Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

MRCP > Opthalmology > Flashcards

Opthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

What type of drug is Latanoprost

A

Prostaglandin analogue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the MOA of prostaglandin analogues in open angle glaucoma

A

Increases uveoscleral outflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is first line treatment of open angle glaucoma in a patient with asthma

A

Latanoprost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the MOA of pilocarpine

A

Muscarinic receptor agonist - causes miosis and increases uveoscleral outflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the MOA of timolol in open angle glaucoma

A

Reduces aqueous production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the MOA of dorzolamide in open angle glaucoma

A

Reduces aqueous production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the MOA of brimonidine in open angle glaucoma

A

Alpha-2 adrenoreceptor agonist - reduces aqueous production and increases outflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most common sign on fundoscopy in dry (early) age related macular degeneration

A

Drusen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the main modifiable RF for age related macular degeneration

A

Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What pattern of vision loss is seen in age-related macular degeneration

A

Central vision loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What causes microaneurysms in diabetic retinopathy

A

Pericyte dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is classed as mild Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

1 or more microaneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is classed as severe non proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

Blot haemorrhages/microaneurysms in all 4 quadrants, venous bleeding in 2 or more quadrants, IRMA in 1 or more quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which type of DM is proliferative diabetic retinopathy most common in

A

T1DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is seen on fundoscopy in maculopathy in T2DM

A

Hard exudates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How often is retinopathy screened for in T2DM

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When is retinopathy screened for in a newly diagnosed T1DM

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the congenital causes of optic atrophy

A

Freidrich’s ataxia, mitochondrial disorders e.g. leber’s optic atrophy, DIDMOAD (Wolfram’s disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 3 main causes of optic neuritis

A

MS, DM, syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What condition of the eye causes unilateral decreased vision over hours/days, poor discrimination of colours, pain worse on eye movement and RAPD

A

Optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which condition causes loss of visual acuity but no signs on fundoscopy

A

Retrobulbar neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What ocular sign is present in Paget’s disease

A

Angioid retinal streaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What ocular sign is present in acromegaly

A

Angioid retinal streaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which ocular condition causes tunnel vision, night blindness and black bone spicule-shaped pigmentation in peripheral retina

A

Retinitis pigmentosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which ocular condition is associated with Kearns-Sayre syndrome and Alport’s syndrome
Retinitis Pigmentosa
26
What are the causes of a RAPD
Lesion anterior to optic chiasm: retinal detachment, optic neuritis (e.g. MS)
27
Which body does the optic nerve synapse with before the midbrain in the afferent pathway of pupillary reflex
Lateral geniculate body
28
What is the most common cause of ischaemic optic neuropathy in elderly patients
Temporal arteritis
29
Which transient condition causes vision loss like a curtain coming down vertically
Amaurosis fugax
30
Which condition shows a cherry red spot over a pale retina on fundoscopy
Central retinal artery occlusion
31
What does a patient describe in retinal detachment
Flashes of light, floaters
32
What type of vision is associated with acute angle closure glaucoma
Long-sightedness
33
What type of vision is associated with open angle glaucoma
Short-sightedness
34
Which condition is associated with haloes around lights and a painful red eye
Acute angle closure glaucoma
35
What is the treatment of acute angle closure glaucoma
IV acetazolomide + topical pilocarpine
36
What pattern of vision loss is seen in open angle glaucoma
Peripheral visual field loss - tunnel vision
37
What are the systemic causes of cataracts
DM, steroids, congenital rubella, hypocalcaemia, galactosaemia, myotonic dystrophy, Down’s syndrome
38
What causes a red eye with fixed oval pupil
Anterior uveitis
39
What are the causes of bilateral ptosis
Myotonic dystrophy, MG, syphilis, congenital
40
What is the treatment of herpes zoster opthalmicus
Oral antiviral treatment 7-10 days
41
How is Herpes Simplex Keratitis diagnosed
Fluorescein staining - shows dendritic corneal ulcer
42
What does band keratopathy show on fundoscopy
Calcium deposition in central cornea
43
What is the most common eye presentation in rheumatoid arthritis
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
44
What is the difference between episcleritis and scleritis
Scleritis is painful (both cause erythema)
45
Which condition is commonly causes by olfactory groove meningioma, leading to optic atrophy and anosmia
Foster-Kennedy’s syndrome
46
What is the treatment of amaurosis fugax
Treat as TIA - 300mg aspirin
47
Which condition involving the eye is at increased risk after a recent sinus infection/sinusitis
Orbital cellulitis
48
What is central scotoma a feature of
Age-related macular degeneration, optic neuritis
49
What is stage IV on the Keith-Wagener classification of hypertensive retinopathy
Papilloedema
50
What is stage II on the Keith Wagener classification of hypertensive retinopathy
AV nipping
51
What opthalmological sign is associated with pseudoxanthoma elasticum
Angioid retinal streaks
52
Which electrolyte abnormality can cause cataracts
Hypocalcaemia
53
Which cause of a red eye is a hypopyon associated with
Keratitis
54
What are the causes of tunnel vision
Papilloedema, glaucoma, retinitis pigmentosa, choroidoretinits, tabes dorsalis, hysteria
55
What conditions are associated with central retinal vein occlusion
Glaucoma, polycythaemia, hypertension
56
What are the features of posterior vitreous detachment
Flashes of light in the peripheral field of vision, floaters
57
What are the features of retinal detachment
Dense shadow that starts peripherally and progresses towards the central vision, ‘curtain’ over the field of vision, straight lines appear curved, central vision loss
58
What are the features of vitreous haemorrhage
Large bleed - sudden vision loss Moderate - numerous dark spots Small - floaters
59
Which conditions are associated with vitreous haemorrhage
Diabetes, bleeding disorders, anticoagulants
60
What causes central retinal artery occlusion
Thromboembolism (from atherosclerosis) or arteritis (e.g. temporal arteritis)
61
What is the definitive management of acute angle closure glaucoma
Laser peripheral iridotomy
62
What are the causes of RAPD
Lesion of optic nerve or retina | E.g. optic neuritis, retinal detachment
63
Using the traditional classification, what were the features of background retinopathy
Microaneurysms, blot haemorrhages, hard exudates
64
What are the acquired causes of optic atrophy
MS, raised ICP, retinitis pigmentosa, ischaemia, smoking, methanol, arsenic, lead, vitamin B deficiencies
65
Which infectious disease causes corneal opacification and is often passed from mother to child
Chlamydia trachomatis (Trachoma)
66
What is the treatment of proliferation diabetic retinopathy
Ranibizumab (targets VEGF)
67
Which inherited eye condition presents with a central scotoma, peripapillary telangiectasias and increased vessel tortuosity
Leber’s optic atrophy

MRCP (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions