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Captain Upgrade > ORAL > Flashcards

ORAL Flashcards

1
Q

Purpose for the Central Bus?

A

Start APU
Connects System with 3 or less generators online
Connects GPU to system

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2
Q

How long do the Emergency Lights last?

A

15 minutes

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3
Q

How do you charge the Emergency Lights?

A

When in the ARMED position (own dedicated batteries)

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4
Q

What does the Backup Battery charge?

A

GCU protective function, EDL, and ISIS

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5
Q

How can you test the Backup Battery?

A

If you press the overhead button and the ISIS stays on, its a good test

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6
Q

What happens during ELEC EMERG ABNORM?

A

EDL improper configuration
In essential power when its not supposed to be

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7
Q

What happens during ELEC ESS XFER FAIL?

A

EDL improper configuration
Is not in essential power when its supposed to be

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8
Q

DC GEN Distribution with 4/5 or GPU

A

Right and left networks are isolated
All buses are energized

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9
Q

DC GEN Distribution with 3

A

Both networks are interconnected via bus ties
All buses are energized

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10
Q

DC GEN Distribution with 1/2

A

Ground: Both networks are interconnected via bus ties and shed only in OVRD
Air: Both networks are interconnected via bus ties without shed

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11
Q

DC GEN Distribution with 0

A

Ground: Batt last 10 minutes (all DC busses are powered)
Air: Batt last 40 minutes + 3 APU attempts (EDL forces ESS power)

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12
Q

Shed bus knob OFF?

A

Shed Bus contactors open

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13
Q

Shed bus knob AUTO?

A

EDL controls Shed bus contactors

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14
Q

Shed bus knob OVRD?

A

Shed bus contactors close if aircraft is on ground with 1 generator running

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15
Q

How do you know if an IC-600 has failed?

A

Captain side red X across MFD, PFD, and EICAS
FO side red X across MFD, PFD

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16
Q

What can you do if an IC-600 fails to get information

A

Select the SG button

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17
Q

What is the IC-600?

A

Graphic Card

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18
Q

Where does the DAU send information?

A

DAU -> IC-600 -> Display

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19
Q

What is the purpose of the DAU?

A

Collects information and work to monitor engine and aircraft systems

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20
Q

How many DAU channels are there?

A

2
A Primary
B Standby (ready to takeover incase A failure)

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21
Q

What is the trend vector for airspeed?

A

10 seconds

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22
Q

What is the trend vector for altitude?

A

6 seconds

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23
Q

What are the doors indicated on the MFD?

A

Forward Electronic
Under Cockpit Access
Main Door
Service Door
Fueling Door
2 Emergency Exits
Baggage Door
Aft Electronic

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24
Q

When is CAS inhibition activated for takeoff?

A

V1-15 kts

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25
Q

When is CAS inhibition deactivated for takeff?

A

Above 400 RA
Airspeed 60 knots
Or 1 minute incase of RA failure

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26
Q

When is CAS inhibition logic activated for landing?

A

200 RA

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27
Q

When is CAS inhibition logic deactivated for landing?

A

Weight on wheels
or 1 minute incase of Go-Around

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28
Q

How and where is the accessory gearbox connected?

A

Connected to the N2 spool via the towershaft

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29
Q

What accessories are on the accessory gearbox?

A

Hydraulic Pump
Air Turbine Starter
PMA
FPMU
Oil Pump
Generator

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30
Q

When does the PMA power the ignitors?

A

10% N2

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31
Q

When does the PMA power the FADEC?

A

50% N2

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32
Q

What is associated on the N1 fan?

A

3 stage LP turbine drives a 1 stage LP fan

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33
Q

What is associated on the N2 fan?

A

2 stage HP turbine drives a 14 stage HP fan

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34
Q

How many fan blades are on the compressor?

A

24

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35
Q

What stages comprise the compressor?

A

1 through 5: CVG, adjusted by fuel from the FPMU for compressor stalls
6 through 14: fixed stator blades

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36
Q

What is the max time a takeoff thrust mode can be used?

A

5 minutes

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37
Q

In case of engine failure, what will the ATTCS change the thrust setting to?

A

ALT T/O-1: T/O 1
T/O: T/O RSV
E T/O: E T/O RSV

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38
Q

What comes out the engine drain system?

A

Oil, hydraulics, fuel

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39
Q

What is the abort start criteria?

