Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Flying > Ops Manual > Flashcards

Ops Manual Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of LVO

A

RVR 400m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Absolute minimum for LVTO

A

150m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

PM tasks after Passing 10000ft

A
  1. Cabin lights as directed
  2. Deselect EFFRA
  3. Auto tune radio, monitor 121.5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

At which condition FLEX cannot be used

A
  1. Tailwind
  2. Contaminated runway
  3. Wing Anti ice
  4. Inop ground spoilers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who to call mode changes?

A

PF to call, PM to acknowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Minimum autopilot engagement height

A

200ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Recommended holding speed

A

200kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PF callout for GS

A

GS alive
GS captured, set missed approach altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the preferred method of flying NPA approach?

A

FMS overlay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Wind gust Vref calculation

A

1/2 steady + full gust, maximum Vref + 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

First PM task at Go Around

A

Check thrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Engine failure after V1 speed and AOB

A

V2/ 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the reliable sign of major engine malfunction

A

Lack of N1 / N2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How to identify positive rate?

A

At least two of the below:
1. VSI
2. Baro
3. Rad Alt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Engine failure parameters

A
  1. EPR
  2. Vibration
  3. Overheat
  4. Fire
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Engine failure driftdown - terrain separation

A

2000ft with 5nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Approach configuration gate

A

Downwind - Flap 10
Base - Flap 20
6-8nm 2500ft - Gear
5nm - Flap 39

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the levelling off altitude during emergency descent?

A

10000ft or MSA whichever greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

PM task during Emergency Descent

A

Check the lowest safe altitude, notifies ATC obtain an altimeter setting (QNH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the limiting altitude to remove crew oxygen masks after emergency descent?

A

10000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

FMS speed vs iPreflight speed

A

1 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How to exit FSTBY mode of WX radar

A

GND ORIDE at SMC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Speed for low vis taxi

A

10kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Low vis taxi checklist

A

Only during stationary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are PEDS

A

Performance
Emergency turn
Departure
Stop altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Balked landing procedures

A

PF: full thrust and maintain pitch/ slight pitch up
PM: positive rate
PF: go around flap 20
PM: speed check flap 20
PM: positive rate
PF: gear up
PM: gear up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Minimum fuel for go around

A

600lbs in each tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Circling approach descend below MDA requirements

A
  1. Visual
  2. Threshold
  3. Fully configured
  4. At the point that normal ROD can descend to touchdown zone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Calculation of isolated aerodrome alternate fuel

A
  1. 2 hours cruising above aerodrome
  2. Deviation point defined isolated aerodrome vs enroute alternate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Calculation of alternate fuel - Busy alternate aerodrome as destination such as VHHH and VMMC

A

Increase to at least 100nm or 10 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Holding fuel at 1500ft

A

30 mins: 1400 (650) / 1300 (650ER)
45 mins: 2000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When will takeoff data without full ipreflight genesis analysis be possible?

A
  1. Permitted by DFO or management pilot.
  2. PIC ensure known obstacles are taken into account and correct factoring of winds is applied to AFM net flight path take-off data
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Split duty - rest in aircraft criteria

A
  1. Full control of temperature and ventilation
  2. Pax not onboard
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Split duty rest location

A

Less than 6 hours: quiet place
6-11: suitable accomodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does split duty work

A
  1. 3- <11: FDP + 1/2 rest period
  2. Less than 3: nil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Who can escort pax

A
  1. Crew member
  2. Company representative
  3. Approved handler representative
37
Q

When should we use actual mass?

A

Expected pax and cargo exceed standard mass

38
Q

What checks should we do during cruise? What is the time interval?

A

Fuel and RVSM check/ one hour

39
Q

Taxi speed limitation

A

Straight: 30kts
Turn <90: 15kts
Turn >=90: 10kts

40
Q

The PIC of an aircraft may, at his discretion, and after taking note of the circumstances of other members of the crew, reduce a rest period but only insofar as ____ to the crew member is available for occupation for a min of ___ hours

A

Room allocated/ 10

41
Q

If the preceding FDP was extended, the rest period may be reduced, provided that the subsequent allowable FDP is also reduced by ______

A

The same amount

42
Q

In no circumstances may a pilot-in-command exercise discretion to reduce a rest period below ____ hours at accomodation

43
Q

Engine start flow

A
  1. Park brake set
  2. Seat belt no smoke on
  3. BCN light on
  4. Start master on
  5. Main fuel pumps on
  6. APU bleed on
  7. Lookout
  8. Timer
44
Q

Shutdown flow

A
  1. Park brake set
  2. PTU/ AUX not arm
  3. Fuel control off
  4. Seat belt off
  5. BCN off
  6. Right main boost pump off
  7. Engine bleed off
  8. NWS power off
  9. Door open
    (Check differential pressure)
45
Q

Performance calculation must also occur if the data is older than ______ from actual departure time

46
Q

What is Company Minimum Reserve?

A

CMR = destination alternate + 5% of alternate fuel

47
Q

If no emergency turn is promulgated, then the procedure has been calculated based on the aircraft _________

A

Maintaining runway track for 30nm

48
Q

Landing performance calculations prior to dispatch will consider two items

A
  1. Most favourable runway, using still air
  2. Runway most likely to be assigned, considering the probable wind speed and direction, the ground handling characteristics of the airplane and other conditions such as landing aids and terrain
49
Q

The final load sheet should be calculated ________ prior to departure

A

Within two hours

50
Q

What is Last Minute Changes procedure?

A

After completion of the weight and balance load sheet, the PIC must complete a new load sheet if any change in passenger number occurs or if there is a change of cargo weight greater than 100lbs

51
Q

Tolerance between actual fuel uplift and planned uplift? What if it is exceeded?

A

3%/ investigate

52
Q

What should we do when refuelling with wide-cut fuel?

A

The aeroplane electrical system should be switched off before refuelling starts, and remain off until refuelling ceases and the hoses have been removed

No pax embark, onboard, disembark

53
Q

Is hot refuelling permitted in normal ops?

A

No, unless approved by DFO or CP

54
Q

Uplifts drawn from any other source e.g. oil drums are permitted?

55
Q

If operates to where the standard of fuel quality may not be so reliable, what actions are required?

A

If it is required to uplift fuel on flights to such countries before the flight departs for that airport, the OPS department must contact the airport concerned to ascertain details of refuelling facilities available and standard governing the quality of the fuel supplied

56
Q

Before refuelling, what shall be checked?

A

Fuel quality, any contamination or water presence

57
Q

If weather radar is required on the ground, ensure that no personnel are within ______ radially from the nose of the aircraft and that no large metallic objects (including aircraft) are within ____ of the nose.

A

50ft/ 300ft

58
Q

Rejected takeoff procedures

A

“Stop stop”
PF: retard power levers to idle and apply max brake, use thrust reversers if desired

PM: 1. GS (manual speedbrakes), 2. engine instruments, 3. forward pressure on cc, 4. Atc

PF: “check malfunctions”
Emergency/ abnormal checklist

Clear of runway - PF “after landing checklist”

Pax

Before door open, CPC landing

Check brakes temp

59
Q

Where the departure/ SID is predicted on ground-based navaids, what should be displayed on PM side?

A

Raw data on HSI

60
Q

Preflight planning of RNAV SID/STAR

A
  1. Crew qualification
  2. Aircraft qualification
  3. Flight planning
  4. MEL
  5. Database
61
Q

What should be done before conducting RNAV/ RNP departure and arrival?

A

RAIM check

62
Q

Considerations of inflight diversion (aircraft status and aerodrome status)

A

Aircraft status: time/ people/ place
Time: fuel, electrics
People: ATC
Place: where to go? -> FMS(LNAV)
Altitude: MEA/ MSA/ Terrain
Speed: FMS/ turbulence/ control

Aerodrome status:
Runway/ terrain/ ATC/ approach/ weather/ facilities (medical/ fire/ engineering/ pax)

63
Q

What should be included in Flight Instrument Check?

A
  1. QNH (check elev)
  2. Heading
  3. Nav1 and 2
64
Q

Cautions of using QFE

A
  1. No VNAV
  2. No >1800ft
  3. Terrain inhibit
  4. QFE on 1 and 2, QNH on standby
65
Q

Can we use FMS cold weather conversion?

A

Yes, notify ATC

66
Q

Can we use FMS cold weather conversion?

A

Yes, notify ATC

67
Q

Company minima which needs to add 50ft

A
  1. NPA
  2. LNAV
  3. LNAV/ VNAV
68
Q

TAG circling minima

A

600ft/ 3.7km

69
Q

Circling time rule of thumb

A

Abeam threshold:
3 sec/ 100ft
1 sec/ kt HW/ TW

70
Q

Circling approach shall be stabilised by ______

71
Q

Overweight landing considerations

A
  1. Speedbrakes extended
  2. Max reverse thrust
72
Q

When must the aircraft be locked?

A

Unattended and out of direct vision of the crew

73
Q

Whose callout: “one to go”

74
Q

Whose callout “set standard/ QNH”

75
Q

What is PM callout during windshear manoeuvre?

A

“Climbing” or “Descending”

76
Q

When will be the auto Wing Anti Ice be inhibited?

A

Above FL350

77
Q

When can rolling takeoff be accomplished?

A

If TORA > TORR by at least 1000ft

78
Q

If wet condition is forecasted on departure. What shall be done with the takeoff performance calculation?

A

Calculate the takeoff performance with wet runway condition BEFORE refuelling

79
Q

What is the nature of the climb checklist?

A

Challenge and Response

80
Q

What should be done by PM after gear up?

A

GS unarm, landing lights off

81
Q

When shall climb checklist be conducted?

A

FL100/10000ft or cleared to FL

82
Q

Describe NADP2

A

800ftAAL Man speed 200, Flaps up, FLCH/VNAV
3000ft AAL Autospeed, “End of Noise”

83
Q

Describe NADP1

A

800ftAAL Man speed, FLCH/VNAV
3000ftAAL Autospeed, Flaps up, “End of Noise”

84
Q

Who can execute LVTO

85
Q

True/ False: LVTO is prohibited from contaminated runway

86
Q

LVTO should normally be carried out with ________ flap setting and _______ takeoff is recommended.

A

Highest permissible, static

87
Q

When should the REV be idle?

88
Q

Minimum holding speed in icing condition

A

180kts with flap 0

89
Q

EVS minima for PA/NPA

A

PA 100ft AAL
NPA 200ft AAL

Flying (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions