Ophthalmology 2021 Flashcards
In order to diagnose and confirm wet AMD, we should perform:
a) fluorescein angiography
b) pachymetry
c) perimetry
a - Fluorescein angiography allows visualization of blood flow in the retinal and choroidal vasculature, which is key in diagnosing wet AMD.
Ptosis is:
a) Inability to close the eyelids completely
b) Measured with an exophthalmometer
c) Measured by the distance between upper lid margin and corneal light reflex (MDR)
c - Ptosis is measured by the distance between the upper lid margin and corneal light reflex (MDR). It’s a drooping of the upper eyelid.
A patient who is myopic reports a sudden vision loss which covers the superior part of his vision. He describes it as a “falling curtain”. The most probable diagnosis is:
a) Retinal detachment
b) Glaucoma
c) Corneal ulcer
a - Retinal detachment. The “falling curtain” effect and sudden vision loss is often a sign of this condition.
A 25-year old male reports pain and blurring of vision of his left eye. He most likely suffers from:
a) Uveitis
b) Glaucoma
c) Retinal detachment
a - Uveitis. Symptoms can include pain, blurriness, and redness in the eye.
Which symptom is not typically connected with retinoblastoma?
a) Macular edema
b) White pupillary reflex (leukocoria)
c) Squint
a - Macular edema is not a typical symptom of retinoblastoma. Retinoblastoma is usually associated with symptoms such as a white pupillary reflex and possibly a squint.
What is the most common type of conjunctivitis?
a) Allergic
b) Viral
c) Bacterial
b - Viral conjunctivitis is the most common type, typically caused by adenovirus.
Intravitreal injections of VEG inhibitors are not used in:
a) Diabetic retinopathy
b) Wet AMD
c) Retinal detachment
c - Intravitreal injections of VEG inhibitors are not used in the treatment of retinal detachment. They are primarily used for conditions involving abnormal blood vessel growth like diabetic retinopathy and wet AMD.
What does DME stand for?
a) Dilated myotic effect
b) Densed macular edema
c) Diabetic macular edema
c - DME stands for Diabetic Macular Edema, a condition that can cause vision loss in people with diabetes.
What cannot be the cause of leukocoria?
a) Congenital cataract
b) Retinopathy of prematurity
c) Glaucoma
c - Glaucoma does not cause leukocoria (white pupillary reflex). It is generally associated with conditions affecting the retina or lens, such as retinoblastoma or congenital cataract.
For the diagnosis of age-related macular degeneration (AMD), which of the following is typically used?
a) Tonometry
b) Amsler Test
c) Ophthalmoscopic Evaluation
c) Ophthalmoscopic Evaluation
While the Amsler Test can detect some vision problems that might be due to Age-Related Macular Degeneration (AMD), the typical diagnosis of AMD is made with an ophthalmoscopic evaluation, which allows for a direct visualization of the changes in the retina that occur with this disease.
Between the ganglion cell layer and inner nuclear layer lays:
a) Inner plexiform layer
b) Inner and outer segments of photoreceptors
c) External limiting membrane
a - The inner plexiform layer lies between the ganglion cell layer and inner nuclear layer in the retina.
What value of c/d would be considered normal?
a) 1
b) 19
c) 0.2
c - A c/d ratio (cup-to-disc ratio) of 0.2 is within the normal range. Larger values may suggest glaucoma.
What can cause congenital cataract?
a) Rubella
b) All of the above
c) Down syndrome
b - All of the above. Congenital cataracts can be caused by many factors, including genetic conditions such as Down Syndrome and infections during pregnancy like rubella.
Between the cornea anteriorly and the lens and iris posteriorly lies the:
a) Anterior chamber
b) Ciliary body
c) Posterior chamber
a - The anterior chamber lies between the cornea anteriorly and the lens and iris posteriorly.
