Adrenergic Agents Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Phenylephrine?

A

Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor agonist

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2
Q

What is a typical IV bolus dose of phenylephrine in anesthesia practice?

A

100 mcg

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3
Q

What is a primary clinical use of phenylephrine during surgery?

A

Hypotension treatment

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4
Q

Phenylephrine is most likely to cause which of the following side effects?

A

Reflex Bradycardia

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5
Q

What is the typical duration of action for IV phenylephrine?

A

10-15 minutes

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6
Q

Is Phenylephrine a pure alpha-1 adrenergic agonist?

A

Yes

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7
Q

Does Phenylephrine increase both blood pressure and heart rate?

A

No (It increases BP but may cause reflex bradycardia.)

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8
Q

Is Phenylephrine commonly used to treat intraoperative hypotension?

A

Yes

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9
Q

Is the onset of IV phenylephrine usually within 15–30 minutes?

A

No (Onset is typically within 30 seconds to 2 minutes.)

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10
Q

Can Phenylephrine be used as a nasal decongestant?

A

Yes

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11
Q

What is the onset time of IV phenylephrine?

A

Typically 30 seconds to 2 minutes

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12
Q

How long does IV phenylephrine typically last?

A

10-15 minutes

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13
Q

What is one common cardiovascular side effect of phenylephrine?

A

Reflex bradycardia

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14
Q

In what surgical or clinical scenario would phenylephrine be preferred over ephedrine?

A

In a patient with hypotension and tachycardia, where increasing blood pressure without stimulating the heart is preferred.

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15
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of phenylephrine.

A

Phenylephrine stimulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors, leading to vasoconstriction and increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR), which elevates blood pressure

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16
Q

Is a tachyphylaxis effect possibly seen with Phenylephrine (Neosynephrine) infusions?

A

Yes, titrate up as time goes on to negate

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17
Q

What receptors does epinephrine primarily act on?

A

Alpha-1, Beta-1, and Beta-2 (But also Alpha-2)

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18
Q

What is the typical IV bolus dose of epinephrine in ACLS for cardiac arrest?

A

0.5 - 1 mg

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19
Q

What is the onset of action for IV epinephrine?

A

30–90 seconds

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20
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of epinephrine?

A

Bradycardia

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21
Q

Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for which condition?

A

Anaphylaxis

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22
Q

Does Epinephrine cause both vasoconstriction and bronchodilation?

A

Yes

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23
Q

Do the effects of epinephrine last approximately 1–4 hours?

A

No (Effects are typically short-acting, lasting 5–10 minutes IV.)

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24
Q

Can Epinephrine be administered via intramuscular, subcutaneous, and IV routes?

A

Yes

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25
Q

Does Epinephrine only stimulate beta receptors?

A

No (It stimulates both alpha and beta receptors.)

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26
Q

Is Epinephrine contraindicated in anaphylaxis due to its cardiac effects?

A

No

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27
Q

What is the recommended IM dose of epinephrine for anaphylaxis in adults?

A

0.3–0.5 mg IM every 5–15 minutes as needed

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28
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of epinephrine.

A

Epinephrine is a non-selective adrenergic agonist that stimulates alpha-1 (vasoconstriction), beta-1 (increased heart rate and contractility), and beta-2 (bronchodilation and vasodilation) receptors.

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29
Q

What are three clinical uses for epinephrine?

A

Anaphylaxis, cardiac arrest, and severe asthma exacerbations.

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30
Q

What are two cardiovascular side effects of epinephrine?

A

Tachycardia and hypertension

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31
Q

What is the duration of action of IV epinephrine?

A

Approximately 5–10 minutes

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32
Q

In which clinical scenario would epinephrine be preferred over norepinephrine?

A

In anaphylaxis due to its combined alpha and beta agonist effects, including bronchodilation.

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33
Q

How are Epinephrine infusions made?

A

1 mg into a 250 ml bag of NS (typical bolus is 5-20 mcg)

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34
Q

What is the typical IV bolus dose of ephedrine for hypotension?

A

5–10 mg

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35
Q

What is the approximate onset time of IV ephedrine?

A

1–2 minutes

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36
Q

How long does the effect of a single IV dose of ephedrine typically last?

