ORAL Flashcards
1
Q
Purpose for the Central Bus?
A
Start APU
Connects System with 3 or less generators online
Connects GPU to system
2
Q
How long do the Emergency Lights last?
A
15 minutes
3
Q
How do you charge the Emergency Lights?
A
When in the ARMED position (own dedicated batteries)
4
Q
What does the Backup Battery charge?
A
GCU protective function, EDL, and ISIS
5
Q
How can you test the Backup Battery?
A
If you press the overhead button and the ISIS stays on, its a good test
6
Q
What happens during ELEC EMERG ABNORM?
A
EDL improper configuration
In essential power when its not supposed to be
7
Q
What happens during ELEC ESS XFER FAIL?
A
EDL improper configuration
Is not in essential power when its supposed to be
8
Q
DC GEN Distribution with 4/5 or GPU
A
Right and left networks are isolated
All buses are energized
9
Q
DC GEN Distribution with 3
A
Both networks are interconnected via bus ties
All buses are energized
10
Q
DC GEN Distribution with 1/2
A
Ground: Both networks are interconnected via bus ties and shed only in OVRD
Air: Both networks are interconnected via bus ties without shed
11
Q
DC GEN Distribution with 0
A
Ground: Batt last 10 minutes (all DC busses are powered)
Air: Batt last 40 minutes + 3 APU attempts (EDL forces ESS power)
12
Q
Shed bus knob OFF?
A
Shed Bus contactors open
13
Q
Shed bus knob AUTO?
A
EDL controls Shed bus contactors
14
Q
Shed bus knob OVRD?
A
Shed bus contactors close if aircraft is on ground with 1 generator running
15
Q
How do you know if an IC-600 has failed?
A
Captain side red X across MFD, PFD, and EICAS
FO side red X across MFD, PFD
16
Q
What can you do if an IC-600 fails to get information
A
Select the SG button
17
Q
What is the IC-600?
A
Graphic Card
18
Q
Where does the DAU send information?
A
DAU -> IC-600 -> Display
19
Q
What is the purpose of the DAU?
A
Collects information and work to monitor engine and aircraft systems
20
Q
How many DAU channels are there?
A
2
A Primary
B Standby (ready to takeover incase A failure)
21
Q
What is the trend vector for airspeed?
A
10 seconds
22
Q
What is the trend vector for altitude?
A
6 seconds
23
Q
What are the doors indicated on the MFD?
A
Forward Electronic
Under Cockpit Access
Main Door
Service Door
Fueling Door
2 Emergency Exits
Baggage Door
Aft Electronic
24
Q
When is CAS inhibition activated for takeoff?
A
V1-15 kts
25
When is CAS inhibition deactivated for takeff?
Above 400 RA
Airspeed 60 knots
Or 1 minute incase of RA failure
26
When is CAS inhibition logic activated for landing?
200 RA
27
When is CAS inhibition logic deactivated for landing?
Weight on wheels
or 1 minute incase of Go-Around
28
How and where is the accessory gearbox connected?
Connected to the N2 spool via the towershaft
29
What accessories are on the accessory gearbox?
Hydraulic Pump
Air Turbine Starter
PMA
FPMU
Oil Pump
Generator
30
When does the PMA power the ignitors?
10% N2
31
When does the PMA power the FADEC?
50% N2
32
What is associated on the N1 fan?
3 stage LP turbine drives a 1 stage LP fan
33
What is associated on the N2 fan?
2 stage HP turbine drives a 14 stage HP fan
34
How many fan blades are on the compressor?
24
35
What stages comprise the compressor?
1 through 5: CVG, adjusted by fuel from the FPMU for compressor stalls
6 through 14: fixed stator blades
36
What is the max time a takeoff thrust mode can be used?
5 minutes
37
In case of engine failure, what will the ATTCS change the thrust setting to?
ALT T/O-1: T/O 1
T/O: T/O RSV
E T/O: E T/O RSV
38
What comes out the engine drain system?
Oil, hydraulics, fuel
39
What is the abort start criteria?
