Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

NSU AA Denver Drugs and Inhalational Agents > Opioid Agents > Flashcards

Opioid Agents Flashcards

1
Q

What is the typical IV bolus dose of fentanyl for analgesia during anesthesia?

A

25–50 mcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the approximate onset of action of fentanyl when given intravenously?

A

30–60 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the typical duration of action of IV fentanyl after a single dose?

A

30–60 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the mechanism of action of fentanyl?

A

Mu-opioid receptor agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is a notable side effect of fentanyl?

A

Chest wall rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In which of the following clinical scenarios is fentanyl most appropriately used?

A

Adjunct to general anesthesia for intraoperative analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following best describes fentanyl’s potency compared to morphine?

A

100 times more potent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Is Fentanyl a short-acting synthetic opioid?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Does Fentanyl provide both analgesia and amnesia?

A

No (It provides analgesia, not amnesia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Does Fentanyl cause bradycardia and respiratory depression?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Does Fentanyl have a slower onset of action than morphine?

A

No, it is faster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Is Fentanyl commonly used in rapid sequence intubation protocols?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Is Fentanyl associated with histamine release and hypotension?

A

No (Unlike morphine, it causes minimal histamine release)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Can the duration of fentanyl’s effect be prolonged with repeated dosing?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a typical IV dose range of fentanyl for analgesia in adult patients?

A

25-50 mcg; however 50–100 mcg IV bolus is also common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the onset time of fentanyl after IV administration?

A

Within 30–60 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the duration of action of a single IV dose of fentanyl?

A

Approximately 30–60 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What receptor does fentanyl primarily act on?

A

Mu-opioid receptor (μ-opioid receptor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

List two common side effects of fentanyl.

A
  • Respiratory depression
  • Bradycardia
  • Chest wall rigidity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why might fentanyl be preferred over morphine in a hemodynamically unstable patient?

A

Because it has minimal histamine release and less hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When should fentanyl be used cautiously?

A

In patients with compromised respiratory function or those on other CNS depressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What complication can occur if fentanyl is administered too rapidly in high doses?

A

Chest wall rigidity, which can impair ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the typical IV dose of morphine for adult pain management?

A

2–5 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the approximate onset of action of morphine when administered intravenously?

A

5–10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the typical duration of action for IV morphine?

A

2–4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Morphine primarily acts on which receptor type?

A

Mu-opioid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following is a common side effect of morphine?

A

Constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following makes morphine less desirable in patients with hemodynamic instability?

A

Histamine release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which clinical scenario best describes appropriate use of morphine?

A

Pain management post major abdominal surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Does Morphine have a slower onset than fentanyl?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Does Morphine cause any histamine release?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Is Constipation a common side effect of morphine?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Does Morphine cross the blood-brain barrier slower than fentanyl?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Is Morphine safe for use in all renal-impaired patients?

A

No (Active metabolites can accumulate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Is Morphine a full agonist at mu-opioid receptors?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Respiratory depression is a rare side effect of morphine?

A

No it is common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a typical IV dose of morphine for moderate to severe pain?

A

2–5 mg IV every 4 hours as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the onset time of IV morphine?

A

Approximately 5–10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How long does a single dose of IV morphine typically last?

A

2–4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the mechanism of action of morphine?

A

Morphine is a full mu-opioid receptor agonist that inhibits pain signaling pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

List three common side effects of morphine.

A
  • Nausea
  • Respiratory depression
  • Constipation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What major cardiovascular effect can be caused by histamine release with morphine use?

A

Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Why should morphine be used with caution in patients with renal impairment?

A

Its active metabolite (morphine-6-glucuronide) accumulates and may cause prolonged sedation or respiratory depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When is morphine preferred over fentanyl in clinical use?

A

For longer-lasting pain relief in settings where slower onset and longer duration are desired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How much more potent is Sufentanil compared to fentanyl?

A

50–100 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the typical IV bolus dose of Sufentanil for adult anesthesia induction?