A

Unusual noise or vibration
Engine abnormalities
Flames
No light off within 10 seconds of fuel flow
Fuel flow drops to 0 after light off
ITT rapidily rises to 800 (hot start)
N2 decreases or remains steady for 5 seconds (hung start)
No N1 rotation prior to 57%N2
N2 does not reach 57% by 1 minute

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40
Q

What is the normal start sequence?

A

N2 rotation within 20 seconds
Oil pressure rises
14% N2: IGN
28% N2: Fuel Flow
ITT rises within 10 seconds of fuel flow
N1 rotation prior to 57% N2
Stabilized: 2-4-6, good pressure, good temps, good vibes

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41
Q

What happens if you get the warning ATTCS NO MRGN

A

FADEC thinks it does not have sufficient ITT or N2 margins in case of engine failure
Aircraft NOT safe to fly

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42
Q

What happens if you get the warning LOW N1

A

Engine not achieving requested N1
Aircraft NOT safe to fly

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43
Q

How many FADECS are there?

A

2 per engine
One primary, one monitoring

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44
Q

How do the FADECS talk to eachother?

A

The data bus

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45
Q

How are the FADECS powered?

A

Prior to 50% N2 powered by essential
After 50% N2 powered by PMA

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46
Q

When is an aircraft determined ‘Cold Soaked’

A

Temperature is 5ºC or less and engines been off for 90 minutes
IGN turned to ON

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47
Q

To increase above 83% N2 engine oil must be

A

40ºC or warmer

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48
Q

In regards to a cold engine, it must run at 8 minutes and temperature is

A

21ºC

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49
Q

How many channels are on the stall protection system?

A

2

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50
Q

How many stick shakers are there?

A

2 Stick Shakers

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51
Q

How many channels need to be active for the stick shakers to work?

A

1 channel

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52
Q

How many stick pushers are there?

A

1 stick pusher

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53
Q

How many channels need to be active for the stick pusher to work?

A

2 channels

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54
Q

When landing flaps 22, when do you need to increase VREF by 6kts?

A

Icing conditions encountered
SPS ice speeds
OAT 10ºC or less at landing

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55
Q

How does the landing gear retraction process work?

A

Lever up, LGEU, HYD SYS 1, DN lock and retraction, Up lock

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56
Q

How does the landing gear extension process work?

A

Lever DN, LGEU, HYD SYS 1, Up lock and extension, DN lock

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57
Q

When does the aural ‘LND GEAR’ Sound

A

Flaps 45, any altitude, any TLA
Any flap setting, below 1200 AGL, low TLA

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58
Q

What happens when you pull the free fall extension for the landing gear?

A

Pulling up de-preasurizes the system and releases the up locks

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59
Q

How many Air to ground sensors are there?

A

5
4 on the mains, 1 on the nose

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60
Q

When do you get the LG AIR/GND FAIL

A

When there are 4 signals and they do not agree

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61
Q

What does the nose gear sensor send signal to during WOW?

A

Thrust Reverser
Steering Control
Downlock release

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62
Q

What is the radius of the steering?

A

5º with rudder
71º with tiller

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63
Q

What is the process of braking?

A

Pedals, BCU, BCV, HYD SYS 1 (controls outboards 1 and 4) HYD SYS 2 (controls inboards 2 and 3).

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64
Q

What does the BCU do?

A

Monitors brake performance and sends signal to BCV

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65
Q

What does the BCV do?

A

Modulates brake pressure

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66
Q

What is the purpose of touchdown protection?

A

Prevents brake actuation before main wheel speed up

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67
Q

When does touchdown protection occur?

A

3 seconds from last WOW
or wheel speed greater than 50kts

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68
Q

What is the purpose of Locked Wheel Protection?

A

Relives brake pressure if they are not in sync

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69
Q

When does Locked Wheel Protection occur?

A

Wheel speed greater than 30kts
If one wheel is 30% difference, brake relieves pressure

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70
Q

What is the purpose of Anti-Skid Protection?

A

If BCU falls below average speed, pressure is relaxed

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71
Q

When does Anti-Skid Protection occur?

A

Wheel speed greater than 10kts
If 1 of 4 BCU falls below average speed, pressure is relaxed

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72
Q

When does thrust activation occur?

A

When WOW main speed is 25kts or greater

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73
Q

When does MAX thrust activation occur?

A

When WOW from nose gear or mains is 25kts or greater

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74
Q

How many locks are on the thrust reversers?

A

3 Locks
1 and 2 are electro-hydraulic
3 is electric

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75
Q

How does thrust reverse activation occur?

A

Ground sensor + thrust reverser actuation

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76
Q

What happens if a thrust reverser deploys in flight?

A

FADEC commands throttle to IDLE

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77
Q

What uses does the emergency brake actuator have?

A

24 hours of parking brake
6 emergency uses

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78
Q

How is the Elevator controlled?

A

Mechanical

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79
Q

Where are the Spring Tabs located and when are they useful?

A

Inboard
High speeds

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80
Q

Where are the Servo Tabs located and when are they useful?

A

Outboard
High and low speeds

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81
Q

How are the Ailerons controlled?

A

Cables trigger actuators HYD SYS 1 and 2

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82
Q

What side is the Torque Tube and Autopilot on for the Ailerons?

A

Left side

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83
Q

What side is the Artificial feel and Roll trim located for Ailerons?

A

Right side

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84
Q

How are the Rudders controlled?

A

Cables trigger actuators HYD SYS 1 and 2

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85
Q

How are the Spoilers and Speed Brakes controlled?

A

Electrical signal to HYD system

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86
Q

How does the flap system work?

A

FECU (brain) -> FPDU (gearbox with 2 motors)

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87
Q

What happens if one of the gearbox motors in the flaps fail?

A

Flaps will move 50% slower

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88
Q

What are the purpose of the Vortex Generators

A

Located on top of the wings - Prevent airflow seperation

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89
Q

What is the purpose of the Vortilons

A

Direct airflow over the wing, preventing the wingtip from stalling first

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90
Q

How does the rudder overboost protection work?

A

Above 135kts SYS 1 shutsoff

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91
Q

When can the speed brakes open?

A

Lever is set to open
TLR is lower than 50º
Flaps are set 0 to 9

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92
Q

When can the ground spoilers deploy?

A

Aircraft on the ground
Wheel speeds greater than 25kts
TLR lower than 30º
N2 less than 56%

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93
Q

How does rudder hardover protection occur?

A

Force on one pedal greater than 130Lb and rudder deflection greater than 5º opposite direction

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94
Q

When does the electric driven hydraulic pump turn on?

95
Q

What is the purpose of the priority valve?

A

With engine 1 out, it minimizes flow to gear and prioritizes flow to flight controls

96
Q

Where is Hydraulic accumulator 1 located?

A

Nose compartment

97
Q

Where is Hydraulic accumulator 2 located?

A

Behind the right wing

98
Q

What happens during APU GEN OVLD?

A

Occurs when APU Gen is over 400 amps
Turn BATT 1 off, once the amps decrease - turn back on

99
Q

What are the oil quantities required to report

A

8: Advise MX
7: Minimum to start
6: Minimum for takeoff

100
Q

When does the oil quantity turn amber?

A

Less than 6qts

101
Q

What is the Max oil capacity?

102
Q

What is the purpose of the ACOC?

A

Cools the oil

103
Q

What is the process of the fuel system?

A

Wing tip, collector box, pressurized by 1 or 3 fuel pumps, check valve, xfeed valve, engine or APU shutoff valve, FPMU or APU

104
Q

What is the Max fuel compacity?

105
Q

What is the purpose of the flow ejector pumps?

A

Keeps collector box full

106
Q

What does selecting the crossfeed valve do?

A

Opens crossfeed valve and turns off selected fuel pump

107
Q

When do you get the FUEL TRANSFER CRITICAL EICAS

A

Fuel in the ventral tank, but one wing tank quantity is less than 3130Lb

108
Q

When do you get the FUEL LO LEVEL EICAS

A

When fuel quantity 460-580Lb

109
Q

When may a through flight setup check be conducted?

A

Crew keeps the same aircraft
Flight crew members stay onboard
Aircraft remains energized
No maintenance action has been taken

110
Q

When must a terminating check be accomplished?

A

Aircraft powered down
Aircraft unattended

111
Q

When is the after start check accomplished?

A

After completion of second engine start?

112
Q

Where are the Gasper Fan locations?

A

Passenger Outlets
Rear electronics bay
O2 cylinder compartment

113
Q

When do the packs automatically shut off?

A

Icing conditions below FL246
Go around or E/TO takeoff below 1700 AGL
One Engine below 9700
Pack Overload
Pack Overheat
Engine Start
Essential power or loss of bleed source

114
Q

Where is bleed air tapped from?

A

9th and 14th Stages

115
Q

When is bleed air tapped from the 9th stage?

A

Normal operations

116
Q

When is bleed air tapped from the 14th stage?

A

Low thrust setting
Icing conditions
Cross Bleed Operations

117
Q

What is the purpose of Pitot/Static 3?

A

Sends data to CPAM

118
Q

When does the ‘CABIN CABIN’ aural sound happen?

A

Cabin altitude 9900 +/- 100 feet

119
Q

What happens when you press the DUMP button in manual mode?

A

Nothing happens

120
Q

What happens when you press the DUMP button in AUTO mode?

A

Dumps to 14500 or actual altitude

121
Q

What is the purpose of the Static Ports?

A

Allows outflow valves to open
Provide over and under pressure relief

122
Q

Where are the Static Ports located?

A

Each side of the aircraft

123
Q

When does the Ice detectors activate?

A

When there are 0.5mm build up

124
Q

How long does the Ice detection run for?

125
Q

What is ‘Visible Moisture’

A

Clouds/Fog when visibility is a mile or less

126
Q

How are the Anti-Ice systems powered?

A

Pneumatically actuated, electronically commanded

127
Q

How are the Anti-Ice sensors powered?

A

Electrically heated once engines are running

128
Q

How many Fire Bottles are on the aircraft, and where are they located?

A

2 for the Engines
1 for APU

129
Q

What EICAS messages are present during the Fire Protection Test?

A

E1-2 FIRE
APU FIRE
BAGG SMOKE
E1-2 FIRE DET FAIL
APU FIRE DET FAIL

130
Q

What closes when pulling the Fire T Handle?

A

Hydraulic Shutoff Valve
Engine Bleed Valve
Engine Lip Anti-Ice Valve
Fuel Shutoff Valve

131
Q

How does the Baggage Fire suppression system work?

A

One is a High Rate Discharge
Other is a metering over 50 minutes

132
Q

How much fuel is burned during 2 engine taxi?

A

20LB per minute

133
Q

How much fuel is burned during single engine taxi?

A

12LB per minute

134
Q

How much fuel is burned during first hour of flight?

A

54LB per minute

135
Q

How much fuel is burned during second hour of flight?

A

42LB per minute

136
Q

How much fuel is used during a hold?

A

42LB per minute

137
Q

How do you figure out how long you can hold for?

A

Fuel burn from PPOS to DEST + Divert Fuel = Leave hold fuel

138
Q

How do you figure out how much fuel you can hold for?

A

FOB-Leave hold fuel = Fuel available for landing

139
Q

How do you figure out holding time?

A

Fuel available for holding/42 LBS = Holding time in mins

140
Q

What must be done to fuel the aircraft with passengers on board?

A

Crewmember at main door in reach of fire extinguisher
Seatbelt sign OFF
Fuel truck may not block access to exits

141
Q

Can we land if braking action is reported as NIL?

142
Q

What is the lowest landing RVR?

143
Q

What is the lowest landing visibility?

144
Q

When is 15% additional runway required?

A

Visibility 3/4sm
4000 RVR

145
Q

Crosswind Limitation for wet and dry?

146
Q

Crosswind limitation for compacted snow?

147
Q

Crosswind limitation for standing water/slush?

148
Q

Crosswind limitation for ice

149
Q

When is single engine taxi not allowed?

A

ENG ANTI-ICE required
Ramp/Taxi surface slippery or wet
15% of taxi way is contaminated
Any electric hydraulic pump inop

150
Q

When can you single engine taxi in bad conditions?

A

If a crossbleed start is required

151
Q

When is ALT T/O-1 not premitted

A

Contaminated runway
Windshear
Anti-Skid Inop
Slippery
Performance TLR
Flaps 18

152
Q

When is takeoff not authorized during winter ops?

A

Heavy Ice, Hail 1/4, Heavy Snow

153
Q

What are the MEL categories?

A

A: As specified
B: 3 days
C: 10 days
D: 120 days

154
Q

When do low visibility procedures take place?

A

1200 RVR or 1/2sm

155
Q

What is required during low visibility operations?

A

Takeoff alternate
No single engine taxi
Checklist only when stopped
SMIG charts

156
Q

When is an amended release required?

A

WX at ALT drops below minimums
Aircraft/PIC change
Unplanned diversion
MEL or new deferred
New altitude burn numbers
Aborted T/O
ATC Reroute
Return to Gate

157
Q

What is required from dispatch for amended release?

A

Statement
Time
Amendment numbers
Initials

158
Q

What is Marginal weather?

A

Weather at destination and alternate are within 100 and or 1/2sm visibility

159
Q

What is the purpose of 17347?

A

Relief from conditional language in the TAF only if the main body of the TAF:
DEST: VIS only with 50% of PIC landing mins
1st ALT: Ceiling and VIS within 50%
2nd ALT: Ceiling and VIS within 100%

160
Q

17347 procedures?

A

2 alternates listed on release
PIC contact dispatch for weather update
Must be in remarks
CA may not be on high mins

161
Q

What compromises green on green?

A

Both captain and FO have less than 75 hours in type

162
Q

What must be done while on High Mins

A

Add 100 and 1/2sm to minimums
Not allowed to use 17347

163
Q

When may the SIC not land

A

Within 100 hours
Special Airports
Special considerations
Runway wet/contaminated
Runway braking less than good
Crosswind greater than 15kts
Windshear
Visibility 3/4
RVR less than 4000

164
Q

Standard Engine failure procedure

A

No turns below 1000 feet AFE

165
Q

Standard Simple-Special Engine Failure procedure

A

Turn with ‘VIA’ can start at 50 feet AFE
Abnormal FRA
Turns may be below 1000 AFE
Required in VMC up to 1000 AFE
Required in IMC up to 3000 AFE

166
Q

When is a Takeoff Alternate required?

A

When departure airport is below PIC landing minimums

167
Q

Takeoff Alternate Requirments

A

Cant be longer than 1 hour in normal cruise
May not exceed 280nm
Based on MATOW, FL150, ISA +20, Engine bleeds on, Anti-Ice on

168
Q

Where does the APU receive fuel?

169
Q

What controls starting and normal operation of APU?

A

Its own FADEC

170
Q

What does turning the APU knob to ‘ON’ do?

A

Energizes FADEC
Opens fuel shutoff valve in the belly of the plane
BIT test

171
Q

APU cool down after first start attempt?

172
Q

APU cool down after second start attempt?

173
Q

APU cool down after third start attempt?

A

30 minutes

174
Q

What are the 5 system pages on the MFD?

A

Fuel
Electrical
Environmental and Ice protection
Hydraulic and Brakes
Takeoff (doors)

175
Q

What causes the takeoff test to sound?

A

Parking Brake
Ground Spoilers
Flaps not in takeoff
Trim out of green

176
Q

When a cold airplane batteries are turned to AUTO, what happens?

A

Contactors 1 and 2 close, all buses are energized besides the SHED

177
Q

On the ground, when are all the buses energized?

A

3 or more generators
GPU powering the aircraft
1 generator and SHED bus OVRD

178
Q

Why is BATT 2 used to start APU?

A

BC 1 opens allowing sensitive elements to be protected

179
Q

What critical items are on the HOT BUS?

A

Engine Fire Bottles

180
Q

What happens if a fault occurs in the elecrtical system?

A

If an overcurrent is detected, the GCU isolates the system

181
Q

What does the AC inverter provide function for?

A

GPWS
TCAS
Windshear

182
Q

How do you know when a fire bottle has been used?

A

EICAS FIRE BOTTLE INOP

183
Q

Are the ground spoilers inboard or outboard on the wing?

184
Q

When do the ground spoilers actuate?

A

Airplane on ground
Wheel speeds 25kts or greater
TLA 30º or less

185
Q

When do the speed brakes open?

A

Speed brake to OPEN
Thrust lever below 50º
Flaps 0 - 9 degrees

186
Q

What is the travel limit for the rudder?

187
Q

What provides high pressure fuel to the engines?

188
Q

What is the purpose of the FPMU?

A

Provides high pressure fuel to the engines and to the CVG

189
Q

When does the E1(2) FUEL LO PRESS EICAS occur?

A

Fuel pressure has dropped below 6.5 PSI

190
Q

What are the LAHSO requirements?

A

Atleast 6000 feet
Dry Runway
Flaps 45
No tailwind
No windshear reports within 20 minutes
ILS or PAPI/VASI

191
Q

What are the Special Airport considerations?

A

PIC uses pictoral means
1000 feet above lowest MEA or MOCA and visibility 3sm

192
Q

Minimum Hydraulic Fluid for dispatch?

193
Q

What is the purpose of the Hydraulic pumps in AUTO?

A

In Auto, they turn on when the hydraulic pressure drops below 1600 PSI or N2 drops below 56.4

194
Q

How are the main Hydraulic pumps driven?

A

N2 via towershaft on the accessory gearbox

195
Q

When is the pneumatic anti-icing system enabled?

A

Wheel speeds greater than 25kts

196
Q

What are the surfaces pneumatically heated?

A

Engine Nacelle
Wing Leading edges
Horizontal stab leading edges

197
Q

Where does the Anti-Ice bleed air come from for the horizontal stab?

A

Bleed system 1

198
Q

What is the indication of increasing windshear?

199
Q

What is the indication of decreasing windshear?

200
Q

What is the windshear escape procedure?

A

Max Thrust
Disengage autopilot/Press TOGA
Pitch up
Maintain configuration

201
Q

What is the purpose of the TBCH

A

Tuning NAV and COM 2 incase RMU fail

202
Q

How does a pilot know if the RMU is cross tuned?

203
Q

How much time is left if EICAS ‘OXYGEN LO PRES’ Is present?

A

12 minutes

204
Q

Minimum oxygen for crew for dispatch?

205
Q

When can turns be made before 1000 feet?

A

Special Departure Procedure
SID
Weather is 1000 and 3
ATC vectors after radar contact

206
Q

Are landing penalties cumlative?

207
Q

What is factored landing distance?

A

Land within 60% of favorable runway and in favorable direction. If not an alternate is needed.

208
Q

What are the 3 possible sources for bleed air?

A

Engines
APU
Ground Source

209
Q

What systems use bleed air?

A

Engine Start
Pressurization
Air conditioning
Anti Ice

210
Q

What are the 3 sources for Engine Start?

A

APU
Cross Bleed
Ground source

211
Q

What is the most perferred source for engine start?

212
Q

What is FUEL/TO?

A

Fuel uploaded at departure

213
Q

What does BURN fuel include?

A

Departure to destination
Takeoff, cruise, descent, approach +10nm for vectors

214
Q

What does ALT BURN fuel include?

A

Overhead destination to furthest alternate
Takeoff, cruise, descent, missed +5nm for vectors

215
Q

What does EXTRA FUEL include?

A

Fuel/to - taxi - min/to

216
Q

What does RESRV fuel include?

A

Fuel burn at 45 minutes at normal consumption
1800Lbs or 2298Lbs an hour

217
Q

What does MIN/TO fuel include?

A

Fuel which must be onboard prior to becoming airborne
Burn, Hold, Alt, Reserve, Missed

218
Q

What does Divert fuel include?

A

Overhead destination to furthest alternate
Plus 45 minute fuel burn
ALT BURN+RESERVE

219
Q

What is Final Divert Fuel?

A

Overhead destination to furthest alternate
Plus 30 minute fuel burn (1206Lb).
ALT BURN+30 Minute

220
Q

What is Emergency Fuel?

A

Landing at destination or alternate with less than 30 minutes of reserve fuel
Gives priority

221
Q

What is Minimum Fuel?

A

Aircraft can accept little to no delay

222
Q

What is the Cargo Floor Limit?

A

88 Bags
2646Lbs

223
Q

When is a runway considered wet?

A

25% of runway is covered with visible dampness of 1/8th of water

224
Q

When is a runway contaminated?

A

25% of runway is covered frost, slush, ice with 1/8th inch

225
Q

What is balanced field?

A

Accelerate stop = Accelerate go
Accelerate to V1 and stop or continue to V2 and cross 35AGL end of runway

226
Q

What is unbalanced field?

A

Accelerate stop does not equal accelerate go
Stopway to use accelerate stop or clearway for accelerate go

227
Q

What is a clearway?

A

Departure end is 500feet wide, and 1/2 of runway length clear of obstacles

228
Q

What is a stopway?

A

As wide as runway
Blast pad/EMS

229
Q

What is the Demonstrated (unfactored) landing distance?

A

Advisory Only - Safety Margins have not been met
Test Pilot numbers

230
Q

What is Factored Landing Distance?

A

Planning Purposes Only
60% Dry
115% Wet

231
Q

What is the minimum Landing Distance?

A

Used by pilots

232
Q

What is Method 1 Driftdown?

A

Starts at V1 ends at Destination
5sm either side of route 1000 foot clearance

233
Q

When is an Alternate Required?

A

123 Rule
17347
Method 2 Driftdown
Low Vis 3/4sm or 4000 RVR
60/60 rule
Supplemental
Takeoff
Uncontrolled
PIC Discretion
International
Delays
Braking
Marginal
Wind

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