Unusual noise or vibration
Engine abnormalities
Flames
No light off within 10 seconds of fuel flow
Fuel flow drops to 0 after light off
ITT rapidily rises to 800 (hot start)
N2 decreases or remains steady for 5 seconds (hung start)
No N1 rotation prior to 57%N2
N2 does not reach 57% by 1 minute
40
What is the normal start sequence?
N2 rotation within 20 seconds
Oil pressure rises
14% N2: IGN
28% N2: Fuel Flow
ITT rises within 10 seconds of fuel flow
N1 rotation prior to 57% N2
Stabilized: 2-4-6, good pressure, good temps, good vibes
41
What happens if you get the warning ATTCS NO MRGN
FADEC thinks it does not have sufficient ITT or N2 margins in case of engine failure
Aircraft NOT safe to fly
42
What happens if you get the warning LOW N1
Engine not achieving requested N1
Aircraft NOT safe to fly
43
How many FADECS are there?
2 per engine
One primary, one monitoring
44
How do the FADECS talk to eachother?
The data bus
45
How are the FADECS powered?
Prior to 50% N2 powered by essential
After 50% N2 powered by PMA
46
When is an aircraft determined 'Cold Soaked'
Temperature is 5ºC or less and engines been off for 90 minutes
IGN turned to ON
47
To increase above 83% N2 engine oil must be
40ºC or warmer
48
In regards to a cold engine, it must run at 8 minutes and temperature is
21ºC
49
How many channels are on the stall protection system?
2
50
How many stick shakers are there?
2 Stick Shakers
51
How many channels need to be active for the stick shakers to work?
1 channel
52
How many stick pushers are there?
1 stick pusher
53
How many channels need to be active for the stick pusher to work?
2 channels
54
When landing flaps 22, when do you need to increase VREF by 6kts?
Icing conditions encountered
SPS ice speeds
OAT 10ºC or less at landing
55
How does the landing gear retraction process work?
Lever up, LGEU, HYD SYS 1, DN lock and retraction, Up lock
56
How does the landing gear extension process work?
Lever DN, LGEU, HYD SYS 1, Up lock and extension, DN lock
57
When does the aural 'LND GEAR' Sound
Flaps 45, any altitude, any TLA
Any flap setting, below 1200 AGL, low TLA
58
What happens when you pull the free fall extension for the landing gear?
Pulling up de-preasurizes the system and releases the up locks
59
How many Air to ground sensors are there?
5
4 on the mains, 1 on the nose
60
When do you get the LG AIR/GND FAIL
When there are 4 signals and they do not agree
61
What does the nose gear sensor send signal to during WOW?
Thrust Reverser
Steering Control
Downlock release
62
What is the radius of the steering?
5º with rudder
71º with tiller
63
What is the process of braking?
Pedals, BCU, BCV, HYD SYS 1 (controls outboards 1 and 4) HYD SYS 2 (controls inboards 2 and 3).
64
What does the BCU do?
Monitors brake performance and sends signal to BCV
65
What does the BCV do?
Modulates brake pressure
66
What is the purpose of touchdown protection?
Prevents brake actuation before main wheel speed up
67
When does touchdown protection occur?
3 seconds from last WOW
or wheel speed greater than 50kts
68
What is the purpose of Locked Wheel Protection?
Relives brake pressure if they are not in sync
69
When does Locked Wheel Protection occur?
Wheel speed greater than 30kts
If one wheel is 30% difference, brake relieves pressure
70
What is the purpose of Anti-Skid Protection?
If BCU falls below average speed, pressure is relaxed
71
When does Anti-Skid Protection occur?
Wheel speed greater than 10kts
If 1 of 4 BCU falls below average speed, pressure is relaxed
72
When does thrust activation occur?
When WOW main speed is 25kts or greater
73
When does MAX thrust activation occur?
When WOW from nose gear or mains is 25kts or greater
74
How many locks are on the thrust reversers?
3 Locks
1 and 2 are electro-hydraulic
3 is electric
75
How does thrust reverse activation occur?
Ground sensor + thrust reverser actuation
76
What happens if a thrust reverser deploys in flight?
FADEC commands throttle to IDLE
77
What uses does the emergency brake actuator have?
24 hours of parking brake
6 emergency uses
78
How is the Elevator controlled?
Mechanical
79
Where are the Spring Tabs located and when are they useful?
Inboard
High speeds
80
Where are the Servo Tabs located and when are they useful?
Outboard
High and low speeds
81
How are the Ailerons controlled?
Cables trigger actuators HYD SYS 1 and 2
82
What side is the Torque Tube and Autopilot on for the Ailerons?
Left side
83
What side is the Artificial feel and Roll trim located for Ailerons?
Right side
84
How are the Rudders controlled?
Cables trigger actuators HYD SYS 1 and 2
85
How are the Spoilers and Speed Brakes controlled?
Electrical signal to HYD system
86
How does the flap system work?
FECU (brain) -> FPDU (gearbox with 2 motors)
87
What happens if one of the gearbox motors in the flaps fail?
Flaps will move 50% slower
88
What are the purpose of the Vortex Generators
Located on top of the wings - Prevent airflow seperation
89
What is the purpose of the Vortilons
Direct airflow over the wing, preventing the wingtip from stalling first
90
How does the rudder overboost protection work?
Above 135kts SYS 1 shutsoff
91
When can the speed brakes open?
Lever is set to open
TLR is lower than 50º
Flaps are set 0 to 9
92
When can the ground spoilers deploy?
Aircraft on the ground
Wheel speeds greater than 25kts
TLR lower than 30º
N2 less than 56%
93
How does rudder hardover protection occur?
Force on one pedal greater than 130Lb and rudder deflection greater than 5º opposite direction
94
When does the electric driven hydraulic pump turn on?
1600 PSI
95
What is the purpose of the priority valve?
With engine 1 out, it minimizes flow to gear and prioritizes flow to flight controls
96
Where is Hydraulic accumulator 1 located?
Nose compartment
97
Where is Hydraulic accumulator 2 located?
Behind the right wing
98
What happens during APU GEN OVLD?
Occurs when APU Gen is over 400 amps
Turn BATT 1 off, once the amps decrease - turn back on
99
What are the oil quantities required to report
8: Advise MX
7: Minimum to start
6: Minimum for takeoff
100
When does the oil quantity turn amber?
Less than 6qts
101
What is the Max oil capacity?
12 quarts
102
What is the purpose of the ACOC?
Cools the oil
103
What is the process of the fuel system?
Wing tip, collector box, pressurized by 1 or 3 fuel pumps, check valve, xfeed valve, engine or APU shutoff valve, FPMU or APU
104
What is the Max fuel compacity?
13297LB
105
What is the purpose of the flow ejector pumps?
Keeps collector box full
106
What does selecting the crossfeed valve do?
Opens crossfeed valve and turns off selected fuel pump
107
When do you get the FUEL TRANSFER CRITICAL EICAS
Fuel in the ventral tank, but one wing tank quantity is less than 3130Lb
108
When do you get the FUEL LO LEVEL EICAS
When fuel quantity 460-580Lb
109
When may a through flight setup check be conducted?
Crew keeps the same aircraft
Flight crew members stay onboard
Aircraft remains energized
No maintenance action has been taken
110
When must a terminating check be accomplished?
Aircraft powered down
Aircraft unattended
111
When is the after start check accomplished?
After completion of second engine start?
112
Where are the Gasper Fan locations?
Passenger Outlets
Rear electronics bay
O2 cylinder compartment
113
When do the packs automatically shut off?
Icing conditions below FL246
Go around or E/TO takeoff below 1700 AGL
One Engine below 9700
Pack Overload
Pack Overheat
Engine Start
Essential power or loss of bleed source
114
Where is bleed air tapped from?
9th and 14th Stages
115
When is bleed air tapped from the 9th stage?
Normal operations
116
When is bleed air tapped from the 14th stage?