The power of the intraocular lens implant to be used in the operation is calculated beforehand by:
a) Measuring the curvature of the cornea (and thus optical power) optically
b) Measuring the length of the eye ultrasonically
c) Both a and b
c - The power of the intraocular lens implant is calculated both by measuring the curvature of the cornea (optically) and the length of the eye (ultrasonically).
The patient complains of a sudden painless loss of all or part of the vision. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a) Conjunctivitis
b) AMD
c) Central retinal artery occlusion
c - Sudden painless loss of vision can be indicative of Central retinal artery occlusion.
Which electrophysiological examination is used for assessment of visual pathway?
a) Pattern electroretinogram
b) Visually evoked potential
c) Multifocal electroretinogram
b - Visually evoked potential is used for the assessment of the visual pathway.
This is used extensively in ophthalmology to provide information about the vitreous, retina, and posterior coats of the eye, particularly when they cannot be clearly visualized:
a) Ultrasound
b) MRI
c) Keratometry
a - Ultrasound is used in ophthalmology to provide information about the vitreous, retina, and posterior coats of the eye.
Which of the following might suggest proliferative diabetic retinopathy? Select the best one.
a) Intravitreal hemorrhage
b) Discal exudates
c) Microaneurysms
a - Intravitreal hemorrhage could suggest proliferative diabetic retinopathy, which is a more advanced form of the disease.
A positive Seidel test occurs in:
a) Wet macular degeneration
b) Corneal perforation and leakage
c) Dry eye syndrome
b - A positive Seidel test indicates a corneal perforation and leakage.
This is a common painless condition in which an obstructed meibomian gland causes a granuloma within the tarsal plate:
a) An abscess
b) A stye
c) A chalazion
c - A chalazion is a common, painless condition where an obstructed meibomian gland causes a granuloma within the tarsal plate.
What can cause amblyopia?
a) All of the above
b) Strabismus
c) Congenital cataract
c - All of the above. Amblyopia, also known as “lazy eye,” can be caused by strabismus (misalignment of the eyes), congenital cataract, and other conditions that result in the eyes not focusing properly.
What is the description of a raised, usually pigmented, lesion visible at the back of the eye, which may be associated with an area of retinal detachment?
a) Astrocytoma
b) Melanoma
c) Age-related macular degeneration
b - Melanoma. Raised, pigmented lesions in the eye are often associated with ocular melanoma.
Which of the following is not a possible complication of uveitis?
a) Secondary glaucoma
b) Corneal ulcer
c) Secondary cataract
b - Corneal ulcer is not a common complication of uveitis. Uveitis can lead to complications such as secondary glaucoma and secondary cataract.
In the diagnosis of primary open-angle glaucoma, the following tests are performed:
a) Tonometry, Ophthalmoscopic Evaluation of the optic nerve disc, Field of view
b) OCT, fluorescein angiography, keratometry
c) Fluorescein angiography, Electroretinography, Hirschberg test
a - Tonometry, Ophthalmoscopic Evaluation of the optic nerve disc, and Field of view testing are used for diagnosing primary open-angle glaucoma.
A surface oil layer is produced by:
a) Conjunctival goblet cells
b) Lacrimal gland
c) Tarsal Meibomian glands
c - The surface oil layer of the tear film is produced by the tarsal (meibomian) glands.
What is the commonest cause of treatable blindness in the world?
a) Trachoma
b) Glaucoma
c) Cataract
c - Cataract is the commonest cause of treatable blindness worldwide.
A patient presents with redness of the eye, discharge, and ocular irritation. It is:
a) Bacterial conjunctivitis
b) Uveitis
c) Squint
a - The symptoms described are most consistent with bacterial conjunctivitis.
For the diagnosis of age-related macular degeneration (AMD), which of the following is not typically used?
a) Tonometry
b) OCT
c) Amsler Test
a - Tonometry is not typically used for the diagnosis of AMD. It is primarily used to measure the intraocular pressure and assist in diagnosing glaucoma.
