Airports And Alternates Flashcards
What is the ultimate responsibility regarding aerodrome suitability?
Rest with the PIC
PIC stands for Pilot in Command.
What must be available for each destination and alternate aerodrome under IFR operations?
An approved approach procedure
This includes up-to-date copies of the approach plates.
What must be followed unless deviation is specifically authorized by ATC?
Published departure and approach procedures
ATC stands for Air Traffic Control.
What must be confirmed to be available at any aerodrome where Low Visibility Operations are to be conducted?
Low Visibility Procedures (LVP)
The aerodrome must be approved for Low Visibility Operations (LVO) by its own regulating authority.
What must be clearly stated on the Crew Flight Brief for VFR operations?
Minimum operating visibilities and cloud ceilings
It is not acceptable for the brief to simply state ‘VFR’.
What specific hazards should be included in the Crew Flight Brief for VFR operations?
Any particular hazards, such as gliding activities or ‘free lane’ entries
These hazards are especially important at aerodromes surrounded by controlled airspace.
Fill in the blank: The requirements for utilizing an aerodrome may only be reduced with the permission of the ______.
DFO
DFO stands for Designated Flight Operations.
What is the significance of the Crew Brief in relation to procedures different from those published by the State?
These will be detailed in the Crew Brief
The Crew Brief ensures that all crew members are informed of any deviations.
True or False: For VFR operations, it is acceptable to only state ‘VFR’ in the Crew Flight Brief.
False
The brief must include specific minimum operating visibilities and cloud ceilings.
What is Category A aerodrome?
An aerodrome that satisfies all of the following requirements:
* An approved Instrument approach procedure.
* At least one runway with no performance limited procedure for take-off and/or landing.
* Published circling minima, not higher than 1,000 feet AAL.
* Night operations capability.
Category A represents the highest level of operational safety and capability for aerodromes.
What are the requirements for a Category B aerodrome?
An aerodrome which does not satisfy the Category A requirements, or which requires extra considerations such as:
* Non-standard approach aids and/or approach patterns.
* Unusual local weather conditions.
* Unusual characteristics or performance limitations.
* Any other relevant considerations including obstructions, physical layout, lighting, etc.
Category B aerodromes require more caution and preparation for safe operations.
What defines a Category C aerodrome?
An aerodrome that requires additional considerations to a Category B aerodrome.
Category C indicates a higher level of risk and operational complexity.
What should a PIC do prior to operating to a Category B aerodrome?
The PIC should be briefed or self-briefed on the Category B aerodrome(s) and certify that he has carried out these instructions.
Aerodrome briefings are available on Centrik.
What is required of a PIC before operating to a Category C aerodrome?
The PIC should be briefed and, if possible, visit the aerodrome as an observer and/or undertake instruction in a flight simulator approved by the Authority.
The Company will certify this instruction.
What is the purpose of a Take-off Alternate?
The Operational Flight Plan (OFP) will specify a take-off alternate if meteorological and/or performance considerations preclude return to the departure aerodrome.
This is crucial for safety and operational planning.
Where must a take-off alternate be located?
Within:
* One hour still air flight time at the AFM OEl cruising speed in ISA conditions.
* For 3 or more engine aircraft, 2 hours with OEl cruising speed.
This ensures that the aircraft has a safe option in case of an emergency.
True or False: A Category A aerodrome allows for night operations.
True
Night operations capability is one of the criteria for a Category A aerodrome.
Fill in the blank: A Category B aerodrome may involve _______ approach aids and/or patterns.
non-standard
This highlights the increased complexity and risk associated with Category B aerodromes.
What is the significance of published circling minima in Category A aerodromes?
Published circling minima, not higher than 1,000 feet AAL, indicate lower altitude requirements for circling approaches, enhancing operational safety.
This allows for more flexible approach options under certain conditions.
What is required for each IFR flight regarding destination alternate?
At least one destination alternate must be selected unless specific conditions are met.
What are the conditions that allow for no destination alternate to be selected?
The planned flight duration does not exceed 6 hours and two separate runways are available at the destination with suitable weather conditions.
How are runways considered separate at the same aerodrome?
They must have separate landing surfaces that do not prevent operations on the other runway if one is blocked, and each must have a separate approach procedure.
When must two destination alternates be selected?
When weather conditions are below planning minima from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA or when no meteorological information is available.
What must be specified in the OFP regarding alternates?
All required alternates must be specified.
Can aerodromes without approach aids be used?
Yes, provided VMC prevails within +/- 2 hours of ETA and authorized by the DFO on a case-by-case basis.
Fill in the blank: Two destination alternates must be selected when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts indicate that conditions will be below the applicable _______.
[planning minima]
What is the minimum duration of flight from take-off to landing that allows for no destination alternate?
6 hours
True or False: Runways on the same aerodrome are always considered separate runways.