Low thrust setting
Icing conditions
Cross Bleed Operations
117
What is the purpose of Pitot/Static 3?
Sends data to CPAM
118
When does the 'CABIN CABIN' aural sound happen?
Cabin altitude 9900 +/- 100 feet
119
What happens when you press the DUMP button in manual mode?
Nothing happens
120
What happens when you press the DUMP button in AUTO mode?
Dumps to 14500 or actual altitude
121
What is the purpose of the Static Ports?
Allows outflow valves to open
Provide over and under pressure relief
122
Where are the Static Ports located?
Each side of the aircraft
123
When does the Ice detectors activate?
When there are 0.5mm build up
124
How long does the Ice detection run for?
1 minute
125
What is 'Visible Moisture'
Clouds/Fog when visibility is a mile or less
126
How are the Anti-Ice systems powered?
Pneumatically actuated, electronically commanded
127
How are the Anti-Ice sensors powered?
Electrically heated once engines are running
128
How many Fire Bottles are on the aircraft, and where are they located?
2 for the Engines
1 for APU
129
What EICAS messages are present during the Fire Protection Test?
E1-2 FIRE
APU FIRE
BAGG SMOKE
E1-2 FIRE DET FAIL
APU FIRE DET FAIL
130
What closes when pulling the Fire T Handle?
Hydraulic Shutoff Valve
Engine Bleed Valve
Engine Lip Anti-Ice Valve
Fuel Shutoff Valve
131
How does the Baggage Fire suppression system work?
One is a High Rate Discharge
Other is a metering over 50 minutes
132
How much fuel is burned during 2 engine taxi?
20LB per minute
133
How much fuel is burned during single engine taxi?
12LB per minute
134
How much fuel is burned during first hour of flight?
54LB per minute
135
How much fuel is burned during second hour of flight?
42LB per minute
136
How much fuel is used during a hold?
42LB per minute
137
How do you figure out how long you can hold for?
Fuel burn from PPOS to DEST + Divert Fuel = Leave hold fuel
138
How do you figure out how much fuel you can hold for?
FOB-Leave hold fuel = Fuel available for landing
139
How do you figure out holding time?
Fuel available for holding/42 LBS = Holding time in mins
140
What must be done to fuel the aircraft with passengers on board?
Crewmember at main door in reach of fire extinguisher
Seatbelt sign OFF
Fuel truck may not block access to exits
141
Can we land if braking action is reported as NIL?
No
142
What is the lowest landing RVR?
1800
143
What is the lowest landing visibility?
1/2sm
144
When is 15% additional runway required?
Visibility 3/4sm
4000 RVR
145
Crosswind Limitation for wet and dry?
30kts
146
Crosswind limitation for compacted snow?
25kts
147
Crosswind limitation for standing water/slush?
20kts
148
Crosswind limitation for ice
10kts
149
When is single engine taxi not allowed?
ENG ANTI-ICE required
Ramp/Taxi surface slippery or wet
15% of taxi way is contaminated
Any electric hydraulic pump inop
150
When can you single engine taxi in bad conditions?
If a crossbleed start is required
151
When is ALT T/O-1 not premitted
Contaminated runway
Windshear
Anti-Skid Inop
Slippery
Performance TLR
Flaps 18
152
When is takeoff not authorized during winter ops?
Heavy Ice, Hail 1/4, Heavy Snow
153
What are the MEL categories?
A: As specified
B: 3 days
C: 10 days
D: 120 days
154
When do low visibility procedures take place?
1200 RVR or 1/2sm
155
What is required during low visibility operations?
Takeoff alternate
No single engine taxi
Checklist only when stopped
SMIG charts
156
When is an amended release required?
WX at ALT drops below minimums
Aircraft/PIC change
Unplanned diversion
MEL or new deferred
New altitude burn numbers
Aborted T/O
ATC Reroute
Return to Gate
157
What is required from dispatch for amended release?
Statement
Time
Amendment numbers
Initials
158
What is Marginal weather?
Weather at destination and alternate are within 100 and or 1/2sm visibility
159
What is the purpose of 17347?
