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Horizon Training > Oral exam > Flashcards

Oral exam Flashcards

0
Q

What components operate off of the propeller reduction gear box?

A 
HAP-P
Hydraulic pump (main engine-driven pump)
AC generator
Propeller control unit (PCU)
Propeller over speed governor (POG)
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1
Q

What components operate off of the engine accessory gear box?

A 
FOD-P
FMU/Fuel pump
Oil pump
DC Starter generator
PMA: Permanent Magnet Alternator
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2
Q

What is the function of the power uptrim?

A

Automatically augments the power of the remaining engine in response to loss of other engine

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3
Q

What action would you take for an ENG FADEC FAIL warning light?

A

Reference appropriate emergency checklist which will direct me to shut down the engine

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4
Q

Does the auto feather need to be armed for uptrim to occur?

A

No. An uptrim on the operating engine is initiated regardless of auto feather selection.

A power uptrim will occur when either of the following two conditions exist:

  1. The torque of the failed engine falls below 25% with the power levers in the RATING detent and MTOP not selected
  2. When power turbine speed (NPT) falls below 80% with the power levers in the RATING
    detent and MTOP not selected
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5
Q

What are the engine start abort memory items?

A

__Condition lever: fuel off

Start SELECT switch: Center

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6
Q

When does the DC starter-generator convert from a starter to a generator?

A

50% NH

The start-select switch centers

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7
Q

What drives the engine accessory gearbox?

A

High pressure (NH) compressor rotor

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8
Q

What indicates the prop is feathered?

A

Propeller RPM <300

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9
Q

What does the FADEC do?

A 
Controls engine fuel scheduling. 
Also,
Controls engine bleed valves
NH over speed protection
Controls automatic start sequence
Supplies voltage to PEC
Monitors and detects faults
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10
Q

When does the FADEC switch from essential bus to PMA?

A

20% NH

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11
Q

What is the primary source of power for the FADEC?

A

PMA– Permanent magnet alternator

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12
Q

When is using RDC NP prohibited?

A

Reduced NP landings are prohibited when:

  1. Landings are accomplished at the Solid Bug VREF (ICE)
  2. Performance requires Bleeds OFF.
  3. Tailwind component exceeds ten knots.
  4. Windshear is reported or suspected.
  5. Runway is contaminated or braking action is less than good.
  6. Landing performance is derived from the Emergency and Abnormal Checklist manual section 15, Adjusted Landing Speed and Distance Tables.
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13
Q

What is the maximum battery load meter reading for takeoff?

A

Standby battery, auxiliary battery, and main battery maximum load meter reading for takeoff is 0.1

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14
Q

What is the minimum battery temperature for takeoff?

A

-20 degrees C

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15
Q

After starter reset, when can you commence the start procedure for the other engine?

A

SELECT light extinguishes, and

A MAIN BATT load of 40 or less is indicated on the ELECTRICAL system page

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16
Q

Under what conditions may the APU be used for engine starts even though a GPU is available?

A
  1. The APU is already operating (for bleed air, etc.)
  2. Engine starts at the gate are prohibited (eg airport restrictions)
  3. Engine start at the gate will delay or be delayed by passenger boarding of an adjacent aircraft
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17
Q

What is the definition of blocking out for maintenance purposes?

A

Movement of the aircraft under its own power for the purpose of flight.

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18
Q

What are the primary power source caution lights when there are multiple amber caution lights illuminated?

A 
#1/#2 ENG HYD PUMP
#1/#2 DC GEN
#1/#2 AC GEN
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19
Q

Why do we need to know what the primary power caution lights are?

A

These are the cause of multiple other caution indications

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20
Q

Can we reset/pull circuit breakers without direction from an emergency/abnormal checklist or maintenance control?

A

No, in accordance with the circuit breaker trip checklist, unless the affected system is required to safely complete the flight

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21
Q

Approximately how long should the batteries last when on essential power?

A

30 minutes

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22
Q

List a combination of failures that would cause the EPCU (Electrical Power Control Unit) to enter emergency mode.

A

Dual DC Starter-Generator failure

Single TRU Failure

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23
Q

What systems are powered by the 115V AC busses?

A

Aux Fuel Pumps (#1 and #2)
TRU (Transformer Rectifier Unit)
Icing (De-icing/anti icing heaters)
Standby Hydraulic Pump (#1 Hydraulic System)

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24
Q

Can you provide external DC power and APU DC Gen power to the DC Busses at the same time?

A

No.

With external power connected and the external power toggle switch set to the EXT PWR position, the EPCU will remove APU electrical power and allow the GPU to power the DC busses.

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25
Q

Does a green “DC EXT PWR” message displayed on the MFD electrical page indicate that the aircraft is receiving 28 V from the GPU?

A

No. You must confirm voltage on MFD Electrical system page

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26
Q

How can you verify that 28V DC power is being received from the GPU?

A

Reference the MFD Electrical system page

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27
Q

Will an APU GEN overheat cause the APU to shut down?

A

Yes.

APU will automatically shut down and GEN OHT advisory light will illuminate.

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28
Q

What is the aircraft wing span?

A

93 feet 3 in

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29
Q

What is the minimum pavement width to make a 180 degree turn?

A

84 ft 5 in

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30
Q

When must a pilot read the FCIF?

A

Each time they check in

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31
Q

Do you have to actively monitor company frequency with SELCAL installed and in range of a Horizon Air station?

A

No. The radio shall be tuned to the appropriate in range station frequency. The pilots are not required to monitor the frequency.

