Optho/ENT Flashcards

1
Q

Name the derivation for each part of the eye below:
1. Retina
2. Vascular and sclerocorneal layers
3. Lens

A
  1. Neuroectoderm of the forebrain
  2. Mesoderm
  3. Surface ectoderm

Development of the eye begins in the 5th week of gestation

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2
Q

When does the pupil become reactive to light?

A

30 weeks but may not respond until 32 weeks, well developed by 1 month of age

eyelid closes in response to light at 30 weeks

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3
Q

When is optic nerve myelination complete?

A

2 years old

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4
Q

How does innervation control the pupillary reaction?

A

parasympathetic innervation –> constriction
sympathetic innervation –> dilation

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5
Q

What does the pupillary respons to light test for?

A

intact afferent and efferent pathways of cranial nerve III

suggests visual function of subcortex

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6
Q

What does a nonreactive UNILATERAL pupil with increased size suggest?

A

subdural hematoma or other unilateral mass

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7
Q

What does nonreactive BILATERAL pupils with increased size suggest?

A

Late signs of HIE, IVH, infantile botulism

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8
Q

What does the red reflex detect?

A

Retinal blood vessels
Demonstrates lack of obstruction between external corneal surface and retina

<28 weeks may not have red reflex- unclear corneas and vitreos

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9
Q

What is leukocoria and what does it suggest?

A

White reflex
Most commonly caused by cataracts
Other: retinoblastoma, coloboma, ROP, retinal detachment

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10
Q

What is hypotelorism associated with?

A

HIGHLY assoc with holoprosencephaly
Others: Meckel-Gruber, T13, Williams

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11
Q

What is hypertelorism associated with?

A

Apert, Cruzon, cat-eye, CHARGE, Cri du chat, DiGeorge, Holt-Oram, Noonan, Trisomy 8
Teratogentic effects of hydantoin, isoretinoin

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12
Q

Describe Ptosis

A

upper eyelid cannot rise to normal level
Usually caused by dysfunction of the levator palpebral muscle (CN III)
AD
Cranial nerve palsy in Horner’s syndrome

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13
Q

5 stages of ROP

A
  1. Distinct demarcation line separatin transition of vascularized posterior retina and avascular anterior retina
  2. Demarcation line is thickened and elevated
  3. Ridge with extraretinal neovascularization and retinal vessels enter vitreos space
  4. Partial retinal detachment
  5. Complete retinal detachment- severest from

Plus disease: dilated, tortuous vessels that demonstrate advanced vascular disease, always evident before retinal detachment

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14
Q

s

Threshold for treatment in ROP

A

stage 3 with plus disease in zone I and II + 5 contiguous clock hours or 8 total clock hours

50% progress to stage 5 ROP

Risk of retinal detachment decreased to 25% with treatment

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15
Q

Type I prethreshold ROP

A

Zone I: any ROP with plus disease; or stage 3+/- plus disease
Zone 2: stage 2 or 3 with plus disease

Treat

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16
Q

Type 2 prethreshold ROP

A

Zone 1: stage 1 or 2 without plus disease
Zone 2: stage 3 without plus disease

Close observation
15% progress to type I

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17
Q

Prognosis in ROP- infants are at risk for?

A

AMBLYOPIA, REFRACTIVE ERRORS (mostly MYOPIA with severe ROP), STRABISUMUS
If ROP as neonate, increased risk of retinal detachment during adulthood

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18
Q

Infectious causes of cataracts

A

Rubella, toxoplasmosis, HSV, varicella

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19
Q

**In utero radiation exposure can cause _____

20
Q

Etiology of primary glaucoma

A

AR
Males>females
presents at birth

caused by structural abnormality

21
Q

Epidemiology of hearing loss

A

~2% of all infants screened will refer
~15-20% of those will have confirmed hearing loss

22
Q

Most common genetic cause of hearing loss

A

Mutation in the connexin 26 (Cx26) gene
Causes ~20-30% of congenital hearing loss

23
Q

Etiology of hearing loss

A

50% genetic (Cx26 gene most common)
25% acquired (develops secondary to injury to the developing auditory system in intrapartum or perinatal period)
25% unknown

24
Q

What is the most common cause of nonhereditary sensorineural hearing loss?

A

CMV!
10-15% of babies with congenital CMV are symptomatic
60% will have sensorineural hearing loss
5-10% of asymptomatic babies develop sensorineural hearing loss

25
In utero infections associated with hearing loss
CMV Zika Herpes Rubella Syphilis Toxoplasmosis
26
Epidemiology of choanal atresia
1:8,000 births 2:1 females:males More often unilateral (2/3) R>L
27
Differences between nasal encephalocele, glioma and meningocele
Encephalocele: contiguous with CSF lesion may be pulsatile, expand with crying or compression of jugular vein Glioma: connective tissue mass of CNS- NO CONNECTION WITH CNS firm, noncompressible lesions Meningocele: contiguous with CNS, CONTAINS BRAIN TISSUE lesion may be pulsatile, expand with crying or compression of jugular vein
28
Nasolacrimal duct obstruction
MC lacrimal abnormality in infants incomplete canalization of nasal lacrimal duct system- nasal end at level of Hasner's valve Majority mild and resolve spontaneously
29
Distinguishing test to dx pyriform aperture stenosis
inability to pass #6 french catheter anteriorly through nares manifestation of bony overgrowth of the nasal process of the anterior maxilla--> anterior narrowing of nasal airway
30
Describe a lingual thyroid
MC congenital mass Posterior aspect of tongue F>M (4:1) mass of ectopic thyroid tissue- failure of normal thyroid tissue to descend to its usual cervical position when present, only functioning thyroid tissuein 70% Majority asymptomatic Confirm by radionuclide scanning
31
Differences in mucoceles and ranulas
Mucoceles: develop from minor salivary glands, painless asymptomatic, acute smooth swelling, fluctuate in size, rupture spontaneously Ranula: develop from major salivary glands, nontender, mobile, glistening, broad-based englargement with intact overlying mucosa, BLUISH HUE
32
Effects of edema on the neonatal airway
more profound effects because neonatal airway is small 1mm of local edema reduces the glottis to 35% of it's initial size, reduces subglottic airway to 25% of initial size | with age, airway shape changes from conical to cylindrical
33
Which side is vocal cord paralysis more common?
LEFT- recurrent laryngeal nervs has longer/winding course, more susceptibel to trauma 2nd MC congenital laryngeal anomaly Unilateral more common
34
Type of stridor in vocal cord paralysis
Inspiratory may be biphasic
35
Type of stridor in laryngomalacia
INSPIRATORY | improves with prone positioning worse with agitation
36
Type of stridor in tracheomalacia
EXPIRATORY
37
Disease associated with laryngomalacia
GE reflux
38
DD for preauricular lesions
Hemangioma Venous malformation
39
DD for postauricular lesions
Branchial cleft cyst (I)
40
DD for submandibular lesions
Hemangioma Ranula
41
DD for submental and midline neck lesions
Thyroglossal duct cyst Dermoid cyst Venous malformation
42
DD for anterior border of SCM muscle lesions
Branchial clef cyst (I, II, III) Hemangioma Laryngocele
43
DD for supraclavicular/paratracheal lesions
Thyroid mass Parathyroid mass Esophageal diverticulum Lipoma Dermoid cyst
44
DD for supraclavicular lesions
Lipoma
45
Bilateral leukocoria and hearing loss Diagnosis?
Rubella! CMV and toxo have hearing impairment but chorioretinitis not cataracts
46
when is retinal vascularization complete?
nasal side: 36 weeks temporal side: 40 weeks