Relief from conditional language in the TAF only if the main body of the TAF:
DEST: VIS only with 50% of PIC landing mins
1st ALT: Ceiling and VIS within 50%
2nd ALT: Ceiling and VIS within 100%
160
17347 procedures?
2 alternates listed on release
PIC contact dispatch for weather update
Must be in remarks
CA may not be on high mins
161
What compromises green on green?
Both captain and FO have less than 75 hours in type
162
What must be done while on High Mins
Add 100 and 1/2sm to minimums
Not allowed to use 17347
163
When may the SIC not land
Within 100 hours
Special Airports
Special considerations
Runway wet/contaminated
Runway braking less than good
Crosswind greater than 15kts
Windshear
Visibility 3/4
RVR less than 4000
164
Standard Engine failure procedure
No turns below 1000 feet AFE
165
Standard Simple-Special Engine Failure procedure
Turn with 'VIA' can start at 50 feet AFE
Abnormal FRA
Turns may be below 1000 AFE
Required in VMC up to 1000 AFE
Required in IMC up to 3000 AFE
166
When is a Takeoff Alternate required?
When departure airport is below PIC landing minimums
167
Takeoff Alternate Requirments
Cant be longer than 1 hour in normal cruise
May not exceed 280nm
Based on MATOW, FL150, ISA +20, Engine bleeds on, Anti-Ice on
168
Where does the APU receive fuel?
Tank 2
169
What controls starting and normal operation of APU?
Its own FADEC
170
What does turning the APU knob to 'ON' do?
Energizes FADEC
Opens fuel shutoff valve in the belly of the plane
BIT test
171
APU cool down after first start attempt?
1 minute
172
APU cool down after second start attempt?
1 minute
173
APU cool down after third start attempt?
30 minutes
174
What are the 5 system pages on the MFD?
Fuel
Electrical
Environmental and Ice protection
Hydraulic and Brakes
Takeoff (doors)
175
What causes the takeoff test to sound?
Parking Brake
Ground Spoilers
Flaps not in takeoff
Trim out of green
176
When a cold airplane batteries are turned to AUTO, what happens?
Contactors 1 and 2 close, all buses are energized besides the SHED
177
On the ground, when are all the buses energized?
3 or more generators
GPU powering the aircraft
1 generator and SHED bus OVRD
178
Why is BATT 2 used to start APU?
BC 1 opens allowing sensitive elements to be protected
179
What critical items are on the HOT BUS?
Engine Fire Bottles
180
What happens if a fault occurs in the elecrtical system?
If an overcurrent is detected, the GCU isolates the system
181
What does the AC inverter provide function for?
GPWS
TCAS
Windshear
182
How do you know when a fire bottle has been used?
EICAS FIRE BOTTLE INOP
183
Are the ground spoilers inboard or outboard on the wing?
Inboard
184
When do the ground spoilers actuate?
Airplane on ground
Wheel speeds 25kts or greater
TLA 30º or less
185
When do the speed brakes open?
Speed brake to OPEN
Thrust lever below 50º
Flaps 0 - 9 degrees
186
What is the travel limit for the rudder?
+/- 15º
187
What provides high pressure fuel to the engines?
The FPMU
188
What is the purpose of the FPMU?
Provides high pressure fuel to the engines and to the CVG
189
When does the E1(2) FUEL LO PRESS EICAS occur?
Fuel pressure has dropped below 6.5 PSI
190
What are the LAHSO requirements?
Atleast 6000 feet
Dry Runway
Flaps 45
No tailwind
No windshear reports within 20 minutes
ILS or PAPI/VASI
191
What are the Special Airport considerations?
PIC uses pictoral means
1000 feet above lowest MEA or MOCA and visibility 3sm
192
Minimum Hydraulic Fluid for dispatch?
1 Liter
193
What is the purpose of the Hydraulic pumps in AUTO?
In Auto, they turn on when the hydraulic pressure drops below 1600 PSI or N2 drops below 56.4
194
How are the main Hydraulic pumps driven?
