Ops Manual Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of LVO

A

RVR 400m

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2
Q

Absolute minimum for LVTO

A

150m

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3
Q

PM tasks after Passing 10000ft

A
  1. Cabin lights as directed
  2. Deselect EFFRA
  3. Auto tune radio, monitor 121.5
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4
Q

At which condition FLEX cannot be used

A
  1. Tailwind
  2. Contaminated runway
  3. Wing Anti ice
  4. Inop ground spoilers
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5
Q

Who to call mode changes?

A

PF to call, PM to acknowledge

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6
Q

Minimum autopilot engagement height

A

200ft AGL

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7
Q

Recommended holding speed

A

200kts

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8
Q

PF callout for GS

A

GS alive
GS captured, set missed approach altitude

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9
Q

What is the preferred method of flying NPA approach?

A

FMS overlay

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10
Q

Wind gust Vref calculation

A

1/2 steady + full gust, maximum Vref + 20

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11
Q

First PM task at Go Around

A

Check thrust

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12
Q

Engine failure after V1 speed and AOB

A

V2/ 15

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13
Q

What is the reliable sign of major engine malfunction

A

Lack of N1 / N2

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14
Q

How to identify positive rate?

A

At least two of the below:
1. VSI
2. Baro
3. Rad Alt

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15
Q

Engine failure parameters

A
  1. EPR
  2. Vibration
  3. Overheat
  4. Fire
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16
Q

Engine failure driftdown - terrain separation

A

2000ft with 5nm

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17
Q

Approach configuration gate

A

Downwind - Flap 10
Base - Flap 20
6-8nm 2500ft - Gear
5nm - Flap 39

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18
Q

What is the levelling off altitude during emergency descent?

A

10000ft or MSA whichever greater

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19
Q

PM task during Emergency Descent

A

Check the lowest safe altitude, notifies ATC obtain an altimeter setting (QNH)

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20
Q

What is the limiting altitude to remove crew oxygen masks after emergency descent?

A

10000ft

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21
Q

FMS speed vs iPreflight speed

A

1 kt

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22
Q

How to exit FSTBY mode of WX radar

A

GND ORIDE at SMC

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23
Q

Speed for low vis taxi

A

10kts

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24
Q

Low vis taxi checklist

A

Only during stationary

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25
Q

What are PEDS

A

Performance
Emergency turn
Departure
Stop altitude

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26
Q

Balked landing procedures

A

PF: full thrust and maintain pitch/ slight pitch up
PM: positive rate
PF: go around flap 20
PM: speed check flap 20
PM: positive rate
PF: gear up
PM: gear up

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27
Q

Minimum fuel for go around

A

600lbs in each tank

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28
Q

Circling approach descend below MDA requirements

A
  1. Visual
  2. Threshold
  3. Fully configured
  4. At the point that normal ROD can descend to touchdown zone
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29
Q

Calculation of isolated aerodrome alternate fuel

A
  1. 2 hours cruising above aerodrome
  2. Deviation point defined isolated aerodrome vs enroute alternate
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30
Q

Calculation of alternate fuel - Busy alternate aerodrome as destination such as VHHH and VMMC

A

Increase to at least 100nm or 10 mins

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31
Q

Holding fuel at 1500ft

A

30 mins: 1400 (650) / 1300 (650ER)
45 mins: 2000

32
Q

When will takeoff data without full ipreflight genesis analysis be possible?

A
  1. Permitted by DFO or management pilot.
  2. PIC ensure known obstacles are taken into account and correct factoring of winds is applied to AFM net flight path take-off data
33
Q

Split duty - rest in aircraft criteria

A
  1. Full control of temperature and ventilation
  2. Pax not onboard
34
Q

Split duty rest location

A

Less than 6 hours: quiet place
6-11: suitable accomodation

35
Q

How does split duty work

A
  1. 3- <11: FDP + 1/2 rest period
  2. Less than 3: nil
36
Q

Who can escort pax

A
  1. Crew member
  2. Company representative
  3. Approved handler representative
37
Q

When should we use actual mass?

A

Expected pax and cargo exceed standard mass

38
Q

What checks should we do during cruise? What is the time interval?

A

Fuel and RVSM check/ one hour

39
Q

Taxi speed limitation

A

Straight: 30kts
Turn <90: 15kts
Turn >=90: 10kts

40
Q

The PIC of an aircraft may, at his discretion, and after taking note of the circumstances of other members of the crew, reduce a rest period but only insofar as ____ to the crew member is available for occupation for a min of ___ hours

A

Room allocated/ 10

41
Q

If the preceding FDP was extended, the rest period may be reduced, provided that the subsequent allowable FDP is also reduced by ______

A

The same amount

42
Q

In no circumstances may a pilot-in-command exercise discretion to reduce a rest period below ____ hours at accomodation

A

10

43
Q

Engine start flow

A
  1. Park brake set
  2. Seat belt no smoke on
  3. BCN light on
  4. Start master on
  5. Main fuel pumps on
  6. APU bleed on
  7. Lookout
  8. Timer
44
Q

Shutdown flow

A
  1. Park brake set
  2. PTU/ AUX not arm
  3. Fuel control off
  4. Seat belt off
  5. BCN off
  6. Right main boost pump off
  7. Engine bleed off
  8. NWS power off
  9. Door open
    (Check differential pressure)
45
Q

Performance calculation must also occur if the data is older than ______ from actual departure time

A

2 hours

46
Q

What is Company Minimum Reserve?

A

CMR = destination alternate + 5% of alternate fuel

47
Q

If no emergency turn is promulgated, then the procedure has been calculated based on the aircraft _________

A

Maintaining runway track for 30nm

48
Q

Landing performance calculations prior to dispatch will consider two items

A
  1. Most favourable runway, using still air
  2. Runway most likely to be assigned, considering the probable wind speed and direction, the ground handling characteristics of the airplane and other conditions such as landing aids and terrain
49
Q

The final load sheet should be calculated ________ prior to departure

A

Within two hours

50
Q

What is Last Minute Changes procedure?

A

After completion of the weight and balance load sheet, the PIC must complete a new load sheet if any change in passenger number occurs or if there is a change of cargo weight greater than 100lbs

51
Q

Tolerance between actual fuel uplift and planned uplift? What if it is exceeded?

A

3%/ investigate

52
Q

What should we do when refuelling with wide-cut fuel?

A

The aeroplane electrical system should be switched off before refuelling starts, and remain off until refuelling ceases and the hoses have been removed

No pax embark, onboard, disembark

53
Q

Is hot refuelling permitted in normal ops?

A

No, unless approved by DFO or CP

54
Q

Uplifts drawn from any other source e.g. oil drums are permitted?

A

No

55
Q

If operates to where the standard of fuel quality may not be so reliable, what actions are required?

A

If it is required to uplift fuel on flights to such countries before the flight departs for that airport, the OPS department must contact the airport concerned to ascertain details of refuelling facilities available and standard governing the quality of the fuel supplied

56
Q

Before refuelling, what shall be checked?

A

Fuel quality, any contamination or water presence

57
Q

If weather radar is required on the ground, ensure that no personnel are within ______ radially from the nose of the aircraft and that no large metallic objects (including aircraft) are within ____ of the nose.

A

50ft/ 300ft

58
Q

Rejected takeoff procedures

A

“Stop stop”
PF: retard power levers to idle and apply max brake, use thrust reversers if desired

PM: 1. GS (manual speedbrakes), 2. engine instruments, 3. forward pressure on cc, 4. Atc

PF: “check malfunctions”
Emergency/ abnormal checklist

Clear of runway - PF “after landing checklist”

Pax

Before door open, CPC landing

Check brakes temp

59
Q

Where the departure/ SID is predicted on ground-based navaids, what should be displayed on PM side?

A

Raw data on HSI

60
Q

Preflight planning of RNAV SID/STAR

A
  1. Crew qualification
  2. Aircraft qualification
  3. Flight planning
  4. MEL
  5. Database
61
Q

What should be done before conducting RNAV/ RNP departure and arrival?

A

RAIM check

62
Q

Considerations of inflight diversion (aircraft status and aerodrome status)

A

Aircraft status: time/ people/ place
Time: fuel, electrics
People: ATC
Place: where to go? -> FMS(LNAV)
Altitude: MEA/ MSA/ Terrain
Speed: FMS/ turbulence/ control

Aerodrome status:
Runway/ terrain/ ATC/ approach/ weather/ facilities (medical/ fire/ engineering/ pax)

63
Q

What should be included in Flight Instrument Check?

A
  1. QNH (check elev)
  2. Heading
  3. Nav1 and 2
64
Q

Cautions of using QFE

A
  1. No VNAV
  2. No >1800ft
  3. Terrain inhibit
  4. QFE on 1 and 2, QNH on standby
65
Q

Can we use FMS cold weather conversion?

A

Yes, notify ATC

66
Q

Can we use FMS cold weather conversion?

A

Yes, notify ATC

67
Q

Company minima which needs to add 50ft

A
  1. NPA
  2. LNAV
  3. LNAV/ VNAV
68
Q

TAG circling minima

A

600ft/ 3.7km

69
Q

Circling time rule of thumb

A

Abeam threshold:
3 sec/ 100ft
1 sec/ kt HW/ TW

70
Q

Circling approach shall be stabilised by ______

A

300ft

71
Q

Overweight landing considerations

A
  1. Speedbrakes extended
  2. Max reverse thrust
72
Q

When must the aircraft be locked?

A

Unattended and out of direct vision of the crew

73
Q

Whose callout: “one to go”

A

PM

74
Q

Whose callout “set standard/ QNH”

A

PF

75
Q

What is PM callout during windshear manoeuvre?

A

“Climbing” or “Descending”

76
Q

When will be the auto Wing Anti Ice be inhibited?

A

Above FL350