Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Head/Neck > Oral Cavity > Flashcards

Oral Cavity Flashcards

1
Q

What is the roof of the oral cavity?

A

Hard (maxilla and palatine bones) and soft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the floor of the oral cavity?

A

Mylohyoid muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the lateral boundary of the oral canal?

A

Buccinator muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the posterior boundary of the oral cavity?

A

Palatoglossal arch and sulcus terminalis on tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the vestibule of the oral cavity?

A

The space between teeth and mucosa (gingiva) of cheeks and lips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What primordia forms the primitive oral and nasal cavities?

A

Stomodeum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the frontonasal process?

A

An embryonic primordia that is the swelling produced by the growing forebrain and overlying mesenchyme and surface ectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a nasal placode?

A

Ectodermal thickenings on the frontonasal process that invaginates to form nasal pits that break through into the roof of the stomodeum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What structures flank the nasal pits of embryos?

A

Medial and lateral nasal swellings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is the roof of the stomodeum formed?

A

The frontonasal process intervenes between the maxillary process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How are the nasolacrimal ducts formed?

A

The ectodermal groove between the maxillary processes invaginates to form the ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How are the primitive choanae (nostrils) and nasal septum formed?

A

Nasal pits (from nasal placodes) break through the stomodeum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do lateral nasal swellings form?

A

Alae (lower lateral part of the nose) of the nose lateral to the nostrils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do medial nasal swellings form?

A

Intermaxillary segment that gives rise to the middle of the external nose, middle portion of upper lip (philtrum), and primary palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the median palatine process?

A

The primary palate that forms from the intermaxillary segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is the secondary palate forms?

A

It forms behind the primary palate in the 6th week when the lateral palatine processes from the maxillary part of arch 1 fuse together in midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What primordia does the tongue develop from?

A

Post-otic somites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What nerve supplies the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue?

A

Hypoglossal nerve (except for palatoglossus - vagus nerve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What muscle is the only protractor of the tongue?

A

Genioglossus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the nerve that innervates the region of the tongue labeled A? What does it do?

A

Vagus nerve - visceral sensory and taste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the nerve that innervates the region of the tongue labeled B?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the nerve that innervates the region of the tongue labeled C?

A

Lingual nerve (V)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the nerve that innervates the region of the tongue labeled D?

A

Facial nerve (VII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the nerve that innervates the region of the tongue labeled E?

A

Hypoglossal nerve (XII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the nerve that innervates the region of the tongue labeled F? What is the muscle?

A

Vagus nerve, palatoglossus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the innervation of the lining of the oral cavity?

A

V3 (lingual and buccal nerves)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What nerve provides taste to the lining of the oral cavity?

A

Facial enrve (VII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the innervation of most of the pharynx?

A

IX (glossopharyngeal nerve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What innervates the lining of the laryngopharynx and larynx?

A

Vagus nerve (X)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the complete pathway of parasymapthetic innervation to the parotid gland?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) –> tympanic nerve –> tympanic plexus (middle ear) –> lesser petrosal nerve –> synapse in otic ganglion –> auriculotemporal branch of V3 –> parotid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the complete pathway of parasympathetics to the submandibular and sublingual glands?

A

Facial nerve (VII) –> chorda tympani –> lingual branch of V3 –> synapse in submandibular ganglion –> direct branches into submandibular gland OR rejoin the lingual nerve to the sublingual gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A cleft lip results from a failure of fusion of what two embryonic primordia?

a) lateral palatine processes
b) maxillary and mandibular arches
c) maxillary arch and frontonasal process
d) left and right maxillary arches
e) lateral palatine process and nasal septum

A

c) maxillary arch and frontonasal process

  • (a) would result in a cleft of secondary palate*
  • (b) would result in a cheek defect*
  • (d) these structures do not touch each other*
  • (e) would result in cleft of secondary palate*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A patient’s submandibular salivary gland swells when eating meals. Where would you look for a possible blockage of its duct?

a) by the lower second molars
b) lingual frenulum
c) plica sublingualis
d) labial frenulum
e) foramen cecum

A

b) lingual frenulum

34
Q

Lack of secretion of the parotid gland might be due to dysfunction of which of the following nerves?

a) tympanic
b) lingual
c) chorda tympani
d) greater petrosal
e) hypoglossal

A

a) tympanic

the tympanic branch of IX is in the parotid pathway

35
Q

What nerve is the sensory limb of the gag reflex?

a) mandibular
b) chorda tympani
c) vagus
d) hypoglossal
e) glossopharyngeal

A

e) glossopharyngeal
* IX is sensory to the posterior 1/3 of tongue and pharynx in general*

36
Q

What muscle keeps the tongue from falling back into the pharynx in an unconscious person?

a) palatoglossus
b) hypoglossus
c) genioglossus
d) styloglossus
e) longitudinal intrinsic fibers

A

c) genioglossus

pulls the tongue forward

37
Q

What are common non-genetic etiologies of cleft lip/palate?

A

Maternal disease/exposures: anticonvulsant medication, retinoic acid medications, folic acid antagonists/deficiency, corticosteroids, alcohol/tobacco ingestion, maternal diabetes

38
Q

What are some syndromes that are often associated with cleft lip/palate?

A

Stickler syndrome (also associated with eye problems, hearing loss, joint problems)

Van der Woude Syndrome (lower lip pits)

Down Syndrome

22q11 deletion (DiGeorge - absent thymus)

Goldenhar Syndrome

CHARGE syndrome

Pierre Robin sequence

39
Q

What disease is associated with cleft palate/lip and lower lip pits?

A

Van der Woude Syndrome

40
Q

What is CHARGE syndrome?

A

C - Coloboma

H - Heart anomalies

A - atresia (choanal)

R - retarded development of CNS

G - genitourinary anomalies

E - Ear anomalies

41
Q

What is sialadenitis?

A

Inflammation of major salivary gland due to stasis of secretions in salivary duct

42
Q

What are risk factors for sialadenitis?

A

Dehydration (elderly), post-surgical, radiation/chemotherapy, Sjogren’s

43
Q

What pathogens are associated with sialadenitis?

A

Staph aureus, strep viridans, strep pyogenes, haemophilus influenzae, e coli, HIV, mumps, influenza, coxsackie

44
Q

What is Uveparotid fever?

A

A disease that is an extrapulmonary form of sarcoidosis - associated with uveitis, parotid enlargement, facial nerve dysfunction, sensorineural hearing loss, fever

45
Q

What is sialolithiasis?

A

Calculi/stones within salivary duct (mostly in submandibular)

46
Q

What are risk factors for sialolithiasis?

A

Gout, smoking

47
Q

What is the usual cause of sleep apnea in pediatrics?

A

Hypertrophy of palatine tonsils and adenoids (or lingual tonsils)

48
Q

What are the symptoms of pediatric obstructive sleep apnea?

A

Snoring, inflammation, insulin resistance, hypertension, increased cardiac load, attention/behavior issues

49
Q

What is the likely etiology of generalized pale mucosa?

A

Anemia, thalassemia

50
Q

What is the likely etiology of black/brown oral cavity discoloration?

A

Bismuth and arsenic intoxication

51
Q

What is the likely etiology of blue-gray gingival margins in the oral cavity?

A

Lead intoxication

52
Q

What is the likely etiology of generalized redness of the oral cavity?

A

Polycythemia vera, hepatic insufficiency

53
Q

What is the likely etiology of perioral melanotic macules?

A

Puetz-Jeghers

54
Q

What is the likely etiology of small yellow spots in the oral cavity?

A

Fordyce’s disease

55
Q

What is the likely etiology of black hairy tongue?

A

Elongated (hypertrophic) filiform papillae

56
Q

What is the likely etiology of telagiectasias in the oral cavity?

A

Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome

57
Q

What is the likely etiology of diffuse hyperpigmentation of mucosa?

A

Addison’s disease

58
Q

What is the presentation of herpetic gingivostomatitis?

A

Small, painful vesicles with erythematous ulceration and gray eschar

59
Q

What is the presentation of oral candidiasis?

A

Sometimes painful white plaque lesions that scrape off and reveal erythematous base and are friable

60
Q

What is the treatment for herpetic gingivostomatitis?