N2 via towershaft on the accessory gearbox
195
When is the pneumatic anti-icing system enabled?
Wheel speeds greater than 25kts
196
What are the surfaces pneumatically heated?
Engine Nacelle
Wing Leading edges
Horizontal stab leading edges
197
Where does the Anti-Ice bleed air come from for the horizontal stab?
Bleed system 1
198
What is the indication of increasing windshear?
Amber
199
What is the indication of decreasing windshear?
Red
200
What is the windshear escape procedure?
Max Thrust
Disengage autopilot/Press TOGA
Pitch up
Maintain configuration
201
What is the purpose of the TBCH
Tuning NAV and COM 2 incase RMU fail
202
How does a pilot know if the RMU is cross tuned?
Yellow
203
How much time is left if EICAS 'OXYGEN LO PRES' Is present?
12 minutes
204
Minimum oxygen for crew for dispatch?
1500 PSI
205
When can turns be made before 1000 feet?
Special Departure Procedure
SID
Weather is 1000 and 3
ATC vectors after radar contact
206
Are landing penalties cumlative?
Yes
207
What is factored landing distance?
Land within 60% of favorable runway and in favorable direction. If not an alternate is needed.
208
What are the 3 possible sources for bleed air?
Engines
APU
Ground Source
209
What systems use bleed air?
Engine Start
Pressurization
Air conditioning
Anti Ice
210
What are the 3 sources for Engine Start?
APU
Cross Bleed
Ground source
211
What is the most perferred source for engine start?
APU
212
What is FUEL/TO?
Fuel uploaded at departure
213
What does BURN fuel include?
Departure to destination
Takeoff, cruise, descent, approach +10nm for vectors
214
What does ALT BURN fuel include?
Overhead destination to furthest alternate
Takeoff, cruise, descent, missed +5nm for vectors
215
What does EXTRA FUEL include?
Fuel/to - taxi - min/to
216
What does RESRV fuel include?
Fuel burn at 45 minutes at normal consumption
1800Lbs or 2298Lbs an hour
217
What does MIN/TO fuel include?
Fuel which must be onboard prior to becoming airborne
Burn, Hold, Alt, Reserve, Missed
218
What does Divert fuel include?
Overhead destination to furthest alternate
Plus 45 minute fuel burn
ALT BURN+RESERVE
219
What is Final Divert Fuel?
Overhead destination to furthest alternate
Plus 30 minute fuel burn (1206Lb).
ALT BURN+30 Minute
220
What is Emergency Fuel?
Landing at destination or alternate with less than 30 minutes of reserve fuel
Gives priority
221
What is Minimum Fuel?
Aircraft can accept little to no delay
222
What is the Cargo Floor Limit?
88 Bags
2646Lbs
223
When is a runway considered wet?
25% of runway is covered with visible dampness of 1/8th of water
224
When is a runway contaminated?
25% of runway is covered frost, slush, ice with 1/8th inch
225
What is balanced field?
Accelerate stop = Accelerate go
Accelerate to V1 and stop or continue to V2 and cross 35AGL end of runway
226
What is unbalanced field?
Accelerate stop does not equal accelerate go
Stopway to use accelerate stop or clearway for accelerate go
227
What is a clearway?
Departure end is 500feet wide, and 1/2 of runway length clear of obstacles
228
What is a stopway?
As wide as runway
Blast pad/EMS
229
What is the Demonstrated (unfactored) landing distance?
Advisory Only - Safety Margins have not been met
Test Pilot numbers
230
What is Factored Landing Distance?
Planning Purposes Only
60% Dry
115% Wet
231
What is the minimum Landing Distance?
Used by pilots
232
What is Method 1 Driftdown?
Starts at V1 ends at Destination
5sm either side of route 1000 foot clearance
233
When is an Alternate Required?
123 Rule
17347
Method 2 Driftdown
Low Vis 3/4sm or 4000 RVR
60/60 rule
Supplemental
Takeoff
Uncontrolled
PIC Discretion
International
Delays
Braking
Marginal
Wind