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32
Q

What powers the #3 hydraulic system?

A

A gas-charged accumulator.
Accumulator power is maintained by a DC Motor-Driven Pump.
Hot bus powers DC Motor-Driven Pump

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33
Q

What is the purpose of the PTU?

A

Power Transfer Unit

Serves as a back-up pressure source for the #2 Main Hydraulic system.

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34
Q

What powers the PTU?

A

The Power Transfer Unit (hydraulic motor) is powered by the #1 Main hydraulic system.

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35
Q

What systems are powered by the #1 hydraulic system?

A 
Brakes
Antiskid
Rudder
Flaps
PTU (Power transfer unit)
Inboard roll spoilers
Elevators (outboard PCUs)
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36
Q

What backs up the #1 hydraulic pump?

A

An electrically driven standby hydraulic pump

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37
Q

When will the STBY HYD PUMP turn on automatically?

A
  1. # 1 Engine fails

2. Flaps are selected to any position greater than 0 (the parking brake must be released)

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38
Q

Will the green ON switchlight illuminate if the STBY HYD PUMP is automatically activated?

A

No. Only if pump is activated manually using the switchlight.

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39
Q

What systems are powered by the #2 hydraulic system?

A 
Landing Gear
Outboard Roll Spoilers
Steering
Emer/Park Brake
Rudder
Elevator
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40
Q

If hydraulic systems #1 and #2 fail, will brakes be available?

A

Yes. An accumulator maintains enough pressure to the parking brake for 6 applications of the emergency parking brake lever.

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41
Q

Will the green ON switchlight illuminate if the PTU is automatically activated?

A

Yes.

The ON segment of the PTU switchlight illuminates whether the PTU is activated manually or automatically.

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42
Q

What systems are powered by the #3 hydraulic system?

A

Elevator

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43
Q

What is the purpose of the #3 Main Hydraulic system?

A

Provides hydraulic pressure to the left and right inboard elevator PCU’s when necessary.

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44
Q

What is the minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch in each system?

A

The minimum dispatch quantity for the #1, 2, and 3 systems is 40% of their normal volume.

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45
Q

When will the standby hydraulic pump automatically activate?

A

The standby pump will automatically activate whenever the flaps are selected to any position greater than 0 (the parking brake must be released) or when the #1 engine fails or a loss of pressure

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46
Q

When will the PTU automatically activate?

A
  1. Flaps are selected to any position greater than 0 (parking brake released) OR
  2. Engine hydraulic pump 2 pressure is low AND/OR
  3. Main oil pressure 2 is low
    Also:
    a. System 1 has pressure
    b. #2 reservoir is not empty
    c. Aircraft is airborne
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47
Q

What is the minimum landing gear strut extension?

A

1.5 inches

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48
Q

What do gear lights in the floor provide?

A

An alternate means of verifying the down and locked status of the landing gear.

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49
Q

What does the landing gear inhibit switch do?

A

Disables the ELECTRICAL command sent to the landing gear solenoid valve for normal extension when the landing gear handle is moved.

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50
Q

Is anti-skid available when using the emergency brake?

A

No

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51
Q

What is the minimum parking brake pressure for engine start?

A

Right engine – 500 psi

Left engine – 1,000 psi

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52
Q

If sufficient parking brake pressure is not available for engine start, what can be done?

A

A manually operated hand pump, located in the right main wheel well, is used to restore Emergency/Parking brake accumulator pressure when necessary. An emergency/parking brake accumulator pressure gauge is located in teh right wing root area and can be used to confirm increasing pressure when performing this procedure.

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53
Q

When would the gear warning tone sound?

A

If gear is not down and locked and:

  1. Flaps are greater then 8.5 deg. with EITHER engine torque indicating less than 50% and BOTH power levers are positioned aft of the RATING detent.
  2. Airspeed is less that 156 KIAS with both power levers near the FLIGHT IDLE detent
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54
Q

How far can the nosewheel be turned via the rudder pedals?
Via the tiller?
Via free caster?

A

8 deg. with rudder
70 deg with tiller
120 deg free caster

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55
Q

To which yoke are the ailerons connected?

A

First Officer

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56
Q

To which yoke are the spoilers connected?

A

Captain

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57
Q

What do the ground spoiler advisory lights, ROLL OUTBD and ROLL INBD indicate?

A

Illuminate when the inboard and outboard spoilers extend in the ground mode at touchdown

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58
Q

What 3 conditions must be met on touch down for the spoilers to extend?

A

The FCECU and PSEU must confirm the following conditions:

  1. The FLIGHT/TAXI switch (left glareshield) is in the FLIGHT (up) position
  2. Both power levers are at or aft of the FLIGHT IDLE gate, and
  3. The PSEU is receiving a Weight-On-Wheels signal from the left and right main landing gear.
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59
Q

What is the degree of full rudder travel?

A

Flap selector lever out of 0: 18 deg left and right of center

Flap selector lever in 0 deg. flap detent position: 12 deg. left and right of center

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60
Q

What is the function of the powered flight control shutoff switchlights?

A

Depressurize the jammed PCU for rudder or spoiler

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61
Q

Is it ok to complete a rudder check with nose wheel steering off, but with the tug still attached to the aircraft?

A

No. Do not accomplish the rudder travel check until tug is disconnected and D-ring is observed.

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62
Q

If roll spoilers do not deploy or props do not move into discing upon landing, should you increase or relax forward pressure on the control column?

A

Relax forward pressure.