False
What is the time frame for weather conditions to be considered when selecting destination alternates?
From 1 hour before to 1 hour after the aeroplane’s ETA.
What is the role of the DFO regarding aerodromes without approach aids?
Must authorize their use on a case-by-case basis.
What must the OFP specify if meteorological conditions at departure aerodrome is less than landing minima?
A take-off alternate
The take-off alternate is a designated airport to which an aircraft may divert if it cannot take off due to weather conditions.
What are the conditions for selecting a take-off alternate?
- Weather must be at or above landing minima for +1 hour of ETA
- Ceiling must be considered for non-precision/circling approaches
- OEl limitations must be considered
- Located within one hour at one engine inoperative cruising speed
OEl refers to One Engine Inoperative, which is crucial for determining alternate aerodrome selection.
What does EDTO stand for?
Extended Diversion Time Operations
EDTO approval allows aircraft to operate on routes that are farther away from suitable alternate airports.
What is the maximum diversion time for an alternate aerodrome if the first available alternate is not within distance criteria?
The approved maximum diversion time
This ensures that the aircraft can safely reach the alternate aerodrome in case of an emergency.
What conditions must a destination aerodrome meet?
- Weather must be at or above planning minima for +1 hour of ETA
- RVR/Visibility must meet Section 8 requirements
- Ceiling must be at or above MDA/MDH or circling minima for non-precision/circling approaches
RVR stands for Runway Visual Range, an important safety measure for landing.
Fill in the blank: For a non-precision approach, the ceiling must be at or above _______.
MDA/MDH or circling minima
What are the conditions for selecting a destination alternate and en-route alternate aerodrome?
- Weather must be at or above applicable planning minima
- RVR/Visibility requirements must be met
Ensuring these conditions helps maintain safety during flight operations.
What must meteorological reports and/or forecasts indicate?
The weather at the aerodrome
This is crucial for safe flight operations.
What are the planning minima for a Category I approach?
Weather at or above non-precision minima
This ensures safe landing conditions.
What is the planning minima for non-precision approaches?
Weather above non-precision minima plus 200 ft / 1000m
This adds an additional safety margin.
Which category of operations is company aircraft restricted?
Category I operations
Specific minima are outlined in the Company Route Guide.
How are aeroplanes categorized for minima purposes?
Divided into five speed categories based on nominal threshold speeds
Defined as 1.3 VS or 1.23 VS1G at maximum certificated landing mass.
What is the departure minima rule for a given aerodrome?
Shall not be less than those for landing unless a take-off alternate is available
The alternate must meet all relevant landing minima and performance requirements.
What must be specified in addition to RVR/Visibility for obstacle avoidance?
A cloud ceiling
This ensures guidance for controlled flight during adverse conditions.
When should the Pilot in Command (PIC) not commence take-off?
When reported visibility is below required minima or not available
This includes situations where RVR is not reported.
What is the critical power unit failure rule for multi-engine aircraft?
Take-off minima may not be less than specified in Table 8.2
This applies if the aircraft can clear obstacles by required margins during a critical failure.
Fill in the blank: Departure minima must ensure sufficient guidance to control the aircraft in the event of a _______.
take-off in adverse circumstances
This includes scenarios like power unit failure.
What is the minimum RVR for take-off with Hi Intensity centerline lighting?
150 m
RVR stands for Runway Visual Range, which is an important factor for take-off visibility.
What is the Company flying technique for Non-Precision approaches (NPA)?
Flown in a Continuous Descent Final Approach (CDFA)
This approach ensures a controlled descent towards the runway.
What should crews add to the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) when flying a NPA?
50 ft
This adjustment allows for a precision-like approach.
What is the highest value that the MDA on a NPA shall not be less than?
The highest of:
* Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH)
* System minimum
* Any State minima
These parameters ensure safe altitude clearance during approach.
What is the ‘Fly Through’ correction applied to the MDH/MDA for a constant descent NPA?
50 ft
This correction is necessary to provide a Decision Height (DH) or Decision Altitude (DA).
What is the system minimum for ILS (No Glide Path)?
250 ft
This is the minimum altitude required for the ILS approach without a glide path.
What is the system minimum for RNAV/LNAV approaches?
300 ft
RNAV stands for Area Navigation and LNAV stands for Lateral Navigation.
Fill in the blank: The minimum descent altitude (MDA) for a NPA shall not be less than the highest of the OCH, the system minimum, or _______.
Any State minima
State minima refer to regulations set by the governing aviation authority.
True or False: The system minimum for VOR approaches is 300 ft.
True
VOR stands for VHF Omnidirectional Range, a type of radio navigation system.
What is the minimum RVR for take-off when there is no lighting or marking during the day?
500 m
This indicates the minimum visibility required for safe operations without any aids.
