Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What are risk factors for IHH?

A

obesity
female sex
pregnancy
drugs
combined oral contraceptive pill
steroids
tetracyclines
retinoids (isotretinoin, tretinoin) / vitamin A
lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the treatments for IHH?

A

Weight loss and carbonic anhydrase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is syringomyelia?

A

Syringomyelia classically presents with cape-like loss of pain and temperature sensation due to compression of the spinothalamic tract fibres decussating in the anterior white commissure of the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are two causes of pinpoint pupils?

A

Pontine haemorrhage
Opioid overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is a stroke managed?

A

ROSIER (recognition of stroke in the emergency room)
FAST survey
Blood glucose check
CT head non contrast
If ischaemic offer thrombolysis within 4.5 hours or thrombectomy 4-6 h
Admit to stroke ward for rehabilitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is TIA managed?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When is thrombectomy considered?

A

Thrombectomy is considered in patients with a confirmed blockage of the proximal anterior circulation or proximal posterior circulation. It may be considered within 24 hours of the symptom onset and alongside IV thrombolysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is given for secondary prevention of stroke?

A

Clopidogrel 75mg once daily (alternatively aspirin plus dipyridamole)
Atorvastatin 20-80mg (not started immediately – usually delayed at least 48 hours)
Blood pressure and diabetes control
Addressing modifiable risk factors (e.g., smoking, obesity and exercise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who is involved in the MDT for stroke?

A

Stroke physicians
Nurses
Speech and language (SALT) to assess swallowing
Dieticians in those at risk of malnutrition
Physiotherapy
Occupational therapy
Social services
Optometry and ophthalmology
Psychology
Orthotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the ROSIER score?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the Oxford Bamford classification?

A

Homonymous hemianopia
Unilateral
Higher symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the features of epidural haematoma?

A

bi-convex shape and limited by the cranial sutures
Lucid period
Might seem to get better then worse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the features of subdural haematoma?

A

Crescent shape
Slow developing
Bridging veins
Seen in alcoholics and atrophy, older patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the treatment for haemorrhagic stroke?

A

Immediate imaging (e.g., CT head) is required to establish the diagnosis.
Bloods should include a full blood count (for platelets) and a coagulation screen.

Admission to a specialist stroke centre
Discuss with a specialist neurosurgical centre to consider surgical treatment
Consider intubation, ventilation and intensive care if they have reduced consciousness
Correct any clotting abnormality (e.g., platelet transfusions or vitamin K for warfarin)
Correct severe hypertension but avoid hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the guideline for warfarin?

A

Major bleeding - stop warfarin, vitamin K and PCC
>8 (mild bleeding) IV vitamin K
>8 (no bleeding) oral vitamin k
<5-8 (some bleeding) IV vitamin K
<5-8 (no bleeding) - withhold 1-2 doses and recheck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the symptoms of SAH?

A

Sudden thunderclap occipital headache
Neck stiffness
Photophobia
Vomiting
Neurological symptoms (e.g., visual changes, dysphasia, focal weakness, seizures and reduced consciousness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some associated for SAH?

A

Family history
Cocaine use
Sickle cell anaemia
Connective tissue disorders (e.g., Marfan syndrome or Ehlers-Danlos syndrome)
Neurofibromatosis
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What investigations are done for SAH?

A

CT

Lumbar puncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When is a CT less reliable for SAH?

A

6 hours after symptoms for SAH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When should a lumbar puncture be done for SAH?

A

12 hours after onset of symptoms to check for xanthochromia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is SAH managed?

A

Nimodipine
NORSE
Neurosurgery = coiling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is key for MS?

A

A characteristic feature of MS is that lesions vary in location and are “disseminated in time and space”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How is MS managed?

A

MDT support
DMT
Steroids for relapses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is MS investigated?

A

MRI
Evoked potentials
Lumbar punctures - oligoclonal bands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are some of the symptoms of MS?
Intranuclear ophthalmoplegia Marcus Gunn Lhermitte's sign Uthoff sign Diplopia Oscillopsia Nystagmus
26
What is intranuclear opthalmoplegia?
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus. The nerve fibres of the medial longitudinal fasciculus connect the cranial nerve nuclei (“internuclear”) that control eye movements (the 3rd, 4th and 6th cranial nerve nuclei). These fibres are responsible for coordinating the eye movements to ensure the eyes move together.
27
What is the triad of symptoms in Parkinson's?
Pill rolling tremor Bradykinesia Cogwheel rigidity
28
What is the frequency of tremor in Parkinson's?
4-6 Hz
29
What is the frequency of tremor in Essential tremor?
6-12Hz
30
What are the features of Essential tremor?
Fine tremor (6-12 Hz) Symmetrical More prominent with voluntary movement Worse when tired, stressed or after caffeine Improved by alcohol Absent during sleep
31
How is Essential tremor managed?
Propranolol (a non-selective beta blocker) Primidone (a barbiturate anti-epileptic medication)
32
What is complex regional pain?
33
What is LEMS and how is it normally managed?
Excluding underlying malignancy (e.g., small-cell lung cancer) is essential. Amifampridine works by blocking voltage-gated potassium channels in the presynaptic membrane, which in turn prolongs the depolarisation of the cell membrane and assists calcium channels in carrying out their action. Other options include: Pyridostigmine (cholinesterase inhibitor) Immunosuppressants (e.g., prednisolone or azathioprine) IV immunoglobulins Plasmapheresis
34
What are the causes of myasthenia gravis?
Anti AchR antibodies Anti - Muscle-specific kinase (MuSK) antibodies Anti- Low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein 4 (LRP4) antibodies MuSK and LRP4 are important proteins for the creation and organisation of the acetylcholine receptor. Destruction of these proteins leads to inadequate acetylcholine receptors.
35
What are the features of myasthenia gravis?
The symptoms most affect the proximal muscles of the limbs and small muscles of the head and neck, with: Difficulty climbing stairs, standing from a seat or raising their hands above their head Extraocular muscle weakness, causing double vision (diplopia) Eyelid weakness, causing drooping of the eyelids (ptosis) Weakness in facial movements Difficulty with swallowing Fatigue in the jaw when chewing Slurred speech
36
What tests are done for myaesthenia gravis?
Antibody tests look for: AChR antibodies (around 85%) MuSK antibodies (less than 10%) LRP4 antibodies (less than 5%) A CT or MRI of the thymus gland is used to look for a thymoma. The edrophonium test can be helpful where there is doubt about the diagnosis.
37
What would be expected in the endrophonium test?
Relieving the problem temporarily
38
What does the ice test show for myasthenia gravis?
39
How is myastenia gravis treated + myasthenic crisis?
ment options include: Pyridostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor that prolongs the action of acetylcholine and improves symptoms Immunosuppression (e.g., prednisolone or azathioprine) suppresses the production of antibodies Thymectomy can improve symptoms, even in patients without a thymoma Rituximab (a monoclonal antibody against B cells) is considered where other treatments fail Myasthenic Crisis Myasthenic crisis is a potentially life-threatening complication of myasthenia gravis. It causes an acute worsening of symptoms, often triggered by another illness, such as a respiratory tract infection. Respiratory muscle weakness can lead to respiratory failure. Patients may require non-invasive ventilation or mechanical ventilation. Treatment is with IV immunoglobulins and plasmapheresis.
40
What are some features of tuberous sclerosus?
41
What is the pathophysiology of tuberous sclerosus?
42
What are the characteristics of neurofibromatosis?
Cafe au lait Relative affected Axillary freckles Bone dysplasia Iris harmatomas (Lisch nodules) Neurofibromas Gliomas
43
How is neurofibromatosis inherited?
Autosomal dominant Chromosome 17 Von Recklinhausen Chromosome 22
44
How is neurofibromatomas managed?
Bevacizumab antiVEGF
45
How is MS investigated?
VEPs MRI brain with diffusion-weighted imaging Oligoclonal bands
46
What is a red flag for SAH?
A sudden-onset headache, reaching maximum intensity within 5 minutes, is a red flag requiring further evaluation to exclude a subarachnoid haemorrhage
47
What is Janz syndrome?