Forward pressure on the control column after landing creates uplift on the main wheels, which can decrease braking and defeat the WOW signal for Ground Spoiler deployment.

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63
Q

When does Flap Auto Pitch Trim operate?

A

During flap extension or retraction (15 to 35 or 35 to 15) the AFCS supplies Automatic pitch trim commands to reduce the pitch trim forces felt on the control columns.

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64
Q

If the electric trim is in motion for more than 3 seconds, what happens?

A

If the FCECU detects that a manual pitch trim command persists for longer than 3 seconds, an aural clicking sound will be heard over the flightdeck speakers and the ELEVATOR TRIM SHUTOFF switchlights, on the glareshield panel, illuminate.

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65
Q

When operating flaps, will the Flap Auto Pitch Trim operate if the pilot operates the electric trim?

A

No.

The FCECU prioritizes pitch trim signals in the following order:

  1. Captain trim switch inputs
  2. First Officer trim switch inputs
  3. Autopilot trim inputs
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66
Q

How is the Angle Of Attack (AOA) transducer’s heat turned on and off?

A

Automatically activated whenever AC Power is available.

Powered by 115V Variable AC

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67
Q

What control or controls are locked when the control lock is engaged?

A

When the control lock is engaged the ailerons are locked in a neutral position.

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68
Q

How are the ailerons operated and powered?

A

Mechanically controlled and operated

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69
Q

How are spoilers controlled and powered?

A

Mechanically controlled and hydraulically powered

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70
Q

How is the rudder controlled and powered?

A

Mechanically controlled, hydraulically powered.

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71
Q

How is the elevator controlled and powered?

A

Mechanically controlled

Hydraulically powered

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72
Q

Above what speed are outboard spoilers deactivated?

A

170 KIAS

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73
Q

Which spoilers deploy on the ground?

A

Both inboard and outboard spoilers

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74
Q

How could you disable a runaway PITCH TRIM?

A

Pushing the left or right ELEVATOR TRIM SHUTOFF switchlight deactivates the elevator trim system.

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75
Q

A takeoff warning will sound with the flaps greater than:

A

20 degrees

Or less than 3.5 degrees

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76
Q

What does a NAV source in amber on a PFD mean?

A

Indicates opposite side’s VOR/ILS or FMS

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77
Q

What is the AHRS limitation for takeoff?

A

Takeoff in Basic Mode is prohibited

Takeoff in DG mode is prohibited

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78
Q

What is the airplane maximum ambient temperature limit?

A

Airplane maximum operating ambient temperature limit is +50 deg. C or ISA + 35 deg.C, whichever is lower.

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79
Q

What is the airplane minimum ambient temperature limit?

A

-54 deg C

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80
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude?

A

25,000 ft. AGL

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81
Q

What is the maximum speed for extension of the flaps to 5 deg?

A

195 KIAS

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82
Q

What is the maximum speed for extension of the flaps to flaps 10 deg?

A

175 KIAS

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83
Q

What is the maximum speed for extension of the flaps to 15 deg?

A

165 KIAS

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84
Q

What is the maximum speed for extension of the flaps to 35 deg?

A

155 KIAS

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85
Q

What is the landing gear operating speed?

A

195 KIAS

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86
Q

What is the Landing Gear Extended Speed?

A

215 KIAS

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87
Q

What is the maximum airspeed for flight in severe turbulence?

A

210 KIAS

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88
Q

The use of MTOP for takeoff is limited to how many minutes?

A

10 minutes

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89
Q

What is the maximum tire speed?

A

182 kts groundspeed

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90
Q

When are reduced Np landings prohibited?

A
  1. Landings are accomplished at the Solid Bug: Vref (ICE)
  2. Performance requires Bleeds OFF
  3. Tailwind component exceeds 10 knots
  4. Windshear is reported or suspected
  5. Runway is contaminated or braking action is less than good
  6. Landing performance is derived from the Emergency and Abnormal Checklist manual section 15, Adjusted Landing Speed and Distance tables
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91
Q

What are the engine Starter Cranking Limits?

A

Start 1: 70 sec on, 2 min off
Start 2: 10 sec on, 2 min off
Start 3: 70 sec on, 30 min off

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92
Q

How close must lightning be to stop all ramp operations?

A

3 NM

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93
Q

How close must lightning be to suspend refueling?

A

5 NM (immediate vicinity)

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94
Q

How far shall thunderstorms be avoided in flight?

A

Above 23,000 feet: All echoes by 20 nm
At or below 23,000 feet:
a. Avoid steep rainfall gradients by 5 nm when OAT is 0 deg. or warmer
b. Avoid steep rainfall gradients by 10 nm when the OAT is less than 0 deg.

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95
Q

What is the maximum ground wind speed for operations?

A

Steady state velocities are in excess of 50 kts or gusts in excess of 65 kts.

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96
Q

When shall intersection takeoffs not be used?

A

During periods of low visibility when the approach end of the runway being used is not visible to the pilots

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97
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

When weather at the departure airport is below the lowest available published landing minimums including Cat II/III minimums

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98
Q

After pushback on an icy ramp, when should you move the condition levers to MAX?

A

After the tug is disconnected and the ground personnel are clear of the aircraft

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99
Q

When receiving an aircraft directly from another crew, must an originating checklist be completed?

A

Yes

a. Initial flight of the day,
b. Captain receives a new aircraft
c. Maintenance has been performed and not observed by the flight crew.

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100
Q

What are the minimum hydraulic quantities for dispatch?

A

40%

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101
Q

If the hydraulic quantity appears to be below minimums how would you determine quantity?

A

Use MFD reversion selector to determine if quantity is below 40%

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102
Q

When is an engine start abort required?

A
  1. Engine ITT approaches or exceeds 920 deg. C
  2. NH is not in the green arc within 70 seconds of selecting Condition Lever to START & FEATHER, or
  3. Engine Oil Pressure fails to reach 44 psi by Start SELECT switch reset
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103
Q

When can the F/O select STBY HYD PRESS on during after start flow?

A

After both AC GEN caution lights have extinguished

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104
Q

What is the minimum 2-engine climb speed with the flaps up?

A

Vse for conditions (Solid Bug or Open Bug)

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105
Q

What is the Type I climb profile?

A

240 KIAS to 10,000 ft then 5-6 deg pitch

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106
Q

What is the Type II climb profile?

A

185 kts to FL 250 or until no longer required

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107
Q

What is the normal holding speed in all conditions?

A

200 KIAS

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108
Q

By what speed on takeoff do the power levers need to be set in the Rating detent?

A

50 KIAS

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109
Q

When is a crew required to accomplish a Preflight Checklist?

A
  1. It is the initial flight of the day
  2. The Captain receives a new aircraft, or,
  3. Maintenance has been performed and not observed by the crew.
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110
Q

When do the emergency systems and equipment on the flight deck have to be visually checked?

A

Whenever the aircraft has been left unattended by a flight crew for any period of time.

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111
Q

What is the definition of icing conditions?

A

Ground: SAT is 10 deg. C or below when precipitation in any form is present, or fog with visibility of one mile or less; Also contaminated surfaces.
Flight: SAT is 5 deg C or below and visible moisture is present in any form. Ice accretion on aerodynamic sources is not considered to exist at temperatures of -40 deg. C or below

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112
Q

Below what temperature is ice accretion not considered to exist?

A

-40 deg. C or below

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113
Q

After exiting icing conditions, when is the aircraft considered aerodynamically clean?

A

When all ice is removed from the visible leading edges AND wingtips.

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114
Q

What is the minimum speed in severe icing conditions?

A

200 KIAS

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115
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff or landing?

A

32 knots

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116
Q

What is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff or landing?

A

20 knots

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117
Q

When are the tank aux pumps required to be on?

A

Takeoff and landing

118
Q

When is the autopilot prohibited from being used?

A
  1. At or above 1000 feet AFE for:
    a. HGS approaches flown in AIII mode
    b. Approaches flown with an inoperative engine
    c. Approaches flown with flap 0 deg.
  2. Coupled approaches: at or above 200 ft AFE
  3. In severe icing
  4. Severe or extreme turbulence
119
Q

When do you have to monitor ARINC frequency?

A

Whenever out of range of a Company radio

120
Q

Where are ARINC frequencies located?

A

Jeppesen, Enroute, ARINC

121
Q

What COMM radio must be used for ATIS/Clearance while at the gate? Why?

A

COMM 1

COMM 2 is reserved for company communications

122
Q

When must a flight crew ask for a full route clearance from ATC?

A

When a non-standard flight routing is filed by dispatch.

Non-standard flight routings are noted as such in the leg remarks on the Dispatch Release

123
Q

How does a flight crew know that their routing is non-standard?

A

Noted as such in the leg remarks on the dispatch release.

124
Q

Under what conditions must the interphone system between the flight deck and ground be operative for pushback?

A

When “Low Visibility Conditions” are in efect, as announced in ATIS broadcasts.

125
Q

Which PA system has priority over the other, flight deck or cabin?

A

Flight deck.

  1. Flight deck
  2. Fwd FA station
  3. Aft PA Station
  4. Passenger Entertainment System
126
Q

Headsets and boom mics shall be used for all communications below what altitude?

A

FL 180

127
Q

What is required to be checked during a review of the MTX log?

A
  1. Ensure logbook is onboard and appropriate to aircraft being flown.
  2. Check for open discrepancies.
  3. Verify at least 5 pink pages
  4. General review of all pages
  5. Determine whether Daily System Check has been completed
  6. Verify Corrective Action section (4 items.)
  7. Compare MEL/CDL items to Dispatch Release
  8. Comply with MEL/CDL operating restrictions
128
Q

What is maximum pitch on takeoff until all wheels lift off?

A

8 Degrees

129
Q

After conducting a Bleeds Off Takeoff, when do you select Bleeds On?

A

Above 400’ AFE

130
Q

When do we fly solid bug on an approach below 1,000 AGL?

A
  1. REF SPEEDS switch is selected to INCR, or
  2. Maneuvering at bank angles greater than 15 deg is required, or
  3. Wind gusts greater than 10 knots or windshear are reported.
131
Q

When are the flaps retracted on a 2-engine missed approach?

A
  1. Pitch is 10 deg, call “Flaps one notch up”

2. Acceleration height “Flaps up”

132
Q

At what pitch attitude on landing may a tail strike occur?

A

Greater than 6 deg.

133
Q

If the pitch attitude reaches 6 deg nose up or if an excessive sink rate develops on short final, the PF shall correct how?

A

An increase in power with no further increase in pitch attitude

134
Q

Can the FMS be used if the database is out of date?

A

IFR enroute and terminal navigation is prohibited with the FMS database expired unless the pilot verifies the waypoints for accuracy by reference to current publications.

135
Q

VNAV vertical path angles are limited to not more than:

A

6 deg. enroute

4 deg. in approach mode

136
Q

FMS temperature compensation procedures must be applied to approaches at what reported airfield temperature?

A

OAT of 0 deg or colder

137
Q

What types of FMS approaches require two operational FMSs?

A 
Any RNAV (RNP) approach
Any RNAV approach to LPV minimums
138
Q

Can an FMS-based approach be continued beyond the FAF with a POS annunciation on the PF FMS?

A

No. A missed approach is required.

139
Q

Does an FMS approach and the associated approach transition (if required) have to be retrieved from the FMS database?

A

Yes

140
Q

Can you manually build a missed approach procedure in the FMS and fly it if IMC?

A

No.

Missed approach procedures may be flown via the FMS provided they are retrieved from the FMS database.

141
Q

Which type of FMS approach requires tuning of a ground based navaid?

A

Localizer approaches

142
Q

What battery switches must be on to provide APU fire protection?

A

Batteries and BATTERY MASTER

143
Q

After starting the APU, how long should you delay before selecting the BL AIR switch to ON?

A

Wait 2 minutes after APU RUN advisory switch illuminates

144
Q

What are APU ambient temperature limits?

A

Upper: +50 C or ISA + 35, whichever is lower
Lower: -54 C

145
Q

Is the APU fire protection system automatic or manual?

A

Automatic

146
Q

Is it permitted to operate the APU while over-wing refueling?

A

No

147
Q

Can we operate the APU during deicing?

A

Yes, but APU Bleed Air shall be selected OFF

148
Q

Are there any restrictions to operating the APU with passengers on board?

A

Yes.

APU shall not be operated unattended with passengers on board.

149
Q

Can we operate the APU during pressure refueling?

A

Yes

150
Q

What will happen if you conduct the APU FIRE TEST with the APU running?

A

APU will shut down

151
Q

Where does the APU get its fuel?

A

Left wing collector bay through an APU fuel shutoff valve

152
Q

After landing, when should the APU be started if needed?

A

After setting the parking brake

153
Q

What kind of electrical power does the APU generator provide?

A

28 V DC

154
Q

What action is required after two unsuccessful APU start attempts?

A

Maintenance action, plus a minimum of 30 minutes must elapse before the next start attempt.

155
Q

If the bleed air switches were in the off position, would bleed air be available for operation of the de-ice boots?

A

Yes

156
Q

What will happen if the engine bleed switches are on with the APU bleed air switch on?

A

If either engine’s bleed air toggle switch is selected on, the APU bleed valve will close.

157
Q

When must bleed air be OFF for takeoff?

A

Tailwind component exceeds 10 knots
Takeoff is conducted with MTOP power selected
Windshear is suspected

158
Q

When must bleed air be off for landing?

A

Tailwind component exceeds 10 knots
Reported OAT exceeds 39 deg C
Windshear is suspected

159
Q

What is the maximum cabin pressure differential during takeoff and landing?

A

0.5 PSI

160
Q

Where would you find the CABIN PRESS Warning checklist?

A

Immediate Action Card

161
Q

What is the minimum crew O2 pressure?

A

1050 psi – crew of 2
1450 psi – crew of 3

At 21 deg. C

162
Q

How long should you wait after APU start to turn on the APU Bleed Air?

A

2 minutes after APU RUN advisory light illuminates

163
Q

Which outflow valve is used to control cabin pressure?

A

Aft Outflow Valve is the primary control valve to regulate cabin pressurization
During ground operations, assisted by Aft Safety Outflow valve

164
Q

What is the function of the Forward Safety Outflow Valve?

A

Emergency Operations eg smoke removal from the flight deck

165
Q

When in manual pressurization mode, moving the man diff switch operates which outflow valve?

A

Aft Outflow Valve

166
Q

If the CABIN PRESS Warning light illuminates at FL 230, what should be stated by the pilot who detects the problem?

A

Master Warning-

Cabin Press

167
Q

What is the oxygen mask donning procedure?

A 
Headset...Remove
Oxygen Mask...Don
If smoke or fumes are present
    Regulator (if required) ... Emergency
Communications... Establish
   Headset...On
   HOT Mic... OFF
    MASK/MIC switch ... MASK
168
Q

What systems on the aircraft have fire protection?

A

Engines
APU
Baggage compartments
Lavatory

169
Q

What are the cockpit indications of an engine fire?

A

T-handle light
Master Warning light
Check fire det warning light
BOTH Eng Fire Press to Reset light on left and right sides of glareshield

170
Q

What does the SMOKE warning indicate?

A

Smoke detected in either forward or aft baggage compartments

171
Q

The Q400 has a fire warning tone in the event of an engine fire. How do you silence the tone?

A

Push either ENGINE FIRE PRESS TO RESET lights

172
Q

How many baggage compartment High Rate fire bottles are there?

A

2

173
Q

How many baggage compartment Low Rate fire bottles are there?

A

1

174
Q

What indications are associated with smoke in the FWD bag compartment?

A

Master Warning light
Smoke warning light
Baggage Fwd SMOKE/EXTG switchlight
Fire bottle FWD ARM indication light

175
Q

What indications, if any, would you have for a fire in the lavatory?

A

There are no aural or visible indications

176
Q

What does pulling the Fire T-Handle accomplish?

A
  1. Emergency Fuel Shutoff Valve closes
  2. Emergency Hydraulic Shutoff Valve closes
  3. FWD and AFT fire bottles arm
177
Q

How do you determine which engine is on fire?

A

Engine’s T-handle lights up

178
Q

While sitting at the gate with engines shutdown you notice a “Fuel Imbalance” message. Can you transfer fuel at this time?

A

No. Needs 115 V AC

179
Q

What is the maximum in flight fuel imbalance?

A

600 lb

180
Q

What does the FUELING ON caution light indicate?

A

The refuel/defuel control panel access door is open.

181
Q

What is the limitation regarding TANK AUX pumps?

A

Tank 1 and Tank 2 auxiliary pumps must be on for takeoff and landing

182
Q

What is the usable fuel capacity?

A

11,724 lb total

183
Q

Can the right wing be gravity fueled during the boarding process?

A

Yes. Notify Flight Attendant “A”

184
Q

Can the left wing be gravity fueled with passengers on board?

A

Yes. Notify Flight Attendant “A”

185
Q

Can the APU be operated during gravity refueling?

A

No

186
Q

Can the APU be started while pressure refueling?

A

No

187
Q

Will the deice boots operate with the Bleed switches in the OFF position?

A

Yes

188
Q

When must the REF SPEEDS switch be selected to INCR?

A

If ice is adhering to wing leading edges or wingtips

189
Q

Taking off into icing conditions is defined as reaching icing conditions by what altitude?

A

Acceleration height

190
Q

When will the Engine Intake HTR light illuminate?

A
  1. Engine intake bypass door is open AND
  2. Engine is running (oil pressure sensor) AND
  3. SAT is below approximately 15 deg C AND
  4. 115 V variable AC power is available
191
Q

When are the deice boots required to be used?

A

At initial detection of ice; operate for at least two cycles after clear of icing conditions

192
Q

When may the wing and tail deicing boots be turned off?

A

2 cycles after clear of icing conditions

193
Q

When may you start the APU after landing?

A

After setting the parking brake

194
Q

When must a terminating checklist be accomplished?

A

When the flight crew is leaving an aircraft:

  1. On a RON
  2. Unattended for more than one hour
  3. The next assigned flight crew has not arrived at the aircraft
195
Q

What is the minimum parking brake pressure to start the #2 engine first?

A

500 psi

196
Q

What is the minimum parking brake pressure to start the #1 engine first?

A

1,000 psi

197
Q

With the nose gear doors open, should you connect to the tug?

A

No

198
Q

The aircraft must be configured for landing at what point?

A

FAF for instrument approaches without vertical guidance

1,000’ AFE for all other approaches

199
Q

The aircraft must be stabilized at final approach airspeed prior to what point?

A

500’ AFE

200
Q

What is our definition of a stabilized approach?

A
  1. Airplane in approach configuration
  2. Course deviation of 1 dot or less
  3. Glidepath deviation up to 1 dot above or 1/2 dot below
  4. Below 1,000’ AFE, rate of descent not in excess of 1,000 fpm
  5. Below 500’ AFE, Bank angle 15 deg or less and profile speed within +10/-5 knots of target
201
Q

When the EMER switch light illuminates in the cockpit, what does this mean?

A

Emergency situation exists in the cabin

202
Q

What course of action will you take if the OAT on the ground is below 0 when rain, freezing rain, or snow is falling or if ice is adhering to the engine inlet, spinner, propeller, or wing leading edge?

A

Deice and (possibly) anitice

203
Q

When is a Captain Monitored approach required?

A

When the weather is within 300’ of the DA, or the visibility is less than twice that required of the approach

204
Q

What callout is required of the PM when pitch attitude reaches 5 degrees during the landing flare?

A

Five degrees

205
Q

What callout is required of the PM when pitch attitude reaches 6 degrees during landing flare?

A

Six degrees

PF responds, “Correcting”

206
Q

What is the PF callout when pitch attitude reaches 6 degrees during landing flare?

A

Correcting

207
Q

What Np setting is required for landing at solid bug?

A

1020

208
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

If reported departure weather is below landing minimums or if any other operational conditions exist at the departure airport that would preclude a return back to that airport

209
Q

Are first officers with less than 100 hours in type in company aircraft prohibited from making takeoffs and landings at special airports?

A

Yes

210
Q

When are first officers with less than 100 hours prohibited from takeoffs and landings?

A
  1. Special airports
  2. Contaminants that affect aircraft performance are on the runway
  3. Braking action less than good
  4. Crosswind > 15 knots
  5. Windshear reported
  6. Visibility < 3/4 sm or 4000 RVR
  7. Captain’s prerogative
211
Q

What regular airports are designated as special?

A

KBUR, KLMT, KMSO, KONT, KPSP, KRNO, KSAN, KSFO, KSUN

212
Q

If special airports not known, where can a list of those be found?

A

FOM

QRH

213
Q

What alternate airports are designated as special?

A

KBTM

KLMT

214
Q

What does the term “lockdown” mean in association with the Threat Levels listed in the Ops Manual?

A

Pilots will not leave the flightdeck
No one is allowed to enter the flight deck
Communicate clearly and precisely with Flight Attendants
Do not use code words or signs

215
Q

If a liquid is found on board the aircraft that is considered suspicious, where is the threat level guidance found?

A

Section 15 FOM

216
Q

If a FRA is not specified, at what altitude AFE should flaps be retracted?

A

1,000’

217
Q

Under what weather conditions are Complex-Special turn procedures mandatory in the case of an engine failure after takeoff?

A

Under IMC and VMC to protect the flight path in the event of an engine failure

218
Q

What is the definition of a wet runway?

A

A runway that has a shiny appearance due to a thin layer of water less than 1/8” covering 100% of the runway surface

219
Q

Where can you find runway contamination levels defined?

A

FSM Performance

220
Q

PIC job description

A

Has full control and authority in the operations of the aircraft and over the crewmembers and their duties during flight

221
Q

FO job description

A

Operates the aircraft under the authority of the PIC

222
Q

What is the Horizon Air “Use of Alcohol” policy?

A

Not consume alcohol within 10 hours of reporting, nor on the same calendar day

223
Q

What should you do if a fellow crewmember is too fatigued to fly but does not remove themselves from a trip?

A

Contact the Flight Operations Duty Officer

224
Q

What do you do if you lose you airman certificate or medical while on a trip?

A

Contact Crew Scheduling; receive a fax of certificates

225
Q

What is our policy regarding Scuba Diving before a trip?

A

No scuba diving within 24 hours of reporting for duty

226
Q

What is our policy regarding blood donation?

A

No blood donation within 72 hours of reporting for duty, except in an emergency.
If blood donation within 72 hours, obtain a hemoglobin determination and blood count

227
Q

Is it ok to read publications not related to the proper conduct of the flight on the flightdeck?

A

No

228
Q

What is the appropriate response to a TCAS TA?

A

Respond immediately and notify ATC

229
Q

What if any communication is required when changing nav sources

A

Advise the other pilot, ie, “Number one NAV on Battleground”

230
Q

Must you ID an ILS before flying it?

A

Yes

231
Q

Define critical phase of flight

A

For Sterile: Everything below 10,000’ except cruise flight
For all other purposes:
Takeoff: Beginning with brake release and ending when aircraft is brought to a full stop during a rejected takeoff, or when aircraft is at acceleration height and clearance of all obstacles in the takeoff path is assured, landing gear and flaps have been retracted, and airspeed is at least Vse
Landing: Beginning when the landing gear is extended for landing and ending when the aircraft lands and is brought to a full stop, or taxied clear of landing runway

232
Q

What is the signal for “Sterile” status of the flight deck?

A

Chime

233
Q

What is the maximum difference between the two primary altimeters crossing the FAF on an approach?

A

100’

234
Q

What is required if the difference between the two primary altimeters exceeds 100’ crossing the FAF?

A

A missed approach shall be executed unless visual reference to the runway environment has been established and the aircraft is in a position to allow the safe continuation to a landing

235
Q

Lateral track deviation monitoring

A

+/- 1 dot
During an RNP approach, momentary full scale acceptable during course intercept, waypoint crossing with a course change, and waypoint crossing where there is a reduction in RNP level

236
Q

Vertical track deviation monitoring

A

+/- 1/2 dot during final approach segment. Momentary deviations +/- 75’ (3/4 dot) are allowable

237
Q

Who is the PM on the ground?

A

First Officer

238
Q

How does a proper transfer of aircraft controls take place?

A

Notification– “My airplane”

Acknowledgement – “Your airplane”

239
Q

When must shoulder harnesses be worn?

A

During takeoff and landing

240
Q

What is the minimum altitude for commencing a turn after takeoff?

A

400 feet unless a lower altitude is required by a single engine turn procedure

241
Q

What is the suggested operation of pilot controlled lighting?

A

Always key the mike seven times then make adjustments

242
Q

With regard to pilot controlled lighting, how many minutes of lighting is available from the last keying event?

A

15 minutes

243
Q

What is the Runway Verification Procedure for takeoff?

A

Prior to crossing ANY runway hold short line, the Captain and First Officer shall verbally verify:

  1. The aircraft is cleared onto the runway
  2. The runway is correct by reference to runway signage and markings
  3. The runway is clear of traffic conflicts.
244
Q

What is the Runway Verification Procedure for landing?

A

PF shall restate landing clearance and runway after PM acknowledges clearance from ATC
Both pilots shall verify (silently):
The runway is correct by reference to runway markings, navaids, HSI headings, etc.
Then runway is clear of traffic

245
Q

What are the 3 levels of automation?

A

Level 1: Raw data
Level 2: Basic flight director command (with or without Autopilot)
Level 3: FMS System Command (with or without autopilot)

246
Q

When navigating using the FMS, what must be displayed on the MFS nav display?

A

Map mode, unless otherwise limited by a specific aircraft procedure

247
Q

When should terrain display be available to at least one pilot?

A

During terminal operations

248
Q

To maintain FMS approach currency, how often should pilots fly an FMS approach?

A

At least one FMS-based approach with vertical guidance should be conducted each month.

At a minimum, an FMS approach shall be conducted every 90 days.

249
Q

What is the minimum clearance from objects while taxiing?

A

10 feet

250
Q

How does a pilot meet the Special Airport Qualifications?

A
  1. Within the preceding 12 calendar months, have made an entry to that airport including a landing and a takeoff, or
  2. Be accompanied by a First Officer who has made an entry including a landing and a takeoff within the preceding 12 calendar months, or
  3. Review the FAA-approved Special Airport Chart Presentation, or
  4. Make a takeoff or anding at that airport when the ceiling is at least 1,000’ above lowest MEA, MOCA, or missed approach altitude for that airport and the visibility is at least 3 miles
251
Q

What are the iPad preflight requirements?

A
  1. Prior to each flight day, ensure it’s operable

2. Prior to each flight, minimum battery charge of 50%

252
Q

When must you charge your iPad with EFB?

A

When iPad’s battery warning display is 10% remaining power

253
Q

On the pilot’s oxygen mask, what does selecting emergency do?

