Opthamology Flashcards

1
Q

Define anisometropia

A

Difference in visual acuity between two eyes

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2
Q

Define papillitis

A

Inflammation of the optic nerve

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3
Q

Define amblyopia

A

defect of central vision processing

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4
Q

How should a history be conducted for eye problems?

A

Double vision
Discharge
Pain
Redness
Flashers and floaters
Distortion
Photophobia

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5
Q

What are the stages of an eye exam?

A

Acuity
Fields
RAPD
Ophthalmology
H-test

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6
Q

When should a pinhole be used for visual acuity testing?

A

If vision is <6/6

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7
Q

What are the values of a snellen chart?

A

6m/60 line

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8
Q

What medication is used to dilate the eye?

A

Tropicaimide

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9
Q

What should always be ruled out when there is sudden vision loss or blurring?

A

Temporal arteritis

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10
Q

What simple iris abnormalities are there?

A

Sectoral iris heterochromia

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11
Q

What is normal IOP?

A

12 - 21 mmHg

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12
Q

What are some key features of acute closed angle glaucoma?

A

IOP >30
large pupil, hazy vision
either after eye drops for dilating or being in a dark room, canal of schlemm
Tx - urgent referral to eye treatment centre
Lie flat, beta blocker, alpha agonist, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
More common is Asian
Not so much photophobia

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13
Q

What glaucoma medications increase uveoscleral outflow?

A

Prostaglandin
Timolol

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14
Q

What are some associations with anterior uveitis?

A

Ankolosing spondylitis
Behcets
Sarcoidosis

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15
Q

What are the features of anterior uveitis?

A

Photophobia
Small pupil
Blurred vision
Pain
Posterior synchenia
Limbal injection
TX - cycoplegics and corticosteroids

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16
Q

What changes are seen in orbital cellulitis?

A

May have proptosis, painful eye movements, loss of VA, loss of colour vision, may have RAPD

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17
Q

How is thyroid eye disease mananged?

A

Treat thyroid dysfunction
In severe cases may need decompression

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18
Q

How can you distinguish between episcleritis and scleritis?

A

Use 10% phenylephrine and if episcleral vessels move then likely episcleritis.

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19
Q

How is episcleritis treated?

A

NSAIDs

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20
Q

What is episcleritis linked with disease wise?

A

SLE, connective tissue disorder

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21
Q

How are corneal ulcers and keratitis managed?

A

Urgent eye clinic referral

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22
Q

How is bacterial conjunctivitis managed?

A

Can be one eye
Use chloramphenicol

23
Q

How is allergic conjunctivitis treated?

A

Olopatadine
Azelastine

24
Q

What is pinguecula and pterygium?

25
What is the most common cause of arteritic AION?
GCA
26
What are the symptoms of GCA?
Jaw claudication,, malaise, jaw/ tongue claudication, chewing pain, tender scalp
27
What is associated with central retinal artery occlusion?
Look for signs of atherosclerosis, atrial fibrillation, heart valve disease, diabetes, smoking and lipids. Pale retina and cherry red spot
28
How is CRAO treated?
If seen within 100 minutes of onset, attempt to increase retinal blood flow either by occular massage or by reducing intraocular hypertension. There is no universally accepted treatment
29
What are some features of diabetic retinopathy?
30
How is CRVO tested?
Flourescein fundus angiography
31
T or F, glaucoma is responsible for 10% of all blind registrations?
True
32
How does glaucoma affect vision?
Reduces peripheral vision
33
What are the risk factors for POAG?
Afro-carribean Family history Age Diabetes
34
How does the NHS manage patients with a family history of glaucoma?
Eye tests every 2 years over the age of 40 with a family history
35
What are the treatments for POAG?
Beta blocker Alpha agonists Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Prostaglandin analogues
36
How does prostaglandin differ from the other treatments for glaucoma?
Prostaglandin increases uveoscleral outflow
37
Which gluacoma medication is avoided in pregnancy?
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
38
What is a cost effective treatment for POAG?
Trabeculoplasty
39
What is normal IOP and cup to disc ratio?
12-21 0.4-0.7
40
What is the leading cause of blindness worldwide?
Cataracts
41
What are some risk factors for cataracts?
Smoking Alcohol UV light Trauma Radiotherapy Myotonic dystrophyv in younger patients
42
T or F, cataracts can affect the red reflex?
Mature cataracts can affect the red reflex
43
What are the types of cataracts?
44
What is the most common sign of cataracts?
Seeing haloes/ dazzling effect around street lights
45
What are the complications of cataracts surgery?
Astigmatism Posterior capsule opacification Endopthalmitis
46
What protection or prophylaxis is there against catarcts?
Stop smoking, use sunglasses and reduce oxidative stress
47
What can be done to assist with posterior capsule opacification
YAG capsulotomy
48
What is the macula?
An area 5.5mm across from the optic disc. It contains the fovea centralis which is very high in cones
49
T or F, ARMD is the leading cause of blindness in the developed world of those over 50?
T
50
What are some risk factors for ARMD?
Deficiency in omega 3 and 6, carotoneoids, and minerals, a lack of exercise, increasing age, family history and smoking
51
What tests can be done to identify macular degeneration?
OTC scan Flourescein fundus angiography Opthalmoscopy
52
What are the types of retinal detachment?
53
What are the features of retinal detachment?
Floaters, flashers, field loss, fall in vision
54
List treatments for retinal detachment
Laser surgery: Laser beam is used to burn the retinal tear that further welds into underlying tissue. Freezing (Cryopexy): Freezing probe is directly applied over the tear causing a scar that helps retina secure to the eye wall. Pneumatic retinopexy: In the case of small tear, a tiny gas bubble is inserted into the vitreous that will seal the tear. Scleral buckle: A silicon band is sewed around the white of eye. This pushes it towards the tear until it heals. Vitrectomy: It is required in case of large tears where vitreous is removed and replaced with saline solution.