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (Janz syndrome) typical onset is in the teenage years, more common in girls features: infrequent generalized seizures, often in morning//following sleep deprivation daytime absences sudden, shock-like myoclonic seizure (these may develop before seizures) treatment: usually good response to sodium valproate
48
What is a benign rolandic seizure?
Benign rolandic epilepsy most common in childhood, more common in males features: paraesthesia (e.g. unilateral face), usually on waking up
49
What is West Syndrome?
Jack knife or Salaam seizure Hyparrythmias Steroids and vigabatrin
50
What are the features of Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus?
Dementia, incontinence, gait disturbance
51
What is Weber's syndrome?
Weber's syndrome is a form of midbrain stroke characterised by the an ipsilateral CN III palsy and contralateral hemiparesis
52
How is a TIA managed?
A patient who presents to their GP within 7 days of a clinically suspected TIA should have 300mg aspirin immediately (and be referred for specialist review within 24h)
53
What is a lacunar stroke?
involves perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus and basal ganglia pure motor or sensory loss
54
What is CVST?
55
What are the symptoms of CSVT?
Common features headache (may be sudden onset) nausea & vomiting reduced consciousness
56
What investigations are done for CSVT?
Investigation MRI venography is the gold standard CT venography is an alternative non-contrast CT head is normal in around 70% of patients D-dimer levels may be elevated
57
What is the management for CVST?
anticoagulation typically with low molecular weight heparin acutely warfarin is still generally used for longer term anticoagulation
58
What are the types of sinus venous thrombosis?
Sagittal sinus thrombosis may present with seizures and hemiplegia parasagittal biparietal or bifrontal haemorrhagic infarctions are sometimes seen 'empty delta sign' seen on venography Cavernous sinus thrombosis other causes of cavernous sinus syndrome: local infection (e.g. sinusitis), neoplasia, trauma periorbital oedema ophthalmoplegia: 6th nerve damage typically occurs before 3rd & 4th trigeminal nerve involvement may lead to hyperaesthesia of upper face and eye pain central retinal vein thrombosis Lateral sinus thrombosis 6th and 7th cranial nerve palsies
59
Why is cyclizine sometimes contraindicated in people with Parkinson's?
dry mouth, blurred vision and urinary retention. Moreover, Cyclizine may potentially worsen cognitive function i
60
What are the features of Miller Fisher syndrome?
ophthalmoplegia, areflexia and ataxia.
61
What type of consciousness is associated with subdural haematoma?
Fluctuating consciousness = subdural haemorrhage
62
How should a TIA be managed in a patient on DOAC or warfarin?
Admission for a non-contrast CT head, only aspirin and 24 hours if not on medication
63
What is AICA?
Sudden onset vertigo and vomiting, ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness - anterior inferior cerebellar artery
64
What are the complications of meningitis?
sensorineural hearing loss (most common) seizures focal neurological deficit infective sepsis intracerebral abscess pressure brain herniation hydrocephalus
65
How is paroxysmal hemicrania managed?
Paroxysmal hemicrania is completely responsive to treatment with indomethacin
66
What is paroxsymal hemicrania?
Paroxysmal hemicrania (PH) is defined by attacks of severe, unilateral headache, usually in the orbital, supraorbital or temporal region. These attacks are often associated with autonomic features, usually last less than 30 minutes and can occur multiple times a day. PH sits within the group of disorders called trigeminal autonomic cephalgias which also contains cluster headache, a condition which shares many features with PH. Importantly, PH is completely responsive to treatment with indomethacin.
67
What is given if a patient cannot tolerate clopidogrel as second line?
If clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated, given aspirin and modified release dipyramidole for secondary prevention following stroke
68
What are the features of Shy Drager syndrome?
Shy-Drager syndrome is a type of multiple system atrophy. Features parkinsonism autonomic disturbance erectile dysfunction: often an early feature postural hypotension atonic bladder cerebellar signs
69
What is foot drop associated with?
'Foot drop' - ?common peroneal nerve lesion
70
What is a surgical cranial nerve III palsy linked to?
Painful third nerve palsy = posterior communicating artery aneurysm
71
What are the features of CJD?
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is characterised by rapid onset dementia and myoclonus
72
What is first like investigation for narcolepsy?
The investigation of choice for narcolepsy is multiple sleep latency EEG
73
How long do cluster headaches last?
The correct answer is 15 minutes to 2 hours.
74
What can be used to differentiate between seizures and pseudoseizures?
Prolactin can be used to differentiate between a true seizure and a pseudoseizure
75
What is the main prophylaxis in migraine?
PTA - propanolol, topirimate and amytriptalline
76
What is the driving restriction following TIA?
TIA = T1A = 1 MONTH
77
How are AEDs reduced or stopped?
Seizure free for 2 years and reduce AEDs over 2-3 months
78
What are the effects of valproate?
P450 inhibitor gastrointestinal: nausea increased appetite and weight gain alopecia: regrowth may be curly ataxia tremor hepatotoxicity pancreatitis thrombocytopaenia hyponatraemia
79
What is amaurosis fugax?
Amaurosis fugax is a form of stroke that affects the retinal/ophthalmic artery
80
What sign might be seen in acute ischaemic stroke?
In acute ischaemic stroke, a 'hyperdense artery' sign may be seen on CT - this is usually visible immediately in contrast to changes in the parenchyma
81
When is the empty delta sign seen?
Sagittal sinus thrombosis - 'empty delta sign' seen on venography
82
How is Bell's palsy managed?
All patients with a Bell's palsy should be given oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset
83
What are causes of facial nerve palsy?
AIDS (A) Lyme disease (LEXANDER graham) Bell's palsy (BELL) Sarcoidosis (S) Tumour (T) Diabetes (D) Surgery (s)
84
What is used first line in MS for stiffness?
Baclofen and gabapentin are first-line for spasticity in multiple sclerosis
85
Name the medications that exacerbate mysasthenia gravis
penicillamine quinidine, procainamide beta-blockers lithium phenytoin antibiotics: gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, tetracyclines
86
What is the management of ischaemic stroke?
CT - dark and hypodense Thrombolysis 4.5 hours The standard target time for thrombectomy in acute ischaemic stroke is 6 hours
87
What is Wallenburg syndrome?
Lateral medullary syndrome (posterior inferior cerebellar artery) aka Wallenberg's syndrome ipsilateral: ataxia, nystagmus, dysphagia, facial numbness, cranial nerve palsy e.g. Horner's contralateral: limb sensory loss
88
At what level and above does autonomic dysreflexia occur at?
Autonomic dysreflexia can only occur if the spinal cord injury occurs above the T6 level
89
What nerves are found at the cerebellopontine angle?
Cranial nerves V, VII and VIII are affected in vestibular schwannomas
90
What does a posterior circulation stroke cause?
Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia - posterior cerebral artery
91
What is used in patients that cannot swallow levodopa with PD?
If a patient with Parkinson's disease cannot take levodopa orally, they can be given a dopamine agonist patch as rescue medication to prevent acute dystonia
92
How is NMS treated?
stop antipsychotic patients should be transferred to a medical ward if they are on a psychiatric ward and often they are nursed in intensive care units IV fluids to prevent renal failure dantrolene may be useful in selected cases thought to work by decreasing excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle by binding to the ryanodine receptor, and decreasing the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum bromocriptine, dopamine agonist, may also be used
93
What is a side effect of triptans?
Triptans may cause tightness of the throat and chest
94
What are the side effects of phenytoin?
common: gingival hyperplasia (secondary to increased expression of platelet derived growth factor, PDGF), hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness megaloblastic anaemia (secondary to altered folate metabolism) peripheral neuropathy enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia lymphadenopathy dyskinesia
95
What are some symptoms of IIH?
headache blurred vision papilloedema (usually present) enlarged blind spot sixth nerve palsy may be present
96
Suggest how to assess what side has been affected in internuclear opthalmoplegia.
failure to adduct on the affected side and nystagmus on the contralateral side i.e. right sided opthalmoplegia = right sided inability to adduct eye and contralateral nystagmus
97
What is Weber's syndrome?
Ipsilateral cranial nerve three palsy along with contralateral weakness.
98
What is the most common cause of a lower motor neurone lesion of the facial nerve?
ALexander Graham Bell has STDs. Remember AIDS Lyme disease Bell's palsy (most likely) Sarcoidosis Tumours Diabetes
99
What are the symptoms of facial nerve palsy?
Acute (but not sudden) onset of unilateral lower motor neuron facial weakness Mild to moderate postauricular otalgia, which may precede the paralysis. Hyperacusis Nervus intermedius symptoms, such as altered taste and dry eyes/mouth. Patients may subjectively describe "numbness" or "heaviness" without objective facial somatosensory disturbances.