A

Regulator supplies 100% oxygen at a slight positive pressure

254
Q

How long will a PBE provide oxygen to the user?

A

15 minutes

255
Q

Can the Flight Deck Escape Hatch be opened from the outside?

A

No

256
Q

Which doors have a “ditching dam”?

A

Forward Type II/III Emergency Exit

257
Q

Can the final segment of an ILS approach be flown utilizing the FMS as primary navigation?

A

No

258
Q

Is manually selecting the RNP value to .1 in the FMS prohibited?

A

Yes

259
Q

Is autopilot required to be used during RNP less than .3 approaches?

A

Yes

260
Q

Under what conditions do you not have to go missed approach when the CDI is full scale deflection on a RNP approach?

A

Waypoint crossing that includes a course change
Reduction in RNP

Provided the aircraft acquires the new course in an appropriate manner

261
Q

When may the wing and tail deicing boots be turned off?

A

After clear of icing, two complete cycles

262
Q

What is the best defense against windshear?

A

Avoid it altogether

263
Q

On an approach with suspected windshear, by what altitude must the approach be stabilized?

A

1,000’ AGL

264
Q

What effect does the illumination of the BASIC light on an AHRU have on the affected attitude indicator?

A

Decreased attitude accuracy, and the EADI will behave like a conventional mechanical gimbaled gyro

265
Q

Can the AP be engaged with the YD inoperative?

A

No

266
Q

When flying into an uncontrolled airport, what position reports should be made on CTAF?

A

10 miles out
Entering downwind, base, and final
Clearing the runway

267
Q

If unable to establish contact with remote when arriving at PUW or RDM, can you land at that city?

A

PUW – no

RDM – Yes

268
Q

With a properly functioning EFB, is there any time when you must call operations after departure?

A

Only with a delay code

269
Q

When must FO update departure status to operations when flight departure is delayed?

A

If flight is not anticipated to be airborne within 15 minutes of the OUT TIME; Update this estimate every 15 minutes if experiencing long ground delays

270
Q

What are the Crew Pairing requirements?

A

For all operations, either the Captain or the First Officer shall have a minimum 75 hours line operating flight time at Horizon, including IOE, in type, model, and crew position

271
Q

What restrictions are placed on an FO with less than 100 hours?

A

Unless the Captain is a check airman, the captain shall make all takeoffs and landings when:

  1. Flying to special airports
  2. Contaminants that affect aircraft performance are on runway
  3. Braking action less than “Good”
  4. Crosswind greater than 15 knots
  5. Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport.
  6. Visibility less than 4000RVR or 3/4 sm
  7. Captain prerogative
272
Q

What is a preplanned amendment?

A

If the originally scheduled destination does not meet regulatory dispatch weather requirements, a flight may be dispatched to another destination with the intent that the flight will be routed via or near the scheduled destination, and if conditions improve to at or above landing minimums, the release may be amended to the scheduled destination.

273
Q

What is the minimum runway width?

A

100’

274
Q

How much fuel reserve is required if no alternate is listed on the release?

A

Sufficient to fly for 55 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption

275
Q

How many pounds is standard contingency fuel?

A

200 lbs

276
Q

“Terrain Clearance” provides what clearance from terrain?

A

1,000’

277
Q

Mountain Drift Down provides what amount of terrain clearance?

A

2,000’

278
Q

When does a dispatch release expire?

A
  1. Air turnback

2. Intermediate airport for more than 60 minutes

279
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

If reported destination weather is below landing minimums or if any other operational conditions exist at the departure airport that would preclude a return back to that airport

280
Q

When is a destination alternate not required?

A
  1. An approved instrument procedure is available at the destination
  2. The flight is not predicated on an FMS-based approach unless the aircraft is WAAS equipped and operational
  3. 1-2-3
281
Q

How do you know if a pilot has less than 75 hours?

A

J– Junior pilot

282
Q

Minimum crew onboard for a through flight?

A

1 flight attendant, or one pilot substitutes for one flight attendant

283
Q

When must pilots be at the aircraft?

A

30 minutes prior to scheduled departure time

284
Q

When must pilots be on the flightdeck?

A

20 minutes prior to scheduled departure time

285
Q

What is the Standard Takeoff Briefing?

A

“Call out 80, V1, and rotate. Call any malfunctions. If before V1, it will be your decision to abort. After V1, I will continue the takeoff.”

286
Q

What is the maximum glideslope angle when using the HGS in AIII mode?

A
  1. 0 Degrees

2. 51 to 3.0 degrees

287
Q

When conducting an ILS approach in AIII mode, the gear and flaps must be in the landing configuration prior to what point?

A

Prior to passing the Final Approach Fix

288
Q

What is the proper response to an APCH WARN annunciation when below 500 feet?

A

Missed Approach

289
Q

During an AIII approach, what will the first officer verify is annunciated on the HAP prior to passing the FAF?

A

AIII RO ARM

290
Q

What are the wind limitations for Cat III approaches?

A

Max headwind 25 knots
Max crosswind 15 knots
Max tailwind 10 knots

291
Q

Is a takeoff abort required if the HGS fails when the RVR is less than 500?

A

Yes, if the runway centerline is not in sight

292
Q

What are the indications of an elevator trim runaway?

A

Illumination of elevator trim shutoff switchlight

Audio tone

293
Q

When is it permissible to not comply with a TCAS RA?

A

Pilot considers it unsafe to do so

Horizon Training (8 decks)

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