Opthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 7 steps in an ophthalmic examination

A

history
distance examination
tear test and corneoconjuncitva examination
adenexa and anterior segment examination
intraocular pressure measurement and pupil dilation
posterior segment examination after pupil diltion
additional techniques ifndicated

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2
Q

4 types of apetures on an ophthalmoscope

A

circle - direct illumintion or retro-illumination
slit beam - assess curvature of cornea and depth of anterior chamber
grid - assess location and size of a lesion
half-light - focuses light so can look at unaffected areas of the eye

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3
Q

what types of filters can you use on an ophthalmoscope

A

white light - direct illumination
red-freee light - differentiate vessels
blue cobalt - elicit ulceration and corneal erosions

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4
Q

what is meant by schedule A under the BVA eye scheme and what breeds does this include

A

conditions that are confirmed to be inherited - labradors and cocker spaniels

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5
Q

5 things to look for on a distance examination

A

attitude of the animal
facial symmetry and ocular discharge
eyelids - size, colour etc eyeballs - position and size
pupils response to light

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6
Q

what is meant by a neuro-ophthalmic examination

A

pbserving the animals movement in their environment through visual testing (menace etc)

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7
Q

what is meant by strabismus

A

deviation from the usual visual axis

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8
Q

what is anisocoria

A

different size of pupils

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9
Q

what is mydrisasis and miosis

A

dilation of pupil and constriction of the pupils

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10
Q

what is a normal reading for a dog with schirmer tear test

A

greater than 15mm/min

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11
Q

what is the problem with the shcirmer tear test

A

measures both basal and reflex tear production

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12
Q

how to you assess the quality of the tears

A

tear break up time - using fluorescine to measure time tears remain on the cornea

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13
Q

how long should the tear break up time be

A

at least 20 seconds

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14
Q

what lens do you use for a close direct examination

A

converging - green or black with slit beam aperture

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15
Q

what are the 3 main features to look for at close direct examination

A

cornea, anterior lens capsule and posterior lens capsule

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16
Q

what is a normal measurement for intraocular pressure

A

10-25mmHg

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17
Q

when would you test the intraocular pressure

A

before dilating the pupils

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18
Q

name the 7 eye muscles

A
lateral rectus
superior rectus 
medial rectus 
inferior rectus 
superior oblique 
inferior oblique 
retractor bulbi
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19
Q

what is exophalmos

A

protrusion of the eyeball

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20
Q

what is enophthalmos

A

recession of the eyeball into the orbit - sunken eyes

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21
Q

whats the main cause of exopthalmos

A

retrobulbar space occupying lesioncaused by infection, foreign body, trauma or haematogenous infection

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22
Q

how would you treat exopthalmos

A

drainage, antibiotics and NSAIDs

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23
Q

what is proptosis and what breeds are predisposed

A

eyelides become entrapped at the back of the globe - cocker spaniels

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24
Q

2 treatment options for globe proptosis

A

enucleation or transpalpebral approach

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25
Q

what are 4 possible causes of enophthalmos

A

ocular pain
decreased orbital content - reduced fat due to starvation or dehydration
certain breeds - dolciocephalic
damage to sympathetic nerves - claude bernard horners syndrome

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26
Q

what is meant by macropalpebral fissure

A

abnormally large opening between the eyelids

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27
Q

what is meant by blepherospasm

A

tight closure of the eyelids

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28
Q

what is lagopthalmos

A

incomplete closure of the eyelids so the tear film is not spread scross the entire cornea

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29
Q

what are possible consequences of lagopthalmos

A

conjunctivitis, keratitis and corneal vascularisation

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30
Q

treatment for lagopthalmos

A

lubrication and antibacterial drugs

31
Q

what size is a normal eye considered to be

A

33-35 cm

32
Q

what are treatment options for oversized eyes

A

blepheroplasty and eyelid shortening

33
Q

what breeds are prone to oversized eyes

A

bloodhounds, great danes, boxers

34
Q

what is trichiasis

A

hairs directed towards the cornea due to skin abnormality

35
Q

what is distichiasis

A

cilia emerging from the meibomian gland orifice that CAN come into contact with the cornea

36
Q

what is ectopic cilia

A

cilia from the meibomian gland but emerge from the palpebral conjuncitva and are always in contact with the cornea

37
Q

what type of epithelium is the conjunctiva

A

keratinised

38
Q

what is hyperaemia

A

redness and inflammation due to increased blood supply

39
Q

what is blepharospasm

A

tight closure of eyelids in response to pain

40
Q

what is the correct term for dry eye

A

keratoconjunctivitis sicca

41
Q

3 types of primary conjunctivitis in dogs

A

allergic, follicular and bacterial or parisitic

42
Q

main differences between un complicated and complicated conjunctivitis

A

shorter duration with milder symptoms, vision remains, no corneal involvement and responds to medical treatment

43
Q

treatment for cherry eye

A

NSAIDs, chloramphenicol or surgical with pocket technique

44
Q

3 layers of the pre corneal tear film

A

deep mucin layer, aquoues layer and superficial lipid layer

45
Q

what glands produce the mucous, aqueous and lipid layers of the tear film

A

Meibomian glands- lipid, goblet cells - mucous, lacrimal gland - aqueous

46
Q

what are the main functions of the pre corneal tear film

A

even distribution of the film, nutrition of the cornea, help renew epithelium and keep eye moist, lubrication of cornea

47
Q

what nerves supply the lacrimal gland

A

facial and trigeminal

48
Q

3 possible causes of dry eye

A

immune mediate, breed disposition, anaesthetic response, neurogenic or traumTIC

49
Q

what is normal value for a dog STT

A

15-25mm

50
Q

what would the STT be for moderate to severe dry eye

A

0-10mm

51
Q

what is dry eye due to

A

low quality or low quantity of tear production

52
Q

what causes qualitative dry eye

A

inflammation of Meibomian glands that produce the lipid layer

53
Q

what is a STT less than 5 seconds indicative of

A

abnormal tear quality and of goblet cells

54
Q

treatment of KCS

A

lubrication, immunomodulating agent, antibiotics, parotid duct transposition

55
Q

what is epiphora

A

overflow of tears due to increase production or decreased drainage

56
Q

What is the jones test used for and what does it measure

A

tests permeability of nasolacrimal duct - measuring how much flouroscein is at the level of the nostrils after 5 minutes

57
Q

what is dacryocystitis

A

foreign body in the nasolacrimal duct system causing infection

58
Q

what is the limbus

A

transition between sclera and cornea

59
Q

what makes the cornea transparent

A

no vessels, no pigments, non-keratinised epithelium

60
Q

what does a blue cornea indicate and how would you treat

A

oedema

topical hypertonic saline solution

61
Q

what does a red cornea indicate

A

corneal neurovasculisation

62
Q

differenct between superficial and deep vessels of the cornea healing

A

superficial are bright red and have fine branches

deep - dark and straight indicate deep trauma

63
Q

what does a white cornea indicate

A

scarring or metabolic infiltrates

64
Q

what does black cornea indicate

A

pigments

65
Q

what does pink cornea indicate

A

chronic superficial keratitis - pannus

66
Q

how long will an epithelial and a stromal ulcer take to heal

A

2 weeks months to years

67
Q

how would you treat a superficial corneal ulcer

A

chloramphenicol and lubrication

68
Q

most common cause of a deep ulcer

A

pseudomonas infection

69
Q

how would you treat a melting ulcer

A

autoproteolytic drugs

70
Q

what is a chronic corneal epithelial defect

A

indolent ulcer - superficial ulcer not healed in 1-2 weeks

71
Q

how would you diagnose an indolent ulcer

A

lose ring of epithelium around the ulcer

72
Q

what makes up the uvea

A

choroid, iris and ciliary body

73
Q

differenct between anterior and posterior uveitis

A

ant = breakdown of blood aqueous barrier and post = breakdown of blood retinal barrier