100
How does a C6 nerve palsy present?
Motor symptoms as most often reduced power with elbow flexion, wrist extension and forearm supination
101
What needs to be monitored in GBS?
Forced vital capacity
102
What are the symptoms of anterior spinal artery infarct?
Loss of pain sensation (analgesia) Loss of temperature sensation (thermoanesthesia) Motor function impairment Loss of autonomic functions
103
What does the management of ASAI involve?
Pain control Physiotherapy for motor function improvement Management of autonomic dysfunctions Skin care for preventing pressure sores
104
What are the causes of autonomic neuropathy?
Alcohol, amyloidosis, HIV B12 deficiency Chemotherapies Diabetes (50%) Everything else: lyme disease, sarcoidosis, amyloidosis
105
How is autonomic neuropathy/ peripheral neuropathy treated and investigated?
Investigate and treat the cause Supportive management such as better blood pressure control, pain relief
106
Define Bell's palsy
Bell's palsy is an idiopathic syndrome characterized by unilateral, lower motor neuron facial weakness, without sparing the extraocular muscles and muscles of mastication. It presents with mild-moderate postauricular otalgia, hyperacusis (rare), and nervus intermedius symptoms such as altered taste and dry eyes/mouth.
107
What is thought to be the cause of Bell's palsy?
HSV, EBV and VZV re-activation
108
How is Bell's palsy investigated?
Full blood count (FBC) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) or C-reactive protein (CRP) Viral serology (e.g. HSV-1, EBV, VZV) Lyme serology (if suggestive symptoms or exposure) Otoscopy to see if any vesicular lesions in external auditory meatus Electromyography (EMG) Imaging studies (e.g., magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT))
109
What causes Erb's palsy and Klumpke's palsy?
Erb's palsy: Involving damage to the C5-C6 nerve roots. Traumatic birth Klumpke's palsy: Involving damage to the C8-T1 nerve roots. Radiotherapy in axilla for breast cancer
110
What are the features of Brown Seqard?
Ipsilateral hemiplegia Ipsilateral loss of proprioception and vibration Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation
111
What are the features of pseudobulbar palsy?
Upper motor neurone disease Brisk reflex, breathy speech Emotional lability No nasal speech (because weaker in LMN) Spastic speech
112
What is a bulbar palsy?
Concerned with CN IX, X, XI
113
What are the causes of bulbar palsy?
Motor neurone disease: Notably, the progressive bulbar palsy variant. Myasthenia gravis: An autoimmune neuromuscular disorder. Guillain-Barré syndrome: An acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy. Brainstem stroke: Particularly the lateral medullary syndrome or Wallenberg's syndrome. Syringobulbia: A rare neurologic condition characterized by a fluid-filled cavity (syrinx) within the spinal cord.
114
What are the causes of cerebellar disease?
Inherited i.e. Fredrich's ataxia, ataxia telangietasia and Joubert's MS Alcohol Vascular Infection Space occupying lesion
115
What are the symptoms for cerebellar disease?
Dysdiadokinesia Ataxia Nystagmus Intention tremor Stocatto speech Hypotonia
116
What are the symptoms of cervical spondylosis?
Neck pain Radiculopathy resulting from compression of nerve roots at the site of foraminal exit, leading to flaccid upper limb paresis Myelopathy, thought to be due to the dynamic stretch of the spinal cord over impinging spinal osteophytes, manifesting as variable sensory changes (sometimes including the Lhermitte phenomenon) and spastic paraparesis Bladder and bowel disturbance, though this is rare
117
What is another name for Hereditary Motor and Sensory Neuropathy?
hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy (HMSN) is also known as Charcot Mary Tooth PMP22 Longest nerves affected first - hence feet AD Champagne bottle leg, pes cavus and claw hand
118
What are the features of CJD?
Dementia, psychiatric impairment and myoclonus PRNP gene
119
What are the 6 D's of charcot's arthropathy?
Destruction, Deformity, Degeneration, Dense bones, Debris, and Dislocation
120
What are some causes of dystonias?
Rare genetic disease like Flatau Sterling Cervical torticollis Anti-dopaminergic medications
121
What are the symptoms of encephalitis?
Fever Flu-like prodromal illness Seizures Focal neurological deficits Headaches Behavioural changes
122
What is the most common cause of encephalitis?
HSV-1
123
What are the driving restriction/ DVLA guidelines for those with seizures or epilepsy?
6 months - 1 off seizure 12 months - epilepsy 5 years - 1 off seizure as a lorry driver 10 years - epilepsy
124
What is associated with an extradural haematoma?
Lentiform Lucid Lemon shape
125
What is L5 rAdIculopathy characterised by?
Loss of inversion of ankle inversion and hip abduction
126
What is the ulnar paradox?
127
What is Freidrich's ataxia?
128
Compare and contrast ataxia telangitasia and Freidrich's ataxia
129
What is Devic's disease?
Neuromyelitis optica
130
What are the variants of GBS?
131
Describe the testing for GBS
Monitoring of forced vital capacity (FVC) for respiratory muscle involvement Cardiac monitoring for autonomic instability Blood tests, including arterial blood gas (ABG) Serological tests: Anti-ganglioside antibodies Lumbar puncture: may show albuminocytological dissociation Nerve conduction studies: may show prolongation or loss of the F wave Identification of the underlying cause: stool cultures, serology, CSF virology
132
How is GBS managed?
Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) over a 5-day course Plasmapheresis, which has similar efficacy to IVIG but is associated with more side effects.
133
What is the criteria for a CT head after 1 hour?
<13 GCS <15 GCS after 2 hours 1 episode of vomiting Open or depressed skull fracture Focal neurology
134
What is the criteria for a CT after 6 hours?
4A's age anticoagulant amnesia a worrying mechanism of fall
135
Outline the contraindications for LP
Focal neurology Instability Neoplasm Coagulation disorder ICP raised Skin infection
136
What is HSP?
Hereditary spastic paresis is a spectrum of conditions that cause UMN and LMN disease The main clinical features involve progressive spasticity and weakness of the legs due to degeneration of the axonal tracts of the corticospinal pathway in the spinal cord. Requires botulinum and baclofen for spasticity
137
What is Horner's syndrome?
Horner's syndrome is a lesion that affects the sympathetic chain. It can either be central (first-order) like a CVA, (second-order) or third order. Pancoast for example, only cause unilateral Horner's and do not affect the limbs or upper body.
138
Which type of Horner's syndrome does not involve anhidrosis?
Carotid dissection or third order neurones. In third order neurone lesions, there is miosis and ptosis but no anhydrosis, as the nerves supplying the sweat glands in the face have exited before reaching the internal carotid plexus. Therefore lesions affecting the carotid plexus, as in this case with internal carotid artery dissection, will have the clinical presentation of a third order Horner's lesion. (Prince Andrew has pancoast, but not carotid dissection)
139
How can localisation of the lesion be identified in Horner's syndrome?
First order = upper limb, and unilateral PAM Second order = unilateral PAM Third order = ptosis and anhidrosis, but not anhidrosis
140
Give examples of the pathologies involved in first order neurone Horner's syndrome?
First order neurone - stroke or tumour Syringomyelia Multiple sclerosis Encephalitis Brain tumors Lateral medullary syndrome
141
Give examples of the pathologies involved in second order neurone Horner's syndrome?
Second order Pancoast Cervical rib traction on stellate ganglion Thyroid carcinoma Thyroidectomy Goiter Bronchogenic carcinoma of the superior fissure (Pancoast tumor) on apex of lung Klumpke paralysis Trauma - base of neck, usually blunt trauma, sometimes surgery. As a complication of tube thoracostomy Thoracic aortic aneurysm
142
What causes third order Horner's?
Carotid artery dissection, stenting Cluster headache - combination termed Horton's headache An episode of Horner's syndrome may occur during a migraine attack and be relieved afterwards[6] Cavernous sinus thrombosis Middle ear infection
143
What is involved in the treatment of hydrocephalus?
This is called a ventriculoperitoneal or ventriculoatrial shunt.
144
Discuss IIH
IIH is also known as pseudotumor cerebrii Opening pressure >25 Lithium, OCP, steroids, tetracyclines, lymecycline, vitamin A are risk factors Headaches are worse in the morning Bilateral, non pulsatile headaches Bending forward False localising sign Visual disturbances which can result in blindness Treat with weight loss, azetolzolamide, topirimate, shunting
145
What changes are seen in paplidema?
Affected eye cannot adduct Other eye undergoes nystagmus
146
What are some associations with migraine?
Unilateral throbbing headache, potentially preceded by an aura (visual or sensory) Headache duration of 4-72 hours Association with photophobia and phonophobia Possible triggers such as oral contraceptives or specific foods (e.g., chocolate)
147
What is the false localising sign?
Cranial nerve VI palsy due to its location
148
What is IVT?
Intracerebral venous thrombosis Hypercoagulable states like pregnancy, COCP, dehydration and smoking are risk factors. Sagittal sinus thrombosis = empty delta sign Cavernous sinus thrombosis = chemosis, exopthalmos
149
When is thrombectomy indicated?
Certain posterior and anterior circulation strokes
150
What is Vernet's syndrome?
151
What is thoracic outlet syndrome?
152
How is LEMS managed?
Underlying cause management: Cancer treatment options (chemotherapy, radiation, surgery) are required if LEMS is associated with a malignancy. Symptom management: Amifampridine can be used, which blocks pre-synaptic potassium channels in the nerve terminals, augmenting the release of acetylcholine. Severe respiratory or bulbar weakness: Management includes intubation and ventilation, along with plasma exchange or intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG).
153
How is a head injury managed?
154
What is the Munro Kellie doctrine?
Monro–Kellie doctrine when understanding raised intracranial pressure. It states that the sum of the volume of brain tissue, cerebrospinal fluid and intracranial blood is constant (due to the fixed volume of the skull)
155
What is the Brudisnki and Kernig's sign?
156
What are the signs of meningitis?
Headache Fever Neck stiffness Photophobia Nausea and vomiting Focal neurology Seizures Reduced conscious level Features of overwhelming sepsis, such as non-blanching petechial rash indicative of impending Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC).
157
What is meralgia parasthetica?
Compression or entrapment of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve under the inguinal ligament. Direct injury to the nerve. Conditions or factors that increase pressure on the nerve such as obesity, tight clothing or belts, pregnancy, ascites, and surgical procedures or trauma involving the inguinal area.
158
What is mononeuritis multiplex?
Mononeuritis multiplex, occasionally termed polyneuritis multiplex, is a type of peripheral neuropathy which is characterized by simultaneous or sequential involvement of individual non-contiguous nerve trunks
159
What are the causes of mononeuritis multiplex?
Diabetes mellitus Vasculitis: polyarteritis nodosa, granulomatosis with polyangitis, and eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis Immune-mediated diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus Infections: leprosy, Lyme disease, Parvovirus B19, HIV Sarcoidosis Cryoglobulinaemia Reactions to exposure to chemical agents, including trichloroethylene and dapsone Rarely, following the sting of certain jellyfish, such as the sea nettle
160
What is the pathophysiology of MND?
MND is associated with misfolding of the TDP-43 protein in many cases. It can be an inherited condition, with several associated genes yet to be identified. About 2% of total cases are associated with a mutation in the SOD-1 gene.
161
How is MND managed?
Riluzole NIV MDT. Providing pain relief with simple analgesia and treating spasticity and contractures with baclofen and botox injections. Using anticholinergics to manage drooling. Supporting feeding via an NG or PEG tube as bulbar disease progresses. Discussing advanced care planning early in disease progression to minimise distress and complications.
162
What is myotonic dystrophy?
163
What is the difference between jugular outlet and pseudobulbar palsy?
Jugular outlet affects 9, 10, 11 Pseudobular affects 9, 10 and 12
164
What are the causes of sensory neuropathy?
Alcohol B12/Folate Chronic Renal Failure Diabetes Mellitus Everything Else (!) - encompassing Vasculitis and Paraneoplastic syndromes
165
What is pyramidal weakness?
166
What are the types of gait?
167
What are some types of paresis?
168
How is SCC managed?
Radiation therapy to reduce the tumour burden and alleviate pressure on the spinal cord. Surgical decompression: This should be performed urgently, typically within 48 hours. Administration of dexamethasone: Indicated in patients with demonstrated malignancy on MRI or those with high clinical suspicion, given at 16 mg daily in divided doses, along with proton pump inhibitors (PPI)
169
Contraindications to thrombolysis
170
What is the main area for thrombectomy to work?
Proximal middle cerebral artery
171
T or F, in cerebellar disease, a Romberg's test is negative?
T
172
What is the treatment for CSVT/ IVT?
LMWH
173
T or F, urinary copper is high in wilsons?
T
174
What makes the three antibodies are often seen: anti-Yo, anti-Tr and mGluR1.
SCLC. These cause cerebellar degeneration
175
How should triptans be taken in migraine?
Sumatriptan only once the headache starts and not during the aura phase Avoid in heart disease
176
What should be used if a patient cannot have IV ceftriaxone?
Give IV chloramphenicol