A

0.05–0.2 mcg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the approximate onset of action of Sufentanil?

A

30–60 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the typical duration of action of a single IV dose of Sufentanil?

A

20–45 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of Sufentanil?

A

Mu-opioid receptor agonism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

In which clinical setting is Sufentanil most commonly used?

A

Intraoperative analgesia in cardiac or major surgeries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is a major side effect of Sufentanil that must be monitored closely?

A

Respiratory depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Is Sufentanil more lipid-soluble than fentanyl?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Does Sufentanil have a longer duration of action than morphine?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Does Sufentanil cause histamine release?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Is respiratory depression caused by Sufentanil dose-dependent?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Can Sufentanil be reversed with naloxone?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Is Sufentanil commonly used in neuraxial anesthesia (e.g., epidural)?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Does Sufentanil provide both analgesia and amnesia?

A

No (It provides analgesia, not amnesia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the usual bolus dose range of Sufentanil for general anesthesia in adults?

A

0.05-0.2 mcg/kg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the onset time of Sufentanil after IV administration?

A

Approximately 30–60 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How long does a single dose of Sufentanil typically last?

A

Approximately 20–45 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What receptor does Sufentanil act on?

A

Mu-opioid receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Name two clinical scenarios where Sufentanil would be an appropriate choice.

A
  • Cardiac surgery
  • Epidural analgesia during labor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

List three common side effects of Sufentanil.

A
  • Respiratory depression
  • Bradycardia
  • Nausea/vomiting
65
Q

Why might Sufentanil be preferred over fentanyl for certain surgeries?

A

Greater potency and shorter duration allow for precise titration during major surgeries

66
Q

What is one major risk when Sufentanil is administered in high doses or too rapidly?

A

Chest wall rigidity or profound respiratory depression

67
Q

What is the typical bolus dose of Remifentanil for induction in general anesthesia?

A

0.25 mcg/kg

68
Q

What is the recommended maintenance infusion dose of Remifentanil during general anesthesia?

A

0.05–2 mcg/kg/min

69
Q

What is the typical onset of action of Remifentanil after IV administration?

A

15–30 seconds

70
Q

How long does the effect of Remifentanil last after discontinuation?

A

5–10 minutes

71
Q

Which enzyme is primarily responsible for the metabolism of Remifentanil?

A

Plasma cholinesterases

72
Q

Which clinical scenario best fits the use of Remifentanil?

A

TIVA (Total Intravenous Anesthesia) requiring rapid offset

73
Q

Which of the following is a major side effect associated with high-dose Remifentanil use?

A

Chest wall rigidity

74
Q

Does Remifentanil have a rapid onset and ultra-short duration of action?

75
Q

Does Remifentanil accumulate significantly with prolonged infusions?

76
Q

Is Remifentanil suitable for use in patients with hepatic or renal impairment?

77
Q

Can Remifentanil be administered via intramuscular injection?

78
Q

Do the effects of Remifentanil wear off quickly after stopping the infusion?

79
Q

Does Remifentanil act primarily on delta-opioid receptors?

A

No (It acts on mu-opioid receptors)

80
Q

Should Remifentanil be used for post-operative pain control due to its short action?

81
Q

What is the usual IV bolus dose of Remifentanil?

A

0.25 mcg/kg

82
Q

What is the typical onset time of Remifentanil?

A

30–60 seconds

83
Q

How long does Remifentanil’s effect last after discontinuation?

A

5–10 minutes

84
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Remifentanil?

A

It is a potent mu-opioid receptor agonist that modulates pain signaling in the CNS.

85
Q

Why is Remifentanil ideal for short surgical procedures?

A

Because it has a rapid onset and ultra-short duration, allowing tight control over analgesia with quick recovery.

86
Q

What enzyme breaks down Remifentanil in the body?

A

Plasma esterases (non-specific cholinesterases)

87
Q

List three side effects of Remifentanil.

A
  • Respiratory depression
  • Bradycardia
  • Chest wall rigidity
88
Q

Why is Remifentanil not used for post-operative pain management?

A

Because of its rapid clearance and short duration—it wears off quickly and lacks residual analgesia.

89
Q

What is the usual IV dose of Meperidine for moderate pain in adults?

90
Q

What is the typical onset of action for IV Meperidine?

A

1–5 minutes

91
Q

What is the typical duration of analgesia for a single dose of Meperidine?

A

2–4 hours

92
Q

Which neurotransmitter system is most directly affected by Meperidine’s mechanism of action?

A

Mu-opioid receptors

93
Q

Which serious side effect is associated with the accumulation of Meperidine’s metabolite, normeperidine?

94
Q

In what scenario might Meperidine be preferred over other opioids?

A

Treatment of rigors/shivering

95
Q

Does Meperidine have both analgesic and local anesthetic properties?

96
Q

Does Meperidine have a shorter half-life than morphine?

97
Q

Is Normeperidine an active metabolite of Meperidine that is neurotoxic?

98
Q

Should Meperidine be avoided in patients with renal failure?

99
Q

Is Meperidine a good choice for chronic pain management?

100
Q

Can Meperidine cause serotonin syndrome if combined with MAO inhibitors?

101
Q

Is Meperidine primarily metabolized by the kidneys?

A

No (Metabolized in the liver, excreted by kidneys)

102
Q

What is the typical IV dose of Meperidine for an adult patient in moderate pain?

A

12.5-25 mg IV

103
Q

What is the typical onset time of IV Meperidine?

A

1–5 minutes

104
Q

What is the duration of action of Meperidine?

A

2–4 hours

105
Q

What receptor does Meperidine primarily act on to produce analgesia?

A

Mu-opioid receptor

106
Q

What is the name of Meperidine’s neurotoxic metabolite?

A

Normeperidine

107
Q

List three common side effects of Meperidine.

A
  • Nausea
  • Respiratory depression
  • Dizziness
108
Q

Why should Meperidine be avoided in patients with renal impairment?

A

Because normeperidine can accumulate and increase the risk of seizures

109
Q

In what situation is Meperidine especially useful over other opioids?

A

For the treatment of post-anesthesia shivering or rigors

110
Q

What condition can result from combining Meperidine with MAO inhibitors?

A

Serotonin syndrome

111
Q

What is the typical IV dose of Hydromorphone for moderate to severe pain in adults?

A

0.25–0.5 mg

112
Q

What is the onset time for IV Hydromorphone?

113
Q

What is the duration of action for IV Hydromorphone?

A

3–4 hours

114
Q

Hydromorphone is how many times more potent than morphine?

115
Q

Which receptor does Hydromorphone primarily act on to exert its analgesic effects?

A

Mu-opioid receptor

116
Q

In which of the following scenarios is Hydromorphone most appropriate?

A

Moderate-to-severe post-operative pain

117
Q

Is Hydromorphone more potent than morphine?

118
Q

Does Hydromorphone have a slower onset than morphine?

A

No (It has a faster onset)

119
Q

Is Hydromorphone suitable for use in patients with opioid tolerance?

120
Q

Does Hydromorphone act primarily on the kappa-opioid receptor?

A

No (It acts on the mu-opioid receptor)

121
Q

Are common side effects of Hydromorphone include respiratory depression and constipation?

122
Q

Is Hydromorphone recommended for use in renal impairment?

A

Yes (It is generally preferred over morphine in renal impairment)

123
Q

Is Hydromorphone contraindicated in patients with a history of opioid addiction?

A

No (It must be used cautiously, not necessarily contraindicated)

124
Q

What is the typical IV dosage of Hydromorphone for an adult?

A

0.25–5 mg IV

125
Q

What is the onset time for IV Hydromorphone?

A

Approximately 5 minutes

126
Q

How long does the analgesic effect of Hydromorphone usually last?

A

3–4 hours

127
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of Hydromorphone.

A

It is a potent mu-opioid receptor agonist that inhibits pain transmission in the central nervous system.

128
Q

List three common side effects of Hydromorphone.

A
  • Respiratory depression
  • Nausea
  • Constipation
129
Q

Why might Hydromorphone be preferred over Morphine in patients with renal impairment?

A

Hydromorphone produces fewer active metabolites that accumulate in renal dysfunction.

130
Q

In what type of clinical setting is Hydromorphone commonly used?

A

For the management of moderate to severe acute or chronic pain, especially post-operative pain

131
Q

What is one major risk when using Hydromorphone at high doses or in opioid-naïve patients?

A

Respiratory depression

132
Q

What is the typical adult IV dose of Naloxone for opioid overdose?

A

1-4 mcg/kg

133
Q

What is the onset of action for IV Naloxone?

A

30 seconds to 2 minutes

134
Q

What is the typical duration of action of Naloxone?

A

1–4 hours

135
Q

Which receptor does Naloxone primarily antagonize?

136
Q

Which of the following is a possible effect of Naloxone in opioid-dependent patients?

A

Acute withdrawal symptoms

137
Q

In which of the following scenarios is Naloxone indicated?

A

Opioid-induced respiratory depression

138
Q

Is Naloxone effective at reversing benzodiazepine overdose?

139
Q

Does Naloxone have a shorter half-life than many opioids?

140
Q

Does Naloxone bind to mu-opioid receptors and activate them?

A

No (It is an antagonist, not an agonist)

141
Q

Will Naloxone need to be re-administered if opioid effects outlast it?

142
Q

Can Naloxone be given intranasally?

143
Q

Is one dose of Naloxone always sufficient to reverse all opioid overdoses?

144
Q

Does Naloxone have known side effects?

145
Q

What is the standard IV dose range of Naloxone for an adult opioid overdose?

A

1-4 mcg/kg IV

146
Q

What is the onset time for Naloxone when given IV?

A

30 seconds to 2 minutes

147
Q

How long does Naloxone typically last in the body?

A

1 to 4 hours

148
Q

Can Naloxone be given intranasally?

A

Yes

Naloxone can be administered via the nasal route for opioid overdose reversal.

149
Q

Is one dose of Naloxone always sufficient to reverse all opioid overdoses?

A

No

Some overdoses may require multiple doses due to the potency of the opioid involved.

150
Q

Does Naloxone have known side effects?

A

Yes

Side effects may include withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals.

151
Q

What is the standard IV dose range of Naloxone for an adult opioid overdose?

A

1-4 mcg/kg IV

Dosing may vary based on clinical response.

152
Q

What is the onset time for Naloxone when given IV?

A

30 seconds to 2 minutes

Rapid onset is critical in emergency situations.

153
Q

How long does Naloxone typically last in the body?

A

1 to 4 hours

Duration of action may be shorter than some opioids.

154
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Naloxone?

A

It is a competitive antagonist at opioid receptors, especially mu-opioid receptors, blocking the effects of opioids

This mechanism helps to reverse the effects of opioid overdose.

155
Q

List two clinical situations where Naloxone is indicated.

A
  • Opioid overdose with respiratory depression
  • Post-operative opioid-induced sedation

Naloxone is used in emergencies and after surgeries to counteract sedation.

156
Q

What may occur if Naloxone is administered to an opioid-dependent patient?

A

Sudden and severe opioid withdrawal symptoms

Symptoms can include agitation, nausea, vomiting, and tachycardia.

157
Q

What is one possible side effect of Naloxone?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Agitation
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Tachycardia

These side effects may arise especially in opioid-dependent individuals.

158
Q

Why might repeat doses or a continuous infusion of Naloxone be necessary?

A

Because its duration of action is shorter than many opioids, leading to re-sedation

Continuous monitoring and administration may be required in severe overdoses.

NSU AA Denver Drugs and Inhalational Agents (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions