Ophthalmics Flashcards

1
Q

What receptor is targeted by the ocular drugs acetylcholine, pilocarpine, carbachol, and echothiophate? Are they agonists or antagonists, and direct or indirect acting?

A

Muscarinic receptor; all are agonists: acetylcholine, pilocarpine, and carbachol are direct, echothiophate is indirect

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2
Q

What are 2 therapeutic uses for acetylcholine, pilocarpine HCl, and carbachol in the eye? How do they work?

A

Reduce IOP in glaucoma and after cataract surgery; direct ACh agonists that cause pupillary constriction –> increased aqueous outflow

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3
Q

What disorder does echothiophate iodide treat, and how does it work?

A

Glaucoma; indirect muscarinic agonist that irreversibly binds AChE (increased ACh –> pupillary constriction –> increased aqueous outflow)

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4
Q

What side effects are associated with taking acetylcholine, pilocarpine HCl, carbachol, and echothiophate iodide?

A

muscarinic agonists cause SLUDGE (salivation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhea, GI irritation, emesis), and also bronchospasm

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5
Q

What receptor is targeted by the ocular drugs atropine, scopolamine, and homatropine, and how do they affect that receptor?

A

Muscarinic receptor antagonists

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6
Q

What receptor is targeted by the ocular drugs cyclopentolate and tropicamide, and how do they affect that receptor?

A

Muscarinic receptor antagonists

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7
Q

What are 2 therapeutic uses for atropine, scopolamine homatropine, cyclopentolate, and tropicamide?

A

Induce cycloplegia and mydriasis (ciliary muscle paralysis and pupil dilation) for eye exams, and improve comfort during uveitis (active eye inflammation)

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8
Q

Rank the 5 antimuscarinic agents in order from fastest to slowest recovery time.

A

Tropicamide (1/4 d) - cyclopentolate (1 d) - homatropine (1-3 d) - scopolamine (3-7 d) - atropine (7-12 d)

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9
Q

What side effects are associated with taking anticholinergics / muscarinic antagonists?

A

Insomnia, photophobia, urinary retention, and neurologic abnormalities (or: “dry as a bone, blind as a bat, red as a beet, mad as a hatter”)

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10
Q

Describe edrophonium: what kind of receptor does it affect, what is its mechanism of action, and what is its main therapeutic use?

A

Nicotinic (Nm) receptor agonist that works at the NMJ by destroying AChE. Used to diagnose myasthenia gravis

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11
Q

What receptors are targeted by the ocular drugs epinephrine, dipivefrin, hydroxyamphetamine, and cocaine; are they agonists or antagonists; and are they direct or indirect?

A

Adrenergic receptors; agonists; ephinephrine and its prodrug dipivefrin are direct while hydroxyamphetamine and cocaine are indirect

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12
Q

Which sympathetic agonist causes dilation of episcleral vessels in order to increase aqueous outflow? What ocular disease is it used to treat?

A

Epinephrine; glaucoma

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13
Q

Which sympathetic agonist prevents the reuptake of NE?

A

Cocaine

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14
Q

What sympathetic agonist is used to differentiate 1st and 2nd order neuron dysfunction from 3rd order neuron dysfunction in Horner’s syndrome, and how does it do so?

A

Hydroxyamphetamine. It causes NE release: if pupillary dilation occurs, the 3rd order neuron is intact, so the problem lies in a 1st or 2nd order neuron (more dangerous)

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15
Q

Which sympathetic agonist is a prodrug of epinephrine?

A

Dipivefrin

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16
Q

What receptors are targeted by the ocular drugs clonidine, apraclonidine, phenylephrine, and brimonidine tartrate, and are they agonists or antagonists?

A

Alpha adrenergic receptor agonists (phenylephrine targets α1, clonidine and brimonidine target α2, apraclonidine is nonspecific)

17
Q

Which alpha specific sympathetic agonist is an amino derivative of clonidine that does not cross the BBB, and how does this alter its effect compared to clonidine?

