reduced Np landing allowed after determining landing distance from the tables in the Emergency Abnormal checklist?

A

No

57
Q

What are the takeoff abort memory items?

A

Simultaneously: • Call “Abort, my airplane” and assume control of the aircraft. • POWER levers – FLIGHT IDLE then DISC. (Reverse thrust may be used commensurate with directional control.) • Brakes – Apply maximum wheel brakes. Maintain directional control with the rudder and nosewheel steering. Stop aircraft (clear of the runway if practical) and evaluate problem. Direct First Officer to request emergency equipment, if required.

Call for “Takeoff Abort Checklist.”

First officer

Remove feet from rudder pedals (if performing the takeoff) and respond “Your airplane.”

Maintain wings level with the ailerons as appropriate to the wind conditions.

Advise ATC of abort, if applicable.

Request emergency equipment, if directed.

Accomplish the Takeoff Abort Checklist on IAC.

58
Q

What events require a takeoff to be aborted prior to V1?

A

Windshear encounter
Engine fire or failure
Failure of the A/F ARM message to illuminate on ED
Takeoff warning horn
HGS failure, “TO WARN,” or loss of HGS symbology during takeoff below 500 RVR when the runway centerline is not in sight.
Exceeding engine limitations
(Red) MASTER WARNING
Takeoff torque not obtained on either engine

59
Q

During the takeoff roll, with power levers in the rating detention, and speed below V1, A/F SELECT is illuminated on the ED. May you continue the takeoff?

A

No

60
Q

During takeoff roll and below V1, you get a Master Warning, can you continue the takeoff?

A

No

61
Q

What are the engine start abort memory items?

A

If an engine start abort is required:

____Condition Lever …………………………………………………..FUEL OFF Start SELECT switch ………………………………………………….CENTER

Call for Engine Start Abort Checklist.

62
Q

When shall an engine start be aborted by the pilot?

A

Engine start shall be aborted if:

Engine ITT approaches or exceeds 920°C,

NH is not in the green arc within 70 seconds of selecting Condition Lever to START & FEATHER, or

Engine Oil Pressure fails to reach 44 psi by start SELECT switch reset.

63
Q

What are the pitch control jam memory items?

A

Autopilot …………………………………………………………………..DISENGAGE Retain flap setting and approximate airspeed at time of jam.
If control still jammed: Both pilots attempt to control by force against jam.
If unable to overcome jam:
Control Column Force ……………………………………………………..Relax PITCH Disconnect handle ……………………………….Pull and turn 90° Control Column ………………………Both pilots attempt pitch control Aircraft control ……………………………Pilot with free control column

Call for Pitch Control Jam Checklist.

64
Q

What are the Roll Control Jam memory items?

A

Autopilot ……………………………………………………………………DISENGAGE

If control still jammed:
ROLL DISC handle ………………………………………….Pull and turn 90° Control wheels ………………………….Both pilots attempt roll control Aircraft control …………………………………….. Pilot with free controls

Call for Roll Control Jam Checklist.

65
Q

What is the oxygen mask donning procedure?

A

Without delay, both pilots: Headset………………………………………………………………………. Remove
Oxygen mask ……………………………………………………………… Don
If smoke or fumes are present:
Regulator (if required) ………………………………………… EMERGENCY
Pressurizes mask to prevent smoke from entering mask. Communications…………………………………………………………….. Establish Headset ………………………………………………………………………………ON HOT Mic……………………………………………………………………………. OFF Utilize interphone switch for crew communications.
MASK/MIC switch……………………………………………………………MASK

66
Q

What is the missed approach procedure? (after gear up)

A

Climb at:

  • Solid Bug (minimum) if: - REF SPEEDS – INCR
  • Open bug if: - Single-engine and REF SPEEDS – OFF CAUTION: Do not exceed VFE in climb.

Set Lateral Mode

Approach flown via: To fly MAP via:

Any HDG “Push HDG” Push HDG

FMS FMS “Verify LNAV”1 Ensure LNAV displayed1 (if not, push NAV).

Ground based navaid FMS “Nav Source FMS” “Push NAV”

Select PF nav source to FMS. Push NAV. Ensure LNAV displayed.

Ground based navaid Ground based navaid “Tune (navaid)” “Set (course)” “Push NAV”

Verify PF nav source is selected to VOR. Ensure NAV is displayed (if not, push NAV).

Set Vertical Mode

Climb in PITCH HOLD: (TCS as required) CAUTION: Do not use IAS or VS modes in climb to AH.

“Set PITCH HOLD” Push IAS twice.3

N A V I G A T E

Arm ALT SEL “Push Altitude Select”

Verify MAP Altitude is set. Push ALT SEL.

67
Q

What is the appropriate response to a “Too Low-Gear” EGPWS alert?

A

“TOO LOW – GEAR” Terrain within 500′, gear up, airspeed below 190 kt.

Accomplish Missed Approach.

68
Q

What is the appropriate pilot response to a “Too Low-Flaps” EGPWS alert?

A

“TOO LOW – GEAR” Terrain within 500′, gear up, airspeed below 190 kt.

Accomplish Missed Approach.

69
Q

If windshear is encountered during takeoff after V1, when shall rotation occur?

A
  • After V1, - Accelerate to and rotate normally at VR (W). - If 2,000′ of usable runway remaining is reached before obtaining VR (W):
  • Rotate normally, even if below VR.
  • Follow Takeoff Procedures – Windshear/EGPWS “PULL UP” Warning Procedures. • If required to establish climb or clear obstacles, call “Max Power” and advance power past detent to full travel.

NOTE: If practical, observe MAX Torque transient limits; however, obtaining safe climb and obstacle clearance takes precedence over transient limits.

70
Q

What is the wing span?

A

93 ft 3 in

71
Q

Your intended taxiway is NOTAMed closed to aircraft with wing spans greater than 95’. Can you use this runway?

A

Yes

72
Q

As defined by FAR, what approach category is the Q400?

A

Category C

73
Q

Would you ever use Category D minimums when flying an approach?

A

For Airspeed 141-165 kts during the RF leg, CAT D landing minimums apply. Airspeed above 165 kts on RF legs in the final approach segment is not authorized

74
Q

A 180 deg turn should not be attempted with less than what width of pavement?

A

100 feet

75
Q

What is the minimum operational runway width?

A

100 feet

76
Q

What Is the minimum landing gear strut extension?

A

1.5 to 4.5 inches

77
Q

What is the name of the aft door on the right side of the airplane?

A

Aft cabin service/emergency exit

78
Q

What is the name of the aft door on the left side of the airplane used for boarding and deplaning?

A

Aft-Cabin Passenger/Emergency Exit

79
Q

What is the name of the forward door on the right side of the airplane which can be used for emergency egress?

A

Forward Emergency Exit

80
Q

Do the engine bleed air switches have any effect on APU bleed air?

A

If either of the engines bleed air toggle switches are selected on, the APU bleed valve will close. This ensures that bleed air is not being supplied from both the engines and APU at the same time.

81
Q

If the temperature is ______ what is the minimum pressure required for a crew of two (or three)?

A

The minimum crew fixed oxygen supply gauge reading for dispatch is 1050 psi for a crew of two or 1450 psi for a crew of three (FAA observer, Horizon Air Check Airman, etc.) at 21°C.

82
Q

Would you expect the crew O2 bottle pressure to be higher or lower if the ambient temperature is really hot (eg, 40 deg C)?

A

Higher

83
Q

How do you verify “Bleeds- ON/MIN” on the Before Takeoff checklist?

A

Verify BLEED annunciations are white on ED.

84
Q

After conducting a Bleeds OFF Takeoff, when is the earliest you may select Bleeds ON?

A

Above 400’ AFE

85
Q

What is the brace signal?

What if the PA is inperative?

A

State “Brace! Brace! Brace!” over the PA

Press the EMER switchlight on the ARCDU

86
Q

When using EFB Satcom, which microphone should be used?

A

The hand mic on AUX 2

87
Q

When must both pilots use headsets?

A

Below FL 180

FOM 2.2.6

88
Q

What events require filing an HA 148

A

Consult FOM section 15.2 Abnormal

FOM 15.2.4

89
Q

How and when is an IRS full alignment acomplished?

A
  1. IRS is OFF, or
  2. IRS DIFFERENCES warning observed

FSM 7.8.2

90
Q

How and when is an IRS quick alignment accomplished?

A

Receiving a new A/C and IRS already aligned:

  1. Select FMS NAV page 3/3
  2. Select IRS OFF for 1 second
  3. Return IRS to NAV
  4. Press UPDATE SENS (R4) on FMS
  5. Observe “IRS NAV” message

FSM 7.8.2

91
Q

When shall the HGS be used?

A
  1. Takeoffs less than 500 RVR

2. Category I: WX within 300’ of DA or

92
Q

On the HCP, what do the green LEDs to the left of the [RWY] and [G/S] push-buttons indicate?

Can they be illuminated during an AIII approach?

A

The HCP is ready to accept new data.

NO, Verify green LED is extinguished to ensure HCP has accepted the new data.

FSM 3.15.3
SDM 20

93
Q

On the HCP, what does the CLR push-button do?

A
  1. Serves as backspace while entering data
  2. Clears combiner symbology

SDM 20

94
Q

On the HCP, what does the STBY push-button do?

A

Cycles through available modes

SDM 20

95
Q

What advantage does IMC mode offer on a CAT I approach?

A

Dampens localizer and glideslope fluctuations

FSM 3.1.13

96
Q

How is the HCP set for takeoff:
Normal takeoff?
Low-vis takeoff?

A 
Normal takeoff:  PRI mode
Low-vis Takeoff:  
   PRI mode
   Runway length
   TDZE

FSM 3.4.4, 3.9.5

97
Q

On descent, what data shall be entered into the HCP?

A

All approaches: TDZE and Glideslope Angle
CAT III approaches: Runway length

FSM 3.15.3

98
Q

If AIII is lost or does not automatically activate, what can be done?

A

If prior to the FAF and time permits:

  1. Correct any incorrectly set parameter
  2. Disengage APPR, on the AFCS
  3. Re-engage APPR to restore AIII

FSM 7.7.2

99
Q

What conditions unique to a CAT II/III approach require a missed approach?

A
  1. HGS symbology fails, and the runway is not in sight
  2. “APCH WARN” in combiner or, FO’s annunciator (below 500’)
  3. Equipment failure– airborne or ground
    • OK to continue if approach lights fail
  4. Engine failure below 1,000’ AGL
  5. Standard callout is not made within 500’ of DA

FOM 17.1.15

100
Q

What are the Q400 operating temperature limits?

A

ISA + 35 or 50 C, whichever is lower

-54C

101
Q

Pitch Control Jam

A

Autopilot…Disengage
Maintain Flap Setting and Airspeed
If still jammed, both pilots use force to overcome jam

If still jammed, release force then:
PITCH DISC Handle: Pull and Turn 90 deg
Control Column: Both pilots attempt pitch control
Aircraft control: Pilot with free controls
Call for Pitch Control Jam checklist

Horizon Training (8 decks)

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