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MRCP > Opthalmology > Flashcards

Opthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

What type of drug is Latanoprost

A

Prostaglandin analogue

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2
Q

What is the MOA of prostaglandin analogues in open angle glaucoma

A

Increases uveoscleral outflow

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3
Q

What is first line treatment of open angle glaucoma in a patient with asthma

A

Latanoprost

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4
Q

What is the MOA of pilocarpine

A

Muscarinic receptor agonist - causes miosis and increases uveoscleral outflow

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5
Q

What is the MOA of timolol in open angle glaucoma

A

Reduces aqueous production

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6
Q

what is the MOA of dorzolamide in open angle glaucoma

A

Reduces aqueous production

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7
Q

What is the MOA of brimonidine in open angle glaucoma

A

Alpha-2 adrenoreceptor agonist - reduces aqueous production and increases outflow

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8
Q

What is the most common sign on fundoscopy in dry (early) age related macular degeneration

A

Drusen

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9
Q

What is the main modifiable RF for age related macular degeneration

A

Smoking

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10
Q

What pattern of vision loss is seen in age-related macular degeneration

A

Central vision loss

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11
Q

What causes microaneurysms in diabetic retinopathy

A

Pericyte dysfunction

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12
Q

What is classed as mild Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

1 or more microaneurysm

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13
Q

What is classed as severe non proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

Blot haemorrhages/microaneurysms in all 4 quadrants, venous bleeding in 2 or more quadrants, IRMA in 1 or more quadrant

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14
Q

Which type of DM is proliferative diabetic retinopathy most common in

A

T1DM

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15
Q

What is seen on fundoscopy in maculopathy in T2DM

A

Hard exudates

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16
Q

How often is retinopathy screened for in T2DM

A

Annually

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17
Q

When is retinopathy screened for in a newly diagnosed T1DM

A

Annually

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18
Q

What are the congenital causes of optic atrophy

A

Freidrich’s ataxia, mitochondrial disorders e.g. leber’s optic atrophy, DIDMOAD (Wolfram’s disease)

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19
Q

What are the 3 main causes of optic neuritis

A

MS, DM, syphilis

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20
Q

What condition of the eye causes unilateral decreased vision over hours/days, poor discrimination of colours, pain worse on eye movement and RAPD

A

Optic neuritis

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21
Q

Which condition causes loss of visual acuity but no signs on fundoscopy

A

Retrobulbar neuritis

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22
Q

What ocular sign is present in Paget’s disease

A

Angioid retinal streaks

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23
Q

What ocular sign is present in acromegaly

A

Angioid retinal streaks

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24
Q

Which ocular condition causes tunnel vision, night blindness and black bone spicule-shaped pigmentation in peripheral retina

A

Retinitis pigmentosa

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25
Q

Which ocular condition is associated with Kearns-Sayre syndrome and Alport’s syndrome

A

Retinitis Pigmentosa

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26
Q

What are the causes of a RAPD

A

Lesion anterior to optic chiasm: retinal detachment, optic neuritis (e.g. MS)

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27
Q

Which body does the optic nerve synapse with before the midbrain in the afferent pathway of pupillary reflex

A

Lateral geniculate body

28
Q

What is the most common cause of ischaemic optic neuropathy in elderly patients

A

Temporal arteritis

29
Q

Which transient condition causes vision loss like a curtain coming down vertically

A

Amaurosis fugax

30
Q

Which condition shows a cherry red spot over a pale retina on fundoscopy

A

Central retinal artery occlusion

31
Q

What does a patient describe in retinal detachment

A

Flashes of light, floaters

32
Q

What type of vision is associated with acute angle closure glaucoma

A

Long-sightedness

33
Q

What type of vision is associated with open angle glaucoma

A

Short-sightedness

34
Q

Which condition is associated with haloes around lights and a painful red eye

A

Acute angle closure glaucoma

35
Q

What is the treatment of acute angle closure glaucoma

A

IV acetazolomide + topical pilocarpine

36
Q

What pattern of vision loss is seen in open angle glaucoma

A

Peripheral visual field loss - tunnel vision

37
Q

What are the systemic causes of cataracts

A

DM, steroids, congenital rubella, hypocalcaemia, galactosaemia, myotonic dystrophy, Down’s syndrome

38
Q

What causes a red eye with fixed oval pupil

A

Anterior uveitis

39
Q

What are the causes of bilateral ptosis

A

Myotonic dystrophy, MG, syphilis, congenital

40
Q

What is the treatment of herpes zoster opthalmicus

A

Oral antiviral treatment 7-10 days

41
Q

How is Herpes Simplex Keratitis diagnosed

A

Fluorescein staining - shows dendritic corneal ulcer

42
Q

What does band keratopathy show on fundoscopy

A

Calcium deposition in central cornea

43
Q

What is the most common eye presentation in rheumatoid arthritis

A

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

44
Q

What is the difference between episcleritis and scleritis

A

Scleritis is painful (both cause erythema)

45
Q

Which condition is commonly causes by olfactory groove meningioma, leading to optic atrophy and anosmia

A

Foster-Kennedy’s syndrome

46
Q

What is the treatment of amaurosis fugax

A

Treat as TIA - 300mg aspirin

47
Q

Which condition involving the eye is at increased risk after a recent sinus infection/sinusitis

A

Orbital cellulitis

48
Q

What is central scotoma a feature of

A

Age-related macular degeneration, optic neuritis

49
Q

What is stage IV on the Keith-Wagener classification of hypertensive retinopathy

A

Papilloedema

50
Q

What is stage II on the Keith Wagener classification of hypertensive retinopathy

A

AV nipping

51
Q

What opthalmological sign is associated with pseudoxanthoma elasticum

A

Angioid retinal streaks

52
Q

Which electrolyte abnormality can cause cataracts

A

Hypocalcaemia

53
Q

Which cause of a red eye is a hypopyon associated with

A

Keratitis

54
Q

What are the causes of tunnel vision

A

Papilloedema, glaucoma, retinitis pigmentosa, choroidoretinits, tabes dorsalis, hysteria

55
Q

What conditions are associated with central retinal vein occlusion

A

Glaucoma, polycythaemia, hypertension

56
Q

What are the features of posterior vitreous detachment

A

Flashes of light in the peripheral field of vision, floaters

57
Q

What are the features of retinal detachment

A

Dense shadow that starts peripherally and progresses towards the central vision, ‘curtain’ over the field of vision, straight lines appear curved, central vision loss

58
Q

What are the features of vitreous haemorrhage

A

Large bleed - sudden vision loss
Moderate - numerous dark spots
Small - floaters

59
Q

Which conditions are associated with vitreous haemorrhage

A

Diabetes, bleeding disorders, anticoagulants

60
Q

What causes central retinal artery occlusion

A

Thromboembolism (from atherosclerosis) or arteritis (e.g. temporal arteritis)

61
Q

What is the definitive management of acute angle closure glaucoma

A

Laser peripheral iridotomy

62
Q

What are the causes of RAPD

A

Lesion of optic nerve or retina

E.g. optic neuritis, retinal detachment

63
Q

Using the traditional classification, what were the features of background retinopathy

A

Microaneurysms, blot haemorrhages, hard exudates

64
Q

What are the acquired causes of optic atrophy

A

MS, raised ICP, retinitis pigmentosa, ischaemia, smoking, methanol, arsenic, lead, vitamin B deficiencies

65
Q

Which infectious disease causes corneal opacification and is often passed from mother to child

A

Chlamydia trachomatis (Trachoma)

66
Q

What is the treatment of proliferation diabetic retinopathy

A

Ranibizumab (targets VEGF)

67
Q

Which inherited eye condition presents with a central scotoma, peripapillary telangiectasias and increased vessel tortuosity

A

Leber’s optic atrophy

MRCP (16 decks)

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