A

Apraclonidine, allows it to decrease IOP without greatly affecting systemic blood pressure (in contrast, clonidine lowers IOP through CNS effects)

18
Q

Which sympathetic agonist mimics NE? What effect does it have?

A

Phenylephrine (except that it is α1 specific); pupil dilation

19
Q

Which 2 ocular drugs can cause side effects of extrasystoles, palpitation, hypertension, myocardial infarction, trembling, paleness, and sweating?

A

Epinephrine and phenylephrine

20
Q

How does brimonidine tartrate act on the eye?

A

α2 agonism suppresses production of aqueous humor, which decreases IOP

21
Q

Give 2 situations where brimonidine tartrate is contraindicated.

A

Should not be used with follicular conjunctivitis or with MAOIs

22
Q

What receptors are targeted by the ocular drugs dapiprazole and tamsulosin, and are they agonists or antagonists?

A
Dapiprazole = non-specific α antagonist 
Tamsulosin = α1 specific antagonist
23
Q

Which sympathetic antagonist, no longer widely available, reverses the pupillary dilation effects of tropicamide and phenylephrine? How does it do so?

A

Dapiprazole, it blocks α adrenergic receptors in the smooth dilator muscle of the iris

24
Q

What alpha antagonist is mainly used to treat prostatic hypertrophy? How can it affect the eye?

A

Tamsulosin (α1 specific blocker); it prevents pupil dilation –> makes cataract surgery more difficult

25
Q

What receptors are targeted by the ocular drugs timolol, levobunolol, metipranolol, carteolol, and betaxolol, are they agonists or antagonists, and what are they all used to treat?

A

Beta adrenergic antagonists / β-blockers (betaxolol is β1 specific, levobunolol is β2 specific, the rest are nonspecific); all are used to treat glaucoma

26
Q

What glaucoma agent is contraindicated in patients with CHF or asthma?

A

Timolol

27
Q

What mechanism do all the beta-blockers employ to treat glaucoma?

A

They reduce IOP by suppressing production of aqueous humor at the ciliary process

28
Q

Which beta-blocker “doesn’t follow the rules” because it lacks significant intrinsic sympathomimetic activity?

A

Metipranolol (it has only weak effects on membrane stabilization and myocardial depression)

29
Q

What side effect may result from long-term bradycardia secondary to timolol use?

A

Tachyphylaxis (acute decrease in response to a drug)

30
Q

What receptors are targeted by the ocular drugs latanoprast, travoprost, bimatoprost and unoprostone isopryl, and are they agonists or antagonists?

A

Prostaglandin receptor agonists

31
Q

What mechanism do the prostaglandin analogs use to treat glaucoma?

A

Increase outflow of aqueous humor

32
Q

List 2 common side effects seen with the prostaglandin analog drugs, and 2 contraindications for their use.

A

Eyelash growth and change in iris color; contraindicated in patients with cystoid macular edema or herpes

33
Q

What is unique about the effectiveness of travoprost and unoprostone isopryl in treating glaucoma?

A

Travoprost is more effective in African Americans; unoprostone isopryl is the least effective overall

34
Q

Name the calcium channel blocker drug that is used to treat glaucoma. How does it work?

A

Nifedipine; increases ocular perfusion at the nerve head (does not act at the ciliary body or trabecular meshwork)

35
Q

What proteins are inhibited by the ocular drugs dorzolamide HCl, brinzolamide, and acetazolamide? How are these drugs administered?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors; dorzolamide HCl and brinzolamide are topical, acetazolamide is oral

36
Q

What disease do the carbonic anhydrase inhibitors treat, and how do they work?

A

Glaucoma; they reduce aqueous humor production by interfering with the Na/K ATPase pump

37
Q

What side effects are seen with the two topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

A

Red eyes and lid allergies (but far less systemic side effects than for acetazolamide)

38
Q

What ocular drug is contraindicated in patients with sulfonamide allergies?

A

Dorzolamide HCl