A

10–60 minutes

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37
Q

Which best describes the mechanism of action of ephedrine?

A

Direct and indirect sympathomimetic action

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38
Q

Which clinical situation is ephedrine commonly used in?

A

Hypotension due to spinal or epidural anesthesia

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39
Q

Does Ephedrine increase blood pressure primarily through vasoconstriction and increased cardiac output?

A

Yes

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40
Q

Is Ephedrine contraindicated in patients with tachycardia?

A

Yes

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41
Q

Are the effects of ephedrine shorter than those of phenylephrine?

A

No (Ephedrine generally has a longer duration.)

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42
Q

Does Ephedrine directly stimulate alpha and beta receptors and indirectly increases norepinephrine release?

A

Yes

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43
Q

Is Ephedrine metabolized quickly by monoamine oxidase (MAO)?

A

No (It is relatively resistant to MAO metabolism.)

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44
Q

What is the IV dosage range of ephedrine for treating hypotension?

A

5–10 mg IV bolus, repeated as needed up to a total dose of ~50 mg

45
Q

How does ephedrine work to increase blood pressure?

A

It acts as both a direct alpha/beta agonist and indirectly by stimulating norepinephrine release.

46
Q

What is the onset and duration of IV ephedrine?

A

Onset: 1–2 minutes; Duration: 10–60 minutes

47
Q

Name three side effects of ephedrine.

A

Tachycardia, hypertension, anxiety.

48
Q

In what clinical scenario would you prefer ephedrine over phenylephrine?

A

When hypotension is accompanied by bradycardia, since ephedrine increases both heart rate and blood pressure.

49
Q

What is the typical initial IV infusion dose for norepinephrine in hypotensive patients?

50
Q

What is the primary receptor type activated by norepinephrine?

A

Alpha-1 primarily, with some Beta-1 (some Alpha-2)

51
Q

Norepinephrine is most commonly used to treat which condition?

A

Septic shock-related hypotension

52
Q

What is the approximate onset of action of norepinephrine when given IV?

A

Immediate (within 1 minute)

53
Q

Which of the following is a common side effect of norepinephrine?

A

Reflex bradycardia

54
Q

Does Norepinephrine increase both systemic vascular resistance and heart rate?

A

No (It increases SVR and may cause reflex bradycardia.)

55
Q

Is the duration of action of norepinephrine approximately 1–2 minutes after discontinuation?

56
Q

Is Norepinephrine primarily an alpha-2 adrenergic receptor agonist?

A

No (It primarily stimulates alpha-1 receptors.)

57
Q

Can Extravasation of norepinephrine cause tissue necrosis?

58
Q

Is Norepinephrine the first-line vasopressor for septic shock?

59
Q

What is the usual starting dose of norepinephrine in adults?

A

2–4 mcg/min IV infusion, titrated to effect, typically given as infusion due to very short half-life

60
Q

What receptors does norepinephrine stimulate and what are the effects?

A

Alpha-1 (vasoconstriction leads to ↑ SVR & BP), Beta-1 (↑ contractility and cardiac output), minimal Beta-2 effects.

61
Q

What is the onset and duration of IV norepinephrine?

A

Onset: Immediate (within 1 minute); Duration: 1–2 minutes after stopping infusion.

62
Q

List three common side effects of norepinephrine.

A

Hypertension, reflex bradycardia, ischemia (extremities, mesenteric, or myocardial).

63
Q

Why is norepinephrine preferred over dopamine in septic shock?

A

It provides more predictable vasopressor effects with less arrhythmogenic potential.

64
Q

What is the typical IV bolus dose of labetalol?

A

5 mg, followed by doses of 5-20mg depending on desired ABP

65
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of labetalol?

A

Non-selective beta blocker with alpha-1 blocking activity (7:1)

66
Q

Which of the following is NOT a typical side effect of labetalol?

A

Reflex tachycardia

67
Q

How long after IV administration does labetalol typically begin to work?

A

2–5 minutes

68
Q

Labetalol is commonly used in which of the following clinical scenarios?

A

Acute hypertension in pregnancy

69
Q

Does Labetalol block both alpha-1 and beta-adrenergic receptors?

70
Q

Is the duration of action of IV labetalol typically 6–8 hours?

A

No (It’s approximately 2–4 hours.)

71
Q

Is Labetalol safe to use in patients with asthma?

A

No (It may cause bronchospasm due to beta-2 blockade.)

72
Q

Can Labetalol lower blood pressure without significantly affecting heart rate?

73
Q

Should Labetalol be avoided in patients with second or third-degree heart block?

74
Q

What is the IV onset time for labetalol?

A

2 to 5 minutes

75
Q

What is the mechanism of action of labetalol?

A

Labetalol is a mixed alpha-1 and non-selective beta-adrenergic receptor blocker that reduces blood pressure by decreasing systemic vascular resistance and heart rate.

76
Q

List three common side effects of labetalol.

A

Bradycardia, hypotension, dizziness

77
Q

What is the typical IV bolus dose and repeat dosing interval for labetalol in hypertensive emergency?

A

10–20 mg IV initially, then may repeat or double every 10 minutes until desired BP or up to 300 mg total

78
Q

When is labetalol commonly used?

A

Hypertensive emergencies, perioperative hypertension, and acute hypertension during pregnancy (e.g., preeclampsia).

79
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Esmolol?

A

Beta-1 selective antagonist

80
Q

What is the typical IV bolus dose of Esmolol?

81
Q

What is the onset time for Esmolol when given IV?

A

30–60 seconds

82
Q

Which of the following is a primary clinical use for Esmolol?

A

Rapid heart rate control in supraventricular tachycardia

83
Q

What is the approximate duration of action of Esmolol?

A

10–20 minutes

84
Q

Does Esmolol have a rapid onset and a short duration of action?

85
Q

Is Esmolol metabolized primarily by the liver?

A

No — It is metabolized by plasma esterases.

86
Q

Is Esmolol commonly used to manage acute tachycardia and intraoperative hypertension?

87
Q

Is Esmolol a non-selective beta-blocker?

A

No — It is beta-1 selective.

88
Q

Is Esmolol contraindicated in patients with bronchial asthma?

89
Q

What is the onset time for IV Esmolol?

A

30–60 seconds

90
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of Esmolol.

A

Esmolol is a cardioselective beta-1 adrenergic receptor blocker that decreases heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand.

91
Q

What is the half-life of Esmolol, and how is it metabolized?

A

Half-life is about 9 minutes; metabolized by plasma esterases.

92
Q

List two clinical scenarios where Esmolol is commonly used.

A

Control of supraventricular tachycardia, perioperative hypertension

93
Q

Name three side effects of Esmolol.

A

Bradycardia, hypotension, heart block

94
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of Metoprolol?

A

Beta-1 selective antagonist

95
Q

What is the typical IV dose of Metoprolol?

96
Q

What is the onset of action of intravenous Metoprolol?

A

5–10 minutes

97
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of Metoprolol?

98
Q

In which clinical scenario would Metoprolol be most appropriate?

A

Managing atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response (sustained tachycardia)

99
Q

Is Metoprolol selective for beta-1 adrenergic receptors at low doses?

100
Q

Is Metoprolol rapidly metabolized by plasma esterases?

A

No — It is metabolized by the liver (CYP2D6).

101
Q

Is one of the major uses of Metoprolol to control hypertension and arrhythmias?

102
Q

Should Metoprolol be used with caution in patients with heart block or severe bradycardia?

103
Q

Does Metoprolol have an effect on myocardial oxygen demand?

A

Yes — It reduces oxygen demand by decreasing heart rate and contractility.

104
Q

What is the onset time of IV Metoprolol?

A

Approximately 5–10 minutes

105
Q

Is Metoprolol the most common beta blocker a patient will be on?

106
Q

Describe how Metoprolol affects cardiac function.

A

It reduces heart rate, myocardial contractility, and cardiac output by selectively blocking beta-1 receptors.

107
Q

Name two clinical indications for Metoprolol use.

A

Atrial fibrillation with RVR, hypertension, angina, myocardial infarction.

108
Q

List three common side effects of Metoprolol.

A

Bradycardia, hypotension, fatigue, dizziness, and bronchospasm (especially in high doses or non-selective forms).