Operations Bulletins Flashcards by Xavier Velasquez

(Guidelines for Response to Vehicle Fires Ops Bull 1) Apparatus shall be positioned at least ___ feet from the involved vehicle.

100

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(Guidelines for Response to Vehicle Fires Ops Bull 1) Members shall place their SCBA in-service prior to approaching an involved vehicle, a minimum of ___ feet away.

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(Guidelines for Response to Vehicle Fires Ops Bull 1) Involved vehicles should be approached from the end opposite the fuel tank, and from a __-degree angle whenever possible.

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(FIREFIGHTING TACTICS FOR E85 FUEL Ops Bull 2) E85 fuel, an alternative fuel composed of __ percent ethanol and __ percent gasoline.

85, 15

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(FIREFIGHTING TACTICS FOR E85 FUEL Ops Bull 2) fires involving E85 should be treated differently than traditional gasoline fires, because E85 is a ______ ____ _____

polar/water-miscible
flammable liquid.

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(FIREFIGHTING TACTICS FOR E85 FUEL Ops Bull 2) According to the ERG2004, public safety should: As an immediate precautionary measure, isolate spill or leak area for at least __ meters
(___ feet) in all directions.

50, 150

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(FIREFIGHTING TACTICS FOR E85 FUEL Ops Bull 2) Be cautioned that these products have a ___ ____ ___; use of water spray when fighting fire may be inefficient.

very low flash point

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(FIREFIGHTING TACTICS FOR E85 FUEL Ops Bull 2) For a large spill, consider downwind evacuation for at least ___ meters (______ feet).

300, 1,000

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(FIREFIGHTING TACTICS FOR E85 FUEL Ops Bull 2) If tank, rail car or tank truck is involved in a fire, ISOLATE for ___ meters (1/2 mile) in all directions; also consider the evacuation for ___ meters (1/2 mile) in all directions.

800,800

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(FIREFIGHTING TACTICS FOR E85 FUEL Ops Bull 2) In case of contact with substance, immediately flush skin or eyes with running water for at least __ minutes; wash skin with soap and water.

20, soap and water

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(METRO CNG BUSES Ops Bull 3) The buses in the Metro fleet contain __ CNG tanks that operate at ____ PSI.

7, 3600

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(METRO CNG BUSES Ops Bull 3) Each tank is ___” long and ____” in diameter and weighs ___lbs.

120, 15.9, 269

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(METRO CNG BUSES Ops Bull 3) There are __ PRD’s (pressure relief devices) located in the roof area.

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(METRO CNG BUSES Ops Bull 3) The PRD’s (pressure relief devices) will activate at ____ PSI or when the tank is heated to ___ degrees (f).

5400, 220

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(METRO CNG BUSES Ops Bull 3) There are __ methane sensors located on the bus.

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(METRO CNG BUSES Ops Bull 3) 2 are in the tank compartment and 2 are
located in the engine compartment. The sensors alert the driver to leaks in 2 modes: “trace” and “significant”. If a “significant” alert is activated the ___________

engine will shut down.

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(METRO CNG BUSES Ops Bull 3) Temperature sensors are also located on the bus and release an extinguishing agent when reaching a temperature of ___ degrees (f).

280

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(METRO CNG BUSES Ops Bull 3) The 7 tanks are filled with a compressed natural gas that is mostly made up of Methane.__________ is added to give it a distinct odor.

Mercaptan

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(METRO CNG BUSES Ops Bull 3) CNG has a flash point of ____ degrees (f). For minor leaks remove ignition sources 100 feet and 300 feet for major leaks.

560

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(METRO CNG BUSES Ops Bull 3) What does CNG (Compressed Natural Gas) do to O2 in large volume and confined spaces?

displaces O2 and cause asphyxiation.

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(High Ladder Removal Kit Ops Bull 4) Wrapping the red prusiks around the desired rung ____ then securing it back to the high point carabiner.

Twice

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(High Ladder Removal Kit Ops Bull 4) High Ladder Removal Kit- A bag containing ___’ of 1⁄2” static kernmantle rope, a rope log, and a ____ mechanical advantage system. (2 swivel pulleys, 1 large (rescue) carabiner
and 1 small (high point) carabiner, and a prusik)

100, 2:1

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(HELICOPTERS – SPECIAL HAZARDS Ops Bull 5) The greatest danger after a helicopter crash is fire. All onlookers should be kept a minimum of ____ feet from the crash scene.

1500

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(HELICOPTERS – SPECIAL HAZARDS Ops Bull 5) Members should expect a potential ___ gallons of fuel on board the aircraft at any crash scene.

100

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(HELICOPTERS – SPECIAL HAZARDS Ops Bull 5) As a rule of thumb, where is the safest place to be in case of a helicopter crash?

the safest area of a crash is inside the helicopter.

(HELICOPTERS – SPECIAL HAZARDS Ops Bull 5) If the landing area will involve a street or thoroughfare it is important to stop all traffic in both directions ___ feet from the landing site.

150

(HELICOPTERS – SPECIAL HAZARDS Ops Bull 5) If the landing zone is in a field or park, a minimum diameter of ___ feet is preferred.

100

(HELICOPTERS – SPECIAL HAZARDS Ops Bull 5) Magnesium: lightweight, silvery white metal that melts and ignites at approximately ____ degrees Fahrenheit. It will react violently with water and depending on the volume involved a ________ extinguishers are required.

1,200 , Class D (dry powder)

(HELICOPTERS – SPECIAL HAZARDS Ops Bull 5) Aluminum: Lightweight and will loose structural support at the melting point of ___ degrees Fahrenheit to ___ degrees Fahrenheit.

700-800

(HELICOPTERS – SPECIAL HAZARDS Ops Bull 5) The fuel cells in helicopters are usually located in the ___ of the aircraft.

floor

(Rope Assisted Search Procedure Ops Bull 06) Retractable Tether - Retractable 20’ of 6mm Kevlar over polyester rope, carried in a flame-resistant pouch. The search kit will contain _____ personal ropes.

(Rope Assisted Search Procedure Ops Bull 06) The end of the Primary Search Line will be secured to a substantial object outside of the hazard area between knee and waist high (___ feet off ground).

2-3

(THERMAL IMAGING CAMERAS Ops Bull 7) On the TIC, cooler temperatures are ___, warmer are _____ and, as temperatures increase, images are shown in ______ and _____.

Blue, White, Yellow and Red

(THERMAL IMAGING CAMERAS Ops Bull 7) the TIC will automatically operate between what’s called LOW and HIGH sensitivity modes. The HIGH sensitivity mode operates up to approximately ___°F.

300

(THERMAL IMAGING CAMERAS Ops Bull 7) With the general understanding that flashover is forthcoming at or around ____° F

1,100

(THERMAL IMAGING CAMERAS Ops Bull 7) The _____ and ______ Company officers shall carry and operate their assigned TIC on all structure fire assignments.

Engine, Truck

(THERMAL IMAGING CAMERAS Ops Bull 7) Who on the squad has a TIC

All rescue squad A and B team members

(THERMAL IMAGING CAMERAS Ops Bull 7) All defective thermal imaging cameras shall be placed out of service, tagged with a detailed description of repairs needed, sent to the ___ ___ and a journal entry made with particulars.

Mask Room

(THERMAL IMAGING CAMERAS Ops Bull 7) Bullard NXT _ One RED segment flashing (at least __ minutes of runtime remains)

(THERMAL IMAGING CAMERAS Ops Bull 7) Seek Reveal FirePRO will provide up to __ hours of scanning time with a full charge.

(Fire Watch Detail Ops Bull 9) If a fire watch cannot be implemented within __hour (__ minutes) or the problem mitigated, it will be the responsibility of the Fire Marshal's Office representative to remain on the scene and institute a call back for Fire Prevention personnel to institute a fire watch.

1, 60

(Fire Watch Detail Ops Bull 9)It is the ____ responsibility to request the "fire watch" be discontinued once the fire protection system has been fully restored or the hazardous situation has been abated.

Owner's

(CLASSIFICATION OF ELECTRICAL EMERGENCIES Ops Bull 10) Emergencies involving electrical utility service shall be classified according to the degree of hazard. How many Priorities?

Priority One: Life Threatening Priority Two: Prohibits Resolution and Could Escalate If Not Controlled Priority Three: Investigations

(Water Supply Engine Company Standard Operating Guidelines Ops Bull 11) What companies complete a Water Supply Task Force?

(3) Water Supply Engine Companies and a Battalion Fire Chief

(Water Supply Engine Company Standard Operating Guidelines Ops Bull 11) If extra personnel are available, the Water Supply Engines (WSE) may be staffed as _____ or ________ depending on the needs of the Department.

driver only or fully staffed

(Water Supply Engine Company Standard Operating Guidelines Ops Bull 11) When will the Water Supply Task Force be dispatched ?

on all 2nd Alarm incidents or when specifically requested by the Incident Command.

(Water Supply Engine Company Standard Operating Guidelines Ops Bull 11) The Water Supply Engine must Identify a water source ideally greater than ___ gpm in the area.

1,500

(11th Street Bridge Standpipe System Ops Bull 12) The Fire Boat will charge the necessary standpipe system at __ psi until the standpipe is full and pump gauges stabilize. Engine Companies can request additional pressure for a maximum of ___ psi.

60, 150

(11th Street Bridge Standpipe System Ops Bull 12) During training, testing or operating during an emergency, if personnel identify damage or missing component parts to a standpipe(s) they are to notify ______ to notify DDOT to respond as to repair the system

HSEMA

(Tower Ladder Operations Ops Bull 15) __-foot aerial boom (94 feet @ 75 degrees can make the 8th/9th floor)

(Tower Ladder Operations Ops Bull 15) Platform is rated at ____ pounds, at any angle or extension, even while flowing water at maximum capacity.

1000

(Tower Ladder Operations Ops Bull 15) Aerial boom can go from ____ degrees below grade to __ degrees.

9 degrees to 75 degrees

(Tower Ladder Operations Ops Bull 15) Single anchor/lifting point at the base section of the aerial boom. This anchor/lifting point is rated for ____ pounds with the boom fully retracted.

5000

(Tower Ladder Operations Ops Bull 15) Two (2) anchor/lifting points underneath of the platform rated at ___ pounds each for a total of ___ pounds.

500, 1000

(Tower Ladder Operations Ops Bull 15) Capable of flowing _____ GPM with a full 1000-pound bucket load.

1000

(Tower Ladder Operations Ops Bull 15) The platform monitor normally has a 1 1⁄2-inch tip in place. Tower Ladder 3 has the capability of increasing up to a __-inch tip if necessary.

(Tower Ladder Operations Ops Bull 15) When supplying Tower Ladder 3, water shall be supplied through one (1) 5-inch supply line when possible. Tower Ladder 3 carries ___ feet of 5-inch supply line.

150

(Tower Ladder Operations Ops Bull 15) The Engine Company supplying Tower Ladder 3 shall provide ___ PSI at the inlet.

150

(Electric Vehicles Ops Bull 16) Even a minor lithium-ion battery fire could take up to ___ gallons of water to extinguish and routinely will need approximately 2,600 gallons of water and may take several hours to extinguish.

20,000

(Electric Vehicles Ops Bull 16) What does the Haz Mat unit carry for EV (Electric Vehicle) fire?

two Bridgehill Car Fire Blankets.

(Electric Vehicles Ops Bull 16) The Car Fire Blanket is 6 x 8-meter quartz fabric combined with a heat coating can that can withstand temperatures of ____°C for __ hours.

1500, 48

(Electric Vehicles Ops Bull 16) The Bridgehill blanket can be deployed with two firefighters and reused up to __ times.

(Electric Vehicles Ops Bull 16) An EV that has had a lithium-ion battery involved fire shall not be towed until ensuring that no fire, smoke, audible popping/hissing, or heating is present in the high voltage battery for at least __ minutes.

(Electric Vehicles Ops Bull 16) EVs should be kept at least __ feet from any combustible materials when stored post-fire.

(Hydrant Inspection Program Ops Bull 17) Inspections will begin at ___ hours.

0800Hrs

(Lithium-Ion Battery Energy Storage Systems and Battery Energy Storage Systems Emergencies Ops Bull 18) If it is determined that a BESS fire is occurring within an enclosed unventilated standalone structure or compartment, an exclusionary zone should be established with a minimum of __ feet in all directions.

(Lithium-Ion Battery Energy Storage Systems and Battery Energy Storage Systems Emergencies Ops Bull 18) This exclusionary zone should be increased to ___’ around system exterior openings such as ventilation openings, vent shafts and windows.

100

(Lithium-Ion Battery Energy Storage Systems and Battery Energy Storage Systems Emergencies Ops Bull 18) If Command directs the application or water, a __-degree fog pattern or greater will be used.

(Lithium-Ion Battery Energy Storage Systems and Battery Energy Storage Systems Emergencies Ops Bull 18) Approach and application of water should occur from the sides of the BESS and at a distance of __ feet utilizing a __-degree fog or greater.

15, 10

(Lithium-Ion Battery Energy Storage Systems and Battery Energy Storage Systems Emergencies Ops Bull 18) For residential units, crews should maintain a distance of at least __ feet in any direction. Hose streams should be at a __° fog pattern or wider.

15, 10

(ELEVATORS - RELEASE OF ENTRAPPED PERSONS Rescue Ops Bull 1) Where must you bring an elevator when dealing with a stalled elevator?

bring the car to the nearest floor landing.

(ELEVATORS - RELEASE OF ENTRAPPED PERSONS Rescue Ops Bull 1) Elevators used in the Metro Rail System are of two (2) types:

Electric Traction and Hydraulic.

(ELEVATORS - RELEASE OF ENTRAPPED PERSONS Rescue Ops Bull 1) Hydraulic elevators are utilized throughout the Metro Rail System and are primarily used for service between ____ and ____ levels.

mezzanine and platform

(ELEVATORS - RELEASE OF ENTRAPPED PERSONS Rescue Ops Bull 1) UNDER NO CIRCUMSTANCES SHALL THE BRAKES ON THE ELEVATOR BE RELEASED TO ALLOW THE ELEVATOR TO MOVE TO A _______

Landing

(ELEVATORS - RELEASE OF ENTRAPPED PERSONS Rescue Ops Bull 1) To fix any elevator procedure there must be used with minimum of ___persons and ___ portable radios.

5, 2

(AIR BAG-EQUIPPED VEHICLES Rescue Bull 03) After a vehicle collision personal contact with the steering wheel hub should be avoided for at least __ minutes after deployment.

(AIR BAG-EQUIPPED VEHICLES Rescue Bull 03) The air bag is designed to inflate normally in the event that a vehicle fire causes the canister to be heated above ___' F.

300

(AIR BAG-EQUIPPED VEHICLES Rescue Bull 03) Be cognizant of the position of the Rescuer in relation to the un-deployed airbags. If possible, a minimum of ___-___ inches of space should be between the rescuer and the path of an un-deployed airbag.

10-14

(AIR BAG-EQUIPPED VEHICLES Rescue Bull 03) CARE MUST BE TAKEN WHEN OPERATING AROUND AIRBAGS. THIS IS A PRIMARY REASON WHY MEMBERS ARE TO _____ THE BATTERY OR BATTERIES AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

Disconnect

(Structural Collapse Incidents Rescue Bull 04) With the exception of the first due Engine, units shall initially stage at one location a minimum of _____ feet from the incident

1500

(Structural Collapse Incidents Rescue Bull 04) Cave-In Task Force includes what?

2 Eninges, 15Engine and closest engine Truck 2 squads, Rescue 3 and closest SpecOps BFC Collapse Unit Collapse Support Unit HazMat 1 BLS 1 ALS EMS Supervisor Air Unit

(Structural Collapse Incidents Rescue Bull 04) First Arriving Engine is responsible for what ?

Shall secure the scene and preform initial size-up

(Structural Collapse Incidents Rescue Bull 04) First Due Truck is responsible for what?

Safety

(CONFINED SPACE EMERGENCIES Rescue Bull 05) Who will be the lead lead unit for confined space rescue

Squad 2

(CONFINED SPACE EMERGENCIES Rescue Bull 05) Position apparatus no closer than ___ feet. Shut down vehicle engines.

100

(CONFINED SPACE EMERGENCIES Rescue Bull 05) Who Shall secure the scene and perform initial Size-up.

Engine Company

(CONFINED SPACE EMERGENCIES Rescue Bull 05) Who Shall be responsible for removal of electric power, ventilation, and safety.

Truck Company

(CONFINED SPACE EMERGENCIES Rescue Bull 05) The victim must be visible from the entrance to the confined space and no more than __ feet in any direction from the entrance to the space.

(CONFINED SPACE EMERGENCIES Rescue Bull 05) Where will all other unit stage?

All other units will stage a block away in line of approach.

(TUNNELS UNDER CONSTRUCTION Rescue Bull 05B) Entry into tunnels or vertical shafts for a rescue shall be made by a team consisting of not less than ____personnel trained in tunnel rescue procedures.

(TUNNELS UNDER CONSTRUCTION Rescue Bull 05B) It shall be the responsibility of Rescue Squad Co. ___ to perform daily inspections and maintenance on the Tunnel Rescue Support Unit,

(TUNNELS UNDER CONSTRUCTION Rescue Bull 05B) Tunnel emergencies can be broken down into two basic classifications ______ and _______

Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH) and non-IDLH.

(TUNNELS UNDER CONSTRUCTION Rescue Bull 05B) Atmospheric monitoring will occur continually during occupancy of a tunnel using Area Rae, and Multi Rae Lite meters, and recorded by the Haz-Mat Unit in ___ minute intervals.

(TUNNELS UNDER CONSTRUCTION Rescue Bull 05B) Vertical shafts leading to tunnels can be 100 ft. deep. Any member operating within __ ft. of the shaft shall be in a Class 3 harness and tethered to an anchor point.

(HIGH ANGLE / ROPE RESCUE EMERGENCIES Rescue Bull 6) Rescue Squad #__ is the lead unit for any high angle rescues

(HIGH ANGLE / ROPE RESCUE EMERGENCIES Rescue Bull 6) Position apparatus no closer than ___ feet away from the operation area, whether being a structural or geographical area.

100

(HIGH ANGLE / ROPE RESCUE EMERGENCIES Rescue Bull 6) All personnel operating at or within ___' of the edge of any height shall be tethered to an anchor point.

(HIGH ANGLE / ROPE RESCUE EMERGENCIES Rescue Bull 6) Where do all units stage ?

All other units shall stage one block away in line of approach.

(HIGH ANGLE / ROPE RESCUE EMERGENCIES Rescue Bull 6) Who establishes Level 3 Accountability?

Engine Company

(TRENCH/EXCAVATION COLLAPSE INCIDENTS Rescue Bull 08) Responding companies shall position apparatus no closer than ___' to the trench/excavation.

200 feet

(TRENCH/EXCAVATION COLLAPSE INCIDENTS Rescue Bull 08) All apparatus shall be ___ ____. All construction equipment on the site shall be left in position and shut down.

shut down

(TRENCH/EXCAVATION COLLAPSE INCIDENTS Rescue Bull 08) Under no circumstances will any member attempt to enter any unshored or otherwise unstable trench or excavation, until deemed safe and approved by the ____ ______.

Incident Commander

(TRENCH/EXCAVATION COLLAPSE INCIDENTS Rescue Bull 08) No more than ___ members shall be utilized for recon/size-up.

(TRENCH/EXCAVATION COLLAPSE INCIDENTS Rescue Bull 08) Members approaching an excavation for recon/size-up shall do so from the ______ portion of the excavation.

narrowest

(TRENCH/EXCAVATION COLLAPSE INCIDENTS Rescue Bull 08) What are the responsibilities of the Truck Company ?

(a) Establish Level III Accountability. (b) Establish exclusionary zone around and adjacent to the affected area at least 200 feet in all directions to prevent entry and remove civilians from the immediate area. (c) Eliminate sources of vibration at least 500 feet in all directions initially. Restrict traffic, commercial rail lines, METRO, construction work, and shut down apparatus and heavy equipment.

(TRENCH/EXCAVATION COLLAPSE INCIDENTS Rescue Bull 08) Where do all other units stage ?

All other units will stage a block away in line of approach.

(Incidents Involving Streetcars Rescue Bull 09) Traction power sub-stations (TPSS) supply the catenary system. They take in 13,000v AC from PEPCO, step it down to ___ volts and covert it to DC voltage.

750

(Incidents Involving Streetcars Rescue Bull 09) The catenary lines are supported over the rails by catenary poles at a height of approximately __ feet from grade.

(Incidents Involving Streetcars Rescue Bull 09) An emergency shutdown box is located ________ each TPSS (Traction power sub-stations)

outside

(Incidents Involving Streetcars Rescue Bull 09) **As with any high voltage power line, personnel (and equipment) must maintain a safe distance of a minimum of ___’ away from the catenary power lines at all times when energized.

(Incidents Involving Streetcars Rescue Bull 09) There are three power sources available to the Streetcar:

* The pantograph receives electric power from the OCS to run the streetcar and charge batteries. * Main batteries provide electrical energy to the motors to move streetcar under battery power only. * Auxiliary batteries provide 24 volts DC for “control voltage” (Inekon cars only).

(Incidents Involving Streetcars Rescue Bull 09) **It must be noted that electrical capacitors located on the top of the Streetcar may remain energized for up to ___ minutes after catenary power is removed.

(Incidents Involving Streetcars Rescue Bull 09) The quickest way to de-energize the Streetcar is to have the Streetcar operator _____ __ ________

lower the pantograph.

(Incidents Involving Streetcars Rescue Bull 09) Lookouts are to be posted when operating in ballasted right of way __’ to ___’ feet at each end of an Incident to watch for unexpected streetcar movement. Lookouts must have a portable radio and hand light for flagging.

50, 100

(Incidents Involving Streetcars Rescue Bull 09) Do not cross tracks between standing cars or equipment, unless the equipment is at least ___’ apart.

10 feet

(Incidents Involving Streetcars Rescue Bull 09) Personnel will ensure that ___ wheel chocks are placed on a wheel on each side of a car, in front of and behind each wheel.

(Incidents Involving Streetcars Rescue Bull 09) Whenever the potential for fire involvement of the catenary system exists, or the pantograph cannot be lowered or if there are catenary wires down in the immediate area or on the Streetcar, units will ___ ____until power has been shut down by the SCC and grounded.

protect exposures

(Incidents Involving Streetcars Rescue Bull 09) Catenary poles will be in _______ of tracks

Center

(CHEMTREC HazMat Bull 01) If on the scene conditions are such that the Commanding Officer is unable to communicate directly with CHEMTREC, he or she shall contact ______ by radio to request the desired information.

Communications

(CHEMTREC HazMat Bull 01) When is ChemTrec available?

24hrs, 7 Days/week

(WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 02) Establish a command post _________ from the incident in an area that does not interfere with the operational aspects of the incident.

upwind/uphill

(WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 02) Utilize the HazMat Unit to identify/establish __/__/__ zones.

hot/warm/cold

(WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 02) With the exception of the First Due Engine Company, all other units dispatched on a WM incident should initially stage at one location a minimum of __ ______ upwind and uphill of the reported incident.

2 blocks

(WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 02) If explosive material is involved, units should stage a minimum of _____ feet from the incident.

1500

(WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 02)“Standard PBI turnout gear with SCBA provides a first responder with sufficient protection from nerve agent vapor hazards inside interior or downwind areas of the hot zone to allow __ minutes rescue time

(WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 02) “Self-taped turnout gear with SCBA provides sufficient protection in an unknown nerve agent environment for a ___-minute reconnaissance to search for living victims (or a 2-minute reconnaissance if HD [blister agent] is suspected.”

(WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 02) Should Air Purifying Respirators (APRs) with the NBC canister filter (C2A1) in the Hot Zone?

(WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 02) In what zone should the Air Purifying Respirators (APRs) be utilized in?

warm zone

(WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 02) Decontamination flushing/showering times are incident specific and are influenced by agent type, level of contamination, clothing type and other factors with recommended flushing/showering times being ___ to ____ minutes under ideal situations.

2 to 3

(WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 02) Two engine companies would be positioned approximately __ feet apart and a decontamination corridor between the apparatus would be formed.

(WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 02) The Corridor Decontamination System utilizes fire apparatus and salvage covers to create a privacy barrier and corridor to process victims through for decontamination. This procedure is accomplished by parking fire apparatus approximately __ feet apart and parallel to each other

(WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 02) The First Due Engine Company shall cautiously approach the incident scene from upwind/uphill and shall stop a minimum of ____ feet from the incident site or where casualties or damage are first encountered and shall begin serving as a reconnaissance company.

500

(BOMBING INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 03) EXPLOSIVE DEVICES - Types of Explosive ( 3 types)

Pyrotechnics Low Order Explosives High Order Explosives

(BOMBING INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 03) The Effects of Detonated Explosives - 3 types

Blast Pressure - Severe injuries to internal organs may result from blast pressure. Fragmentation Thermal Effects - Sometimes called incendiary effects, heat is generated by the detonation and appears briefly as a fire ball that may be up to 3650 degrees F lasting no more then 0.5 seconds. Sever burns may be caused to those closest to the explosion with lung damage from inhalation of hot gases.

(BOMBING INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 03) Five forms of stimuli or “insults” that initiate explosions include:

heat, friction, impact, electrostatic discharge and shock.

(BOMBING INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 03) what are the 2 types of targets?

Hard Target Soft Target

(BOMBING INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 03) What are the type of blast injuries ?

Type I Blast Injuries – Blast Pressure Injuries Type II Blast Injury – Flying Debris Injuries Type III Blast injury – Victim Thrown into Objects

(BOMBING INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 03) Units shall stage at one location, a minimum of ____ feet from the incident. This distance may be increased or decreased as more information about the specific threat becomes known.

1500

(BOMBING INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 03) If a suspected device is located at the incident site or a device is detonated while units are in staging, all officers and members shall not transmit on mobile or portable radios within ___ feet of the incident site.

500

(BOMBING INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 03) All Department issue portable and vehicle mounted cellular phones, as well as personal cellular phones must be turned ____ when operating within 500 feet of the incident.

Off

(BOMBING INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 03) A size-up report from this location (at least ___ feet from the scene) shall be given on the tactical channel per current radio procedures.

500

(BOMBING INCIDENTS HazMat Bull 03) If a complete bomb sweep is not underway after ___ minutes from arrival, the Incident Commander will consider removing rescuers to a safe location until cleared by EOD.

(RADIOLOGICAL INCIDENT GUIDELINES HazMat Bull 04) If responding to an explosion or an event with numerous people down or incapacitated, every effort should be made to approach the incident from uphill and upwind. Additionally, begin approach ___ feet from incident or at the edge of debris field.

300

(RADIOLOGICAL INCIDENT GUIDELINES HazMat Bull 04) If initial fire department personnel are NOT equipped with radiological dosimeters they may conduct life saving operations for a maximum of __ minutes.

(CONTROL OF CITY GAS HazMat Bull 05) Gas Emergencies Can Be Classified into Four Basic Situations:

1. Gas escaping outside. 2. Gas burning outside 3. Gas escaping inside 4. Gas burning inside

(CONTROL OF CITY GAS HazMat Bull 05) _______ of a turn either clockwise or counter clockwise will stop the flow of gas.

1/4

(CONTROL OF CITY GAS HazMat Bull 05) Curb Gate Valve - Remove the valve box top and turn the hand wheel or 2” square operating head clockwise until the valve resists further turning;___ to ___ turns depending on the size of the valve.

six to twenty

(CONTROL OF CITY GAS HazMat Bull 05) Gas valves located in streets and alleys should _____________

not be operated

(CONTROL OF CITY GAS HazMat Bull 05) Natural Gas Fueling Stations - Fill pressure at the outlet of the fueling nozzle is approximately ____ psi, with emergency shutoffs located at different locations for each application

3000

(FLAMMABLE GAS LEAKING INSIDE A BUILDING HazMat Bull 05A) Any readings found above __% of the Lower Explosive Limit (LEL) will be cause for the building to be evacuated, Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) to be placed in service, and the gas and electric companies to be notified.

(FLAMMABLE GAS LEAKING INSIDE A BUILDING HazMat Bull 05A) Prior to ventilating buildings with readings greater than 10% of the LEL, the Incident Commander will establish what 3 things?

- collapse zones - request both Washington Gas and PEPCO (for power removal if needed) - assign a Rapid Intervention Group.

(FLAMMABLE GAS LEAKING INSIDE A BUILDING HazMat Bull 05A) First Due Engine and Truck must stop of a minimum of how many feet away?

200 ft

(Propane Emergencies HazMat Bull 05B) Propane is a highly flammable gas and is explosive in concentrations between ___% (LEL) and ____% (UEL) total volume in air.

2.1, 9.6

(Propane Emergencies HazMat Bull 05B) If the liquid is released directly into the air, the lack of pressure quickly vaporizes it, expanding to ___ times its original volume.

270

(Propane Emergencies HazMat Bull 05B) Propane vapor is ______ times heavier than air.

1 1/2

(Propane Emergencies HazMat Bull 05B) All responding units shall approach the area with caution, stopping apparatus a minimum of ___ feet prior to the reported address.

200

(Propane Emergencies HazMat Bull 05B) Since propane is heavier than air, units shall approach the fire or leak from ___/___ and avoid low lying areas.

upwind/uphill

(Propane Emergencies HazMat Bull 05B) For outdoor incidents, units shall immediately evacuate and maintain an exclusionary zone with an initial ___ foot radius around a leaking container.

(Propane Emergencies HazMat Bull 05B) When direct-reading monitoring equipment becomes available, units shall establish a hot zone at ___% of LEL and a warm zone at ___% of LEL.

10, 1

(Propane Emergencies HazMat Bull 05B) For gas vapor dissipation, at least a ___ GPM fog stream will be needed to direct a vapor cloud effectively.

125

(Propane Emergencies HazMat Bull 05B) Keep clear of ____ ____ if fire is impinging on the tank.

tank ends

(Propane Emergencies HazMat Bull 05B) For cooling, a ____ GPM fog stream shall be directed at the point of each flame impingement.

500

(CARBON MONOXIDE INVESTIGATIONS HazMat Bull 06) S.C.B.A. shall be placed in service in any atmosphere containing carbon monoxide at or over ___ parts per million.

(Propane Emergencies HazMat Bull 05B) What does BLEVE stand for ?

Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion

(CARBON MONOXIDE INVESTIGATIONS HazMat Bull 06) ____ firefighters shall enter to perform a quick search and evacuation.

(CARBON MONOXIDE INVESTIGATIONS HazMat Bull 06) ___ ___ ventilate the building until after confirming and locating the source of the leak.

do not

(Carbon Dioxide Emergencies HazMat Bull 07) Oxygen levels below ___% and/or carbon dioxide levels above ______ ppm (4%) in a given area create an Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH) atmosphere.

19.5, 40,000

(Carbon Dioxide Emergencies HazMat Bull 07) The building shall not be returned to the owner/occupant until carbon dioxide levels fall and remain below ____ ppm (indoor air quality standards).

1,000

(Carbon Dioxide Emergencies HazMat Bull 07) Relative Vapor Density of ____ (making it _____ times heavier than air), CO2 can displace enough oxygen in small, poorly ventilated rooms, basements, and other low-lying areas to create IDLH environments.

1.53

(Carbon Dioxide Emergencies HazMat Bull 07) Building Carbon Dioxide Alarms- Generally, these monitors are set to alarm at ______ppm (1.5% concentration) for the low-level alarm and at _____ppm (3% concentration) for high-level alarm.

15,000 , 30, 000

(ILLICIT LABORATORIES HazMat Bull 08) many laboratories contain the chemical_____ and ______

potassium cyanide and hydrochloric acid.

(ILLICIT LABORATORIES HazMat Bull 08) Flush affected skin areas with running water continuously for a minimum, of ___ minutes. Water temperature must not be too warm or cold or it will increase the damage from the original chemical.

(“GO BAGS” HazMat Bull 12) Replacement of lost or stolen “Go Bag” will require a special report to the Assistant Fire Chief - _____ and F&EMS Form__.

Services, 97

(“GO BAGS” HazMat Bull 12) Any use of the “Go Bag” or its contents, on an actual incident shall be documented by submitting an F&EMSD Form _____. Also, a Special Report will be submitted to the Deputy Fire Chief, Special Operations.

53.1

(Technical Decontamination HazMat Bull 13) The Technical Decon Task Force (TDTF) is comprised of one engine and one truck company. Generally, a combination of ___, ___, ___, ___will be dispatched and will be responsible for the set-up and management of the technical decon area.

Engine 6, Engine 26, Truck 4 and Truck 15

(Mass Decon Task Force Organization HazMat Bull 15) A Mass Decon Task Force is comprised of what?

of one (1) Engine Company and (1) Truck Company, a decon trailer and a van.

(Mass Decon Task Force Organization HazMat Bull 15) Mass Decon Task Force #1 is managed and supported by:

Engine Company #4 and Truck Company #9.

(Mass Decon Task Force Organization HazMat Bull 15) Mass Decon Task Force #2 is managed and supported by:

Engine Company #8 and Truck Company #7.

(Mass Decon Task Force Organization HazMat Bull 15) Mass Decon Task Force #3 is managed and supported by:

Engine Company #25 and Truck Company #16.

(Mass Decon Task Force Organization HazMat Bull 15) To ensure that the members stay current on their skills and knowledge, the Task Force Companies shall drill ____.

monthly

(NERVE AGENT ANTIDOTE DEPLOYMENT PLAN EMS Bull 2) As a general guideline, incidents comprising less than ___ severely exposed victims should be manageable using these DuoDote Auto-Injectors.

(NERVE AGENT ANTIDOTE DEPLOYMENT PLAN EMS Bull 2) DuoDote Auto-Injectors are stored in sealed Pelican cases. If, during inspection, one of these cases is found to have a broken or missing seal, notify _______.

EMS-7

(NERVE AGENT ANTIDOTE DEPLOYMENT PLAN EMS Bull 2) Which Companies carry 90 units of DuoDote?

Rescue Squad 1, 2, & 3 EMS-7 Hazmat 1, 2

(NERVE AGENT ANTIDOTE DEPLOYMENT PLAN EMS Bull 2) Which Companies carry 60 units of DuoDote?

Battalion Chief of EMS Special Operations Battalion Chief Fire Boat

(NERVE AGENT ANTIDOTE DEPLOYMENT PLAN EMS Bull 2) Which Companies carry 30 units of DuoDote?

EMS 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 Special Event Supervisors (deployed during special events)

(NERVE AGENT ANTIDOTE DEPLOYMENT PLAN EMS Bull 2) CHEMPACKs are configured for either hospital use (85% bulk treatment supplies and 15% auto-injectors, _____ patients)

1,000

(NERVE AGENT ANTIDOTE DEPLOYMENT PLAN EMS Bull 2) EMS use (85% auto-injectors and 15% bulk treatment supplies, ____ patients).

454

(NERVE AGENT ANTIDOTE DEPLOYMENT PLAN EMS Bull 2) How many CHEMPACK containers in the District of Columbia.

(NERVE AGENT ANTIDOTE DEPLOYMENT PLAN EMS Bull 2) Where are the CHEMPACK containers in the District of Columbia located?

two (2) “EMS” containers, housed at 3180 “V” Street NE remaining four (4) “hospital” containers are located at: Howard University Hospital, George Washington University Hospital, Sibley Memorial Hospital, and Children’s National Hospital.

(NERVE AGENT ANTIDOTE DEPLOYMENT PLAN EMS Bull 2) What companies form the CHEMPACK Group?

One (1) Battalion Fire Chief (Not Special Operations or EMS) One (1) Engine or Truck Company One (1) BLS Transport Unit or ALS Transport Unit if significantly closer

(Mass Casualty Task Force Organization EMS Bull 03) The North Mass Casualty Task Force is managed and supported by Engine Company ___ and Truck Company ___. They are assigned the following support vehicles and equipment:

24, 11 Mass Casualty Support Unit (MCSU) #1 Mass Casualty Support Unit (MCSU) #2 Medical Ambulance Bus (MAB) #1 Medical Ambulance Bus (MAB) #2

(Mass Casualty Task Force Organization EMS Bull 03) Mass Casualty Support Unit (MCSU) #1 Level III unit capable of bringing supplies to treat up to _____ patients

100

(Mass Casualty Task Force Organization EMS Bull 03) Mass Casualty Support Unit (MCSU) #2 Level II unit capable of bringing supplies to treat up to ___ patients

(Mass Casualty Task Force Organization EMS Bull 03) Medical Ambulance Bus (MAB) #1 configured to transport up to stretcher patients.

(Mass Casualty Task Force Organization EMS Bull 03) Medical Ambulance Bus (MAB) #2 configured to transport _____ stretcher patients and ____ ambulatory patients

4, 20

(Mass Casualty Task Force Organization EMS Bull 03) The South Mass Casualty Task Force is managed and supported by Engine Company __ and Truck Company __. They are assigned the following support vehicles and equipment: _________ and _________

33, 8, Mass Casualty Support Unit (MCSU) #3, Medical Ambulance Bus (MAB) #3

(Mass Casualty Task Force Organization EMS Bull 03) Mass Casualty Support Unit (MCSU) #3 Level II unit capable of bringing supplies to treat up to ___ patients

(Mass Casualty Task Force Organization EMS Bull 03) North Mass Casualty Task Force - Engine Co. __, Engine Co. ___, Truck Co. __ (E-24 and/or T-11 unavailable)

22, 11, 6

(Mass Casualty Task Force Organization EMS Bull 03) Medical Ambulance Bus (MAB) #3 configured to transport up to ___ stretcher patients and ___ ambulatory patients

8, 12

(Mass Casualty Task Force Organization EMS Bull 03) South Mass Casualty Task Force - Engine Co. __, Engine Co. __, Engine Co. __ (E-33 and/or T-8 unavailable)

32, 18, 19

(Rehabilitation Procedures EMS Bull 04) Sent to Rehab After using one full __-minute SCBA cylinder or the equivalent, or after completing a work cycle of __ minutes of intense physical exertion with or without SCBA.

60, 40

(Transportation of Motorized Wheelchairs EMS Bull 07) The Department has identified Engine Company __ and Engine Company __ as the companies that will have an assigned Community Service Unit (CSU) to transport motorized wheelchairs.

4, 8

(Rehabilitation Procedures EMS Bull 04) Members in Rehab are under the direction of the senior medical provider assigned to the Rehab unit and shall have their time of entry and exit noted on the Rehab worksheet form. Members shall rest for __ minutes before being released to operations.

(Transportation of Motorized Wheelchairs EMS Bull 07)When a transport unit is on the scene alone, the ACIC will request an ___ ____ ____ to respond to the location as well, to standby for the arrival of the CSU.

EMS Battalion Supervisor

(Active Assailant/Shooter EMS Bull 09) wearing Ballistic Protective Equipment (BPE) under the protection of MPD. The Rescue Task Force will consist of ____ MPD Officers and ___ or more DCFEMS members.

4, 2

(Active Assailant/Shooter EMS Bull 09) All units responding to the AS Incident will stage a minimum of ___ blocks away in line of approach, or at a designated staging area.

(Active Assailant/Shooter EMS Bull 09) How many sets of Active Shooter PPE and equipment will be carried on the Rescue Squads.

(Active Assailant/Shooter EMS Bull 09) DCFEMS emergency medical care providers shall focus on early hemorrhage control to improve survival. These practical recommendations include the critical actions contained in the acronym THREAT:

T — Threat suppression H — Hemorrhage control and basic Airway Management RE — Rapid Extraction to safety A — Assessment by medical providers T — Transport to definitive care

(Active Assailant/Shooter EMS Bull 09) How many sets of Active Shooter PPE and equipment will be carried on each of the North and South Mass Casualty Task Force Support Units.

(Active Assailant/Shooter EMS Bull 09) Chem Light - colors 1- Immediate - 2- Delayed - 3- Minor - 4- Deceased -

1. Red 2. Yellow/Green 3. N/A 4. Blue

(ELO Responsibilities and Standard Operating Guidelines EMS Bull 12) There shall be ___ ELO positions assigned and stationed at the OUC

(ELO Responsibilities and Standard Operating Guidelines EMS Bull 12) The ELO shall make radio or telephone contact with transport units at hospitals for status checks if: Transfer of patient care time exceeds __ minutes

(ELO Responsibilities and Standard Operating Guidelines EMS Bull 12) The ELO shall make radio or telephone contact with transport units at hospitals for status checks if: Pending Available time exceeds __ minutes.

( Operational Guidelines for the Use of Alternative Treatment and Transport EMS Bull 13) Inclusion criteria for NTL is as follows: 3 things

-Patient must be at least two years old -Patient must be a stable Priority 3 patient as defined in the clinical priorities section of the Department prehospital treatment protocols -Patient must require BLS level of care at most.

(Rehabilitation and Canteen Unit Organization EMS Bull 17) The Canteen Unit is normally quartered at Engine __ and the ready reserve Canteen is located at Engine ___

5, 31

(Helicopter Landing Zone Operations EMS Bull 24) Landing zones shall be at least ___ feet by ___ feet square and free of obstructions or objects that may become flying objects.

100, 100

(RADIO PROCEDURES AND GUIDELINES Comms Bull 01) ___ tone signal from OUC is an indication of a Non-Fire Response.___ tone signals from OUC is an indication of a Fire Response.

1, 2

(Rehabilitation and Canteen Unit Organization EMS Bull 17) The Rehab Unit is quartered at Engine __, is also supported by Engine Companies __ and __.

5, 23, 29

(RADIO PROCEDURES AND GUIDELINES Comms Bull 01) Lost or Stolen Communications Equipment - As soon as one discovers that equipment has been lost, stolen, or damaged beyond repair, notification shall be made to the ___________.

Watch Commander

(RADIO PROCEDURES AND GUIDELINES Comms Bull 01) To transmit, hold the microphone grille approximately ____ inches from the lips

(Homeland Security and Emergency Management Agency (HSEMA) Notification Policy Comms Bull 04) The Operations Division DFC shall contact the HSEMA EOC on (202)727-6161 and provide a detailed update as soon as possible ____ __ ___ __ ___ or as soon as sufficient incident management support is in place to allow for direct communication with HSEMA.

after the incident is stabilized

(DISPATCH AND RESPONSE PROCEDURES Comms 06) The performance objective for turnout time is ___ seconds for EMS response.

(DISPATCH AND RESPONSE PROCEDURES Comms 06) The performance objective for turnout time is ___ seconds for fire and special operations response.

(Communications Support Unit Comms 08) The Communications Support Unit vehicle will be kept in a condition of readiness by members assigned to, detailed to, or otherwise qualified to operate the unit and is housed at the quarters of_______

Engine Company No. 16.

(RESPONSE DELAYS AND MISSED RESPONSE Comms 10) ____ _____– any Turn-Out Time greater than three minutes.

Missed Response

(RESPONSE DELAYS AND MISSED RESPONSE Comms 10) An arrival timer alert will populate in CAD when any unit has not become “Status - On the Scene” within ___ minutes after becoming “Status - En Route”.

(EMS Transport Unit Delayed Response Program Comms 11) The EMS Liaison Officer (ELO) shall monitor situational awareness of units in Delayed Response and change the status of units to Available Mobile (AM) as necessary when a unit has exceeded the __-minute timeframe.

(Roadway Safety Procedures Safety Bull 01) The first-arriving apparatus shall be angled at about __° on the roadway with a “block to the left” or “block to the right” to establish a physical barrier between the incident and oncoming traffic.

(Roadway Safety Procedures Safety Bull 01) After creating a protective barrier with the apparatus, the barrier must be enhanced to create a transition zone for traffic by utilizing available traffic cones. This should be accomplished by creating a diagonally tapered barrier ___ feet prior to the first piece of apparatus.

100

(Atmospheric Monitoring at Structure Fires Safety Bull 04) Incident Commander to consider allowing personnel to operate without using SCBA: Less than ___ ppm of Hydrogen Cyanide (HCN) is present; Less than ___ ppm of Carbon Monoxide (CO) is present; The atmosphere must contain between ___% and ____% oxygen The atmosphere must contain less than ___% LEL of any combustible gas.

4.7 ppm of Hydrogen Cyanide (HCN) is present 35 ppm of Carbon Monoxide (CO) is present between 19% and 23.5% oxygen less than 10% LEL of any combustible gas

(Vacant or Blighted Building Identification and Evaluation Program Safety Bull 05) The ____ maintains a Vacant Building database that is updated daily and is the most up- to-date information for the status of buildings.

DC Department of Buildings (DOB)

(Vacant or Blighted Building Identification and Evaluation Program Safety Bull 05) All vacant building evaluations shall be documented as an Inspection Report in the ___ system and on the FD Form ___

ESO, 177

(Vacant or Blighted Building Identification and Evaluation Program Safety Bull 05) ____ _____ – a vacant building that is determined by the Mayor to be unsafe, insanitary, or which is otherwise determined to threaten public health, safety, or general welfare of the community.

Blighted Building

(Vacant or Blighted Building Identification and Evaluation Program Safety Bull 05) R/O— S/M— F/E— H/F—

R/O—Roof open; S/M—Stairs, steps, and landing missing; F/E—Avoid fire escapes; H/F—Holes in floor.

(Vacant or Blighted Building Identification and Evaluation Program Safety Bull 05) The DOB placards buildings as both Blighted and Vacant. The placard colors are either ___ ___ or ___ ___.

neon green, bright red/orange

(On Duty Injury/Illness Investigation and Documentation Safety Bull 06) A copy of the Form 44.4 Safety Supplemental shall be forwarded by the end of the shift to the ____, ____, ____, as well as the respective Bureau and Division Commanders of the injured member concerned.

DFC- Risk Management, AFC- Services, and DFC- Medical Services Officer

(On Duty Injury/Illness Investigation and Documentation Safety Bull 06) The original Form 44.4 Safety shall be kept in the injured member’s company file. Copies shall be forwarded to the ___ ___ and the ___ ___ ___

Safety Office, Medical Services Officer

(Rest, Recovery, and Fatigue Reduction Policy Safety Bull 09) ____ ________ – sleep that lasts less than half of the typical daily major sleep episode. Environmental conditions that promote sleep, such as a cool, quiet environment and reclining more than 45 degrees from vertical, enhance the quality of sleep obtained during rest and recovery periods.

Rest and recovery periods

(DONNING AND USE OF PERSONAL PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT Safety Bull 10) with NFPA ____, Standard on Protective Ensembles for Structural Fire Fighting and Proximity Fire Fighting

1971

(Helmet Fitting Policy Safety Bull 11) The helmet shall be adjusted to minimize the distance between the employee’s ____ and the ___ _____, averaged over the coverage area.

skull, impact liner

(FACIAL HAIR ACCOMMODATION POLICY Safety Bull 12) The employee shall submit a Special Report to the the ______ _______ office requesting the need for the accommodation.

Diversity/EEO Program

(FACIAL HAIR ACCOMMODATION POLICY Safety Bull 12) will be permitted to grow facial hair no longer than ____ inch in length.

1/4

(FACIAL HAIR ACCOMMODATION POLICY Safety Bull 12) The employee will be required to submit to an _____ evaluation to determine whether the accommodation should be continued.

annual

(FACIAL HAIR ACCOMMODATION POLICY Safety Bull 12) A member who fails a fit test will receive two opportunities to retest within ___ days. If a member fails the retest, the member must wait until the following year to test again.

(FACIAL HAIR ACCOMMODATION POLICY Safety Bull 12) If approved for 1⁄4 inch accommodation, an employee shall report for duty with their clippers set to no more than a 1⁄4 inch (#__ guard or ___ millimeters).

2, 6

(Crash Investigations Involving Department Vehicles Safety Bull 13) The Crash Review Committee shall consist of the _____, ______, _______, _______

Deputy Fire Chief of Health and Safety, Deputy Fire Chief of Training Deputy Fire Chief of Fleet Maintenance Deputy Fire Chief of Professional Standards

(Crash Investigations Involving Department Vehicles Safety Bull 13) Department members shall notify the Office of Unified Communications (OUC) that their vehicle was involved in a crash and request a ___, ___, ___ and any other additional resources required.

Battalion Fire Chief, Safety Battalion Fire Chief, and the police department

(Crash Investigations Involving Department Vehicles Safety Bull 13) A Motor Vehicle