A

Acyclovir, valacyclovir

61
Q

What is the treatment for oral candidiasis?

A

Topical antifungals, systemic antifungals for severe disease

62
Q

What is the presentation of necrotizing gingivostomatitis?

A

Gingival caters/erosions, gray pseudomembranes, halitosis, malaise, fevers, necrosis due to synergistic infection (spirochetes, fusiform rods, anaerobes)

63
Q

What is the presentation of oral actinomycosis infection?

A

Invades mucosa due to trauma, poor hygiene, dental infections. Presents as a plapable mass of head/neck with purple skin discolorations with abscesses

64
Q

What is the presentation of actinomycosis on histology?

A

Branching gram positive anaerobic bacteria, granulomatous and suppurative appearance, sulfur granules

65
Q

What is the most common benign lesion of oral cavity?

A

Squamous papilloma

66
Q

What is the cause of squamous papilloma?

A

Human papilloma virus

67
Q

What is the presentation of erythema multiforme?

A

Oral (or cutaneous) target lesions with concentric rings, fever, odynophagia, and cervical adenopathy

68
Q

What is oral pempigus vulgaris?

A

Painful blisters of oral cavity, pharynx, and desquamitive gingivitis

69
Q

What are aphthous ulcers?

A

Most common oral ulcer, can be idiopathic/immunologic/infectious/pharmacologic/nutritional/etc.

70
Q

When a child has a genetic syndrome associated with cleft palate, what other craniofacial anomalies are common?

A

Ear malformations, ocular malformations, midfacial hypoplasia (flattened midface), choanal atresia

71
Q

What factors predispose a patient to infectious parotitis?

A

Extremes of age, immunodeficiency, dehydration, malnutrition

72
Q

What systemic diseases can present with oral pigmented/hypopigmented lesions?

A

Chemical intoxications, blood disorders, puetz jeghers disease, osler-weber-rendu syndrome, addison’s disease, amyloidosis

73
Q

What organism is responsible for thrush?

A

Candida albicans

74
Q

What organism is responsible for oral ulcers?

A

HSV

75
Q

What organism is responsible for necrotizing gingivostomatitis?

A

Borellia Vincentii

76
Q

What organism is responsible for oral papillomas?

A

Human papilloma virus

77
Q

In the newborn nursery, you examine a newborn and identify cleft palate. The mother is pictured below. Upon your questioning, she reports a history of: wearing glasses for vision deficit, cataracts, hearing loss, and joint hyper-flexibility. What syndrome do you expect?

a) 22q11 deletion
b) goldenhar
c) van der woude
d) stickler

A

D) Stickler

78
Q

An 83 year old male hospitalized for dehydration develops unilateral parotid swelling and tenderness. You express purulence from the parotid duct. What is the most likely etiology of his parotitis?

a) infectious
b) calculus (stone)
c) Heerfordt’s Disease
d) Sjogren’s

A

a) infectious

79
Q

Which of the following choices represents a true statement comparing pediatric and adult OSA?

a) children rarely have increased fasting glucose, insulin resistance, and increased triglycerides
b) behaviorally, children more often have hyperactivity than adults
c) like adults, the common cause of pediatric OSA is obesity
d) the same sleep study scoring system is used in both groups

A

b) behaviorally, children more often have hyperactivity than adults

80
Q

If you saw the following 27 year old female in your primary care clinic, you would refer the patient to…

a) gastroenterology to rule out Puetz-Jeghers syndrome and gastrointestinal polyps
b) otolaryngology because erythroplakia carries a 25% risk of malignancy
c) toxicology to rule out lead poisoning
d) infectious disease for treatment of herpes stomatitis

A

a) gastroenterology to rule out Puetz-Jeghers syndrome and gastrointestinal polyps

81
Q

In CHARGE syndrome, the “A” stands for atresia of what?

a) anus
b) esophagus
c) duodenum
d) choanae

A
82
Q

The most common benign lesion of the oral cavity is caused by…

a) Mumps
b) Syphilis
c) HPV

A

c) HPV

Head/Neck (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions