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NSU AA Denver Drugs and Inhalational Agents > Antiemetic Agents > Flashcards

Antiemetic Agents Flashcards

1
Q

What is the typical IV adult dose of Zofran for prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)?

A

4 mg

Zofran is commonly used in clinical settings for this indication.

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2
Q

What is the onset time of Zofran when administered IV?

A

5–10 minutes, 30 minutes peak effect

Rapid onset is critical for effective management of nausea.

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3
Q

What is the typical duration of action of a single IV dose of Zofran?

A

4–8 hours

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4
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Zofran?

A

Serotonin (5-HT₃) receptor antagonist

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5
Q

Which of the following is a common side effect of Zofran?

A

Headache

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6
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate clinical use of Zofran?

A

Preventing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting

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7
Q

Is Zofran effective in treating nausea caused by chemotherapy?

A

Yes

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8
Q

Does Zofran work by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain?

A

No (It blocks serotonin 5-HT₃ receptors)

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9
Q

Can Zofran cause QT prolongation as a side effect?

A

True

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10
Q

Is the onset time of Zofran approximately 5 to 10 minutes when given IV?

A

Yes

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11
Q

Is Zofran contraindicated in patients with known hypersensitivity to ondansetron?

A

Yes

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12
Q

Is Zofran a sedating anti-nausea medication?

A

No (It is generally non-sedating)

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13
Q

What is the standard IV dose of Zofran to prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting in adults?

A

4 mg IV given just before induction or at the end of surgery

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14
Q

What is the onset of action of IV Zofran?

A

Approximately 5–10 minutes

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15
Q

How long does a single dose of Zofran typically last?

A

4–8 hours

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16
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Zofran?

A

It is a selective 5-HT₃ receptor antagonist that blocks serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and gastrointestinal tract.

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17
Q

List two common clinical indications for Zofran.

A
  • Chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV)
  • Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)
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18
Q

Name two common side effects of Zofran.

A
  • Headache
  • Constipation
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19
Q

Why should Zofran be used cautiously in patients with a history of cardiac arrhythmias?

A

Because it can cause QT interval prolongation

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20
Q

What form(s) is Zofran available in?

A
  • IV injection
  • Oral tablet
  • Oral dissolving tablet (ODT)
  • Oral solution
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21
Q

What is the typical IV dose of Droperidol for postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)?

A

15 mcg/kg

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22
Q

What is the usual onset time of Droperidol after IV administration?

A

3–10 minutes

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23
Q

What is the typical duration of action of Droperidol?

A

4–6 hours

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24
Q

Which receptor does Droperidol primarily block to exert its antiemetic and sedative effects?

A

Dopamine D2

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25
Which of the following is a serious potential side effect of Droperidol?
QT interval prolongation
26
Droperidol is often used in conjunction with which other drug for neurolept anesthesia?
Fentanyl
27
Is Droperidol used to prevent and treat nausea and vomiting?
Yes
28
Does Droperidol have an effect on the QT interval?
Yes
29
Is Droperidol a dopamine receptor antagonist?
Yes
30
Can Droperidol cause sedation and extrapyramidal symptoms?
Yes
31
Has the FDA issued a black box warning for Droperidol due to the risk of life-threatening arrhythmias?
Yes
32
Should Droperidol be avoided in patients with a known prolonged QT interval?
Yes
33
What is the standard antiemetic dose of Droperidol for PONV in adults?
15 mcg/kg
34
What is the onset time for Droperidol when given intravenously?
3 to 10 minutes
35
How long does Droperidol typically last?
4 to 6 hours
36
What is the primary mechanism of action of Droperidol?
It is a dopamine (D2) receptor antagonist with central antiemetic and sedative effects.
37
List two clinical uses of Droperidol.
* Prevention and treatment of PONV * Adjunct to anesthesia for sedation
38
Why is it important to monitor cardiac rhythm in patients receiving Droperidol?
Because it can prolong the QT interval and increase the risk of torsades de pointes
39
Name two common side effects of Droperidol.
* Sedation * Hypotension
40
In what type of patient should Droperidol be used with caution or avoided?
Patients with prolonged QT interval, electrolyte abnormalities, or arrhythmias
41
What is the typical IV dose of Reglan used to treat nausea and vomiting in adults?
10 mg
42
What is the approximate onset of action for IV Reglan?
5–10 minutes
43
What is the usual duration of action of Metoclopramide?
2–4 hours
44
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Metoclopramide?
Dopamine (D2) receptor antagonist
45
What is a significant side effect of prolonged Metoclopramide use?
Tardive dyskinesia
46
Reglan is commonly used in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
Severe constipation due to opioids
47
Does Metoclopramide increase gastrointestinal motility?
Yes
48
Is Reglan a selective serotonin (5-HT₃) receptor blocker?
No, it’s a Cholinomimetic
49
Can Metoclopramide cause extrapyramidal symptoms such as dystonia and akathisia?
Yes
50
Is Reglan safe for long-term use in all patients?
No
51
Does Metoclopramide work by blocking dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone?
Yes
52
Does the black box warning for Reglan relate to the risk of developing tardive dyskinesia?
Yes
53
What is the usual adult IV dose of Reglan for nausea and vomiting?
10 mg IV
54
What is the onset of action for IV Metoclopramide?
5–10 minutes
55
How long do the effects of Reglan typically last?
2–4 hours
56
Describe the mechanism of action of Metoclopramide.
It is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist that increases GI motility and blocks nausea signals in the chemoreceptor trigger zone.
57
List two clinical indications for using Reglan.
* Postoperative nausea and vomiting * Diabetic gastroparesis
58
What are two major side effects of Metoclopramide?
* Extrapyramidal symptoms (e.g., dystonia, akathisia) * Tardive dyskinesia
59
Why should Reglan use be limited to short-term therapy?
Due to the risk of irreversible tardive dyskinesia with prolonged use
60
Name a patient population where caution is especially advised when prescribing Reglan.
Elderly patients or those with Parkinson’s disease
61
What is a typical adult IV or IM dose of Phenergan for nausea and vomiting?
6.25–25 mg
62
What is the approximate onset of action for Phenergan when given intramuscularly (IM)?
20 minutes
63
How long does the effect of Phenergan typically last?
4–12 hours
64
What is the primary mechanism of action of Promethazine?
H1 histamine receptor antagonist
65
Which of the following is a potential serious side effect of IV Phenergan administration?
Extravasation and tissue necrosis
66
Phenergan is commonly used in all of the following clinical scenarios EXCEPT:
Long-term treatment of depression
67
Does Phenergan have antiemetic, antihistamine, and sedative properties?
Yes
68
Does Phenergan act primarily on dopamine receptors?
No
69
Is Phenergan contraindicated in children under 2 years due to risk of respiratory depression?
Yes
70
Can Promethazine be given via the intra-arterial route?
No
71
Can Phenergan cause drowsiness and dry mouth as side effects?
Yes
72
Does Promethazine enhance the effects of opioids and other CNS depressants?
Yes
73
What is the typical adult IM or IV dose of Phenergan for nausea or sedation?
6.25–25 mg
74
What is the onset time of Phenergan when administered intramuscularly?
Around 20 minutes
75
How long does Phenergan's effect usually last?
4 to 12 hours
76
What is the mechanism of action of Phenergan?
It is a histamine (H1) receptor antagonist with anticholinergic, antiemetic, and sedative effects.
77
List two clinical uses of Phenergan.
* Treatment of nausea and vomiting * Preoperative sedation
78
Name two common side effects of Phenergan.
* Drowsiness * Dry mouth
79
Why should IV Phenergan be administered cautiously?
It can cause severe tissue injury if extravasation occurs.
80
In what scenario would you avoid using Phenergan?
In children under 2 years old due to risk of fatal respiratory depression

NSU AA Denver Drugs and Inhalational Agents (18 decks)

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