Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OPP > OPP Exam #1 > Flashcards

OPP Exam #1 Flashcards

1
Q

dextroscoliosis

A
  • convexity to the right

- side bend to the left, rotated to the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

levoscoliosis

A
  • convexity to the left

- side bend to the right, rotated to the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

left lateral convexity

A

sidebent to the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

right lateral convexity

A

sidebent to the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If there is a group disfunction with OMT for? ex. T10-T12

A

apex (middle)

T11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Type II dysfunction usually occurs where?

A

apex (middle) of group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Translation to the right

A

left side-bending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

translation to the left

A

right side-bending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

AT Still birth

A

1828

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Year osteopathy was founded

A

1874

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

1st DO school

A

1892

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

AT Still died

A

1917

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How did AT Stills children die

A

meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Best for feeling temp

A

dorsum of hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pad of thumb, index, and middle finger

A

most kinesthetic nerve endings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Principle 1

A

The body is a unit; the person is a unit of mind, body, and spirit (gastric ulcer causes thoracic tissue texture changes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Principle 2

A

The body is capable of self-regulation, self-healing, and health maintenance (healed fracture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Principle 3

A

Structure and function are reciprocally interrelated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Principle 4

A

Rational treatment is based upon an understanding of the basic principles of body unity, self-regulation, and the inter-relationship of structure and function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

5 Osteopathic Models

A 
Biomechanical
Neurological
Respiratory/Circulatory
Metabolic/Nutritional
Behavioral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Orientation of Superior Facets Cervical

A

Backward, Upward, Medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Orientation of Superior Facets Thoracic

A

Backward, Upward, Lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Orientation of Superior Facets Lumbar

A

Backward, Medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Orientation of Inferior Facets Cervical

A

Anterior, Inferior, Lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Orientation of Inferior Facets Thoracic

A

Anterior, Inferior, Medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Orientation of Inferior Facets Lumbar

A

Anterior, Lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ANATOMIC BARRIER

A

The limit of motion imposed by anatomic structure; the limit of passive motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

PHYSIOLOGIC BARRIER

A

The limit of active motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

ELASTIC BARRIER

A

Range between physiologic and anatomic barrier of motion in which passive ligamentous stretching occurs before tissue disruption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

RESTRICTIVE BARRIER

A
  • A functional limit that abnormally diminishes the normal physiologic range
  • Motion stops before the joint reaches its physiologic barrier
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

PATHOLOGIC BARRIER

A

A restriction of joint motion associated with pathologic change of tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

somatosomatic reflex

A

localized somatic stimuli producing patterns of reflex response in segmentally related somatic structures. For example, rib somatic dysfunction from an innominate dysfunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

somatovisceral reflex

A

localized somatic stimulation producing patterns of reflex response in segmentally related visceral structures. For example, triggering an asthmatic attack when working on thoracic spine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

viscerosomatic reflex

A
  • localized visceral stimuli producing patterns of reflex response in segmentally related somatic structures. For example gallbladder disease affecting musculature.
  • Dorsal horn of the spinal cord is where somatic and visceral afferent nerves synapse giving a viscerosomatic reflex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

viscerovisceral reflex

A

localized visceral stimuli producing patterns of reflex response in segmentally related visceral structures. For example, myocardial infarction and vomiting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

somatic dysfunction

A

is defined as the impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic (bodywork) system including: the skeletal, arthrodial, and myofascial structures, and their related vascular, lymphatic, and neural elements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Spine of Scapula

A

T3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Inferior angle of scapula

A

SP of T7, TP of T8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Iliac Crest

A

L4/L5 area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Umbilicus

A

L3/L4 area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Xiphoid Process

A

T9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Angle of Louis

A

T4 and Rib 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Suprasternal Notch

A

T2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

OA, C1, C2 (Vagus) parasympathetic

A

Heart, lungs, stomach, gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

S2-S4 parasympathetic

A

Blader, prostate

46
Q

Sympathetic heart

A

T1-T5

47
Q

sympathetic lungs

A

T1-T6

48
Q

sympathetic stomach and gallbladder

A

T5-T9

49
Q

sympathetic bladder and prostate

A

T12-L2

50
Q

Vertebral bodies usually rotated towards

A

The side of dysfunction

51
Q

Gallbladder issues will cause

A

T5 - T9 on the right [Stones]***

52
Q

Stomach (Ulcers, Gastritis) issues will cause

A

T5 -T9 on the left

53
Q

Dorsal horn of the spinal cord is where somatic and visceral afferent nerves synapse give what kind of reflex?

A

viscerosomatic reflex

54
Q

Transverse plane movement

A

rotation

55
Q

coronal plane movement

A

sidebending

56
Q

sagittal plane movement (anterior and posterior)

A

flexion and extension

57
Q

Diagnosis of somatic dysfunction (T.A.R.T.)

A

T: Tissue Texture Changes
A: Asymmetry
R: Restriction of motion
T: Tenderness (subjective)

58
Q

Fryette’s 1st Principle

A
  • When side-bending is attempted from neutral (anatomical) position, rotation of vertebral bodies follows to the opposite direction.
  • N,SR,RL
  • N,SL,RR
  • side bending comes before rotation
  • a group of vertebrae or a single vertebrae
  • usually not traumatic etiology
59
Q

Fryette’s 2nd Principle

A

When side-bending is attempted from non-neutral (flexed or extended) position, rotation must precede side-bending to the same side.

  • rotation comes before side bending
  • NN (F/E) RxSx
  • single vertebrae
  • usually traumatic etiology
60
Q

Fryette’s 3rd Principle

A

Motion introduced in one plane limits and modifies motion in the other planes.

61
Q

Type I and II only apply to

A

T and L

62
Q

L3 neutral position side bent left and rotate right on L4

A

L3 N,SL,RR

63
Q

L3 in flexed position, rotated left, side-bent left on L4

A

L3 F SL,RL

64
Q

Type III applies to

A

C, T, L spine, all other joints

65
Q

OA (occipitoatlantal joint) is what type?

A

type I like even if sagittal component is present

66
Q

AA (atlantoaxial joint) is primarily

A

rotational

67
Q

C2-C7 are like which type

A

Type II whether there is a sagittal component or not

68
Q

Tripositional Diagnosis

A
  1. find posterior transverse process

2. have patient flex and extend

69
Q

If a posteriorly rotated process moves anteriorly with flexion

A

it is F RxSx

70
Q

a posteriorly rotated process moves anteriorly with extension

A

it is E RxSx

71
Q

If rotational component does not change with either maneuver (or gets worse with flexion and extension),

A

it is neutral: N SxRy

72
Q

Direct

A

the restrictive barrier is engaged and a final activating force is applied to correct somatic dysfunction

73
Q

Indirect

A

the dysfunctional body part is moved away from the restrictive barrier until tissue tension is equal in one or all planes and directions

74
Q

Active method

A

Technique in which the person voluntarily performs a motion

75
Q

Passive method

A

Based on techniques which the patient refrains from voluntary muscle contraction

76
Q

HVLA

A

Direct/Passive

77
Q

ME (patient straightens out body against resistance):

A

Direct/Active

78
Q

Counterstrain

A

Indirect/Passive

79
Q

Balanced ligamentous technique (BLT)

A

Indirect/Passive

80
Q

Facilitated Positional Release (FPR)

A

Indirect/Passive

81
Q

Direct treatment setup

A

Reverse the somatic dysfunction. Take it the way it doesn’t like to go. Engage the barrier.

82
Q

Indirect treatment setup

A

Exaggerate the somatic dysfunction. Take it the way it likes to go. Disengage the barrier.

83
Q

Kneading

A

a perpendicular traction technique in which a rhythmic, lateral stretching of a myofascial structure, where the origin and insertion are held stationary and the central portion of the structure is stretched like a bowstring.

84
Q

Stretching

A

a longitudinal or parallel traction technique in which the origin and insertion of the myofascial structures being treated are longitudinally separated.

85
Q

Inhibition

A

a deep inhibitory pressure, which is a sustained deep pressure over a hypertonic myofascial structure.

86
Q

Effleurage

A

Gentle stroking of congested tissue used to encourage lymphatic flow

87
Q

Petrissage

A

Involves pinching or tweaking one layer and lifting it or twisting it away from deeper areas

88
Q

Tapotement

A

striking the belly of a muscle with the hypothenar edge of the open hand in rapid succession in order to increase it’s tone and arterial perfusion. A hammering, chopping percussion of tissues to break adhesions and/or encourage bronchial secretions

89
Q

Muscle Energy technique (post isometric relaxation) patient does?

A

Patient is Instructed to GENTLY Push AWAY From the Barrier

90
Q

Muscle Energy Technique the physician positions the patients

A

feathers edge

91
Q

How many times should muscle energy technique be used?

A

3-5 times for 3-5 seconds, 2 second relaxation

92
Q

Muscle Energy Technique (reciprocal inhibition) the patient?

A

Patient is Instructed to GENTLY Push TOWARD the Barrier

93
Q

Examples of Indirect Techniques

A

Counterstrain
Facilitated Positional Release (FPR)
Balanced Ligamentous Tension Technique (BLT)
Functional Technique

94
Q

Counterstrain: Steps of Treatment

A

Assess the “this is a 10” pain level
Maintain finger contact at all times (NOT PRESSING FIRM constantly, only monitoring!)(***continuous monitoring)
this is to monitor tension, not to treat
Find the position of comfort
Retest by pressing with contact finger
This is a passive treatment
Hold it for 90 seconds (that’s the time for ALL counterstrain points, including ribs)
monitor tension and response
Return patient to neutral position SLOWLY!!
Recheck pain level
should be a 3 or less

95
Q

Facilitated Positional Release

A

Body part in NEUTRAL position
COMPRESSION applied to shorten muscle/muscle fibers (some cases may have TRACTION instead)
Place area into EASE of motion (INDIRECT) for 3-5 seconds
Return body part to neutral
THIS TECHNIQUE IS INDIRECT!!!!

96
Q

Still Technique

A

Tissue/joint placed in EASE of motion position (augments the somatic dysfunction)
Compression (or traction) vector force added
Tissue/joint moved through restriction (into and through the restrictive barrier) while maintaining compression (or traction) and force vector
THIS TECHNIQUE GOES FROM INDIRECT TO DIRECT!!!!

97
Q

Center of mass

A

S2

98
Q

Optimal weight bearing line in sagittal plane

A
  • External auditory meatus
  • Through lateral humeral head
  • L3 body
  • Anterior 1/3 sacrum
  • Sacral level 2 (Center of Mass=COM)
  • Greater trochanter
  • Through lateral femoral condyle
  • Just anterior to lateral malleolus
99
Q

COG/COM during pregnancy

A

anterior

100
Q

Common Compensatory Pattern

A

OA- 80% rotated Left the other 20% - if compensated reverse this L/R/L/R pattern
CT “ Right
TL “ Left
LS ‘ Right

101
Q

Junctional/Transition Zones

A

Occipitocervical (OA)
Cervicothoracic (CT) C7-T1
Thoracolumbar (TL) T12-L1
Lumbosacral (LS) L5-S1

102
Q

Antalgic Gait

A

painful gait, a limp is adopted to avoid pain on weight bearing structures (hip, knee, ankle) It is a form ofgaitabnormality where the stance phase ofgaitis abnormally shortened relative to the swing phase. It can be a good indication of pain with weight-bearing.

103
Q

Ataxic Gait

A

an unsteady, uncoordinated walk, a wide base of support is seen. Often due to cerebellar disease

104
Q

Fenestrating Gait

A

short, accelerating steps are used to move forward, often seen in people with Parkinson’s disease **

105
Q

Hemiplegic Gait

A

involves flexion of the hip because of inability to clear the toes from the floor at the ankle and circumduction at the hip

106
Q

Spastic Gait

A

walk in which the legs are held close together and move in a stiff manner. Ex: scissor gait of cerebral palsy

107
Q

Trendelenburg Gait

A

an abnormalgaitcausedby weakness of the abductor muscles of the lower limb: gluteus medius and gluteus minimus

108
Q

steppage gait

A

the gait in footdrop in which the advancing leg is lifted high in order that the toes may clear the ground. It is due to paralysis of the anterior tibial and fibular muscles, and is seen in lesions of the lower motor neuron, such as multiple neuritis, lesions of the anterior motor horn cells, and lesions of the cauda equina.

109
Q

Mild Scoliosis

A

(less than 20 degrees).

110
Q

Moderate Scoliosis

A

between 20 and 45 degrees

111
Q

Severe Scoliosis

A

between 45 and 70 degrees

112
Q

Very Severe Scoliosis

A

Over 100 degrees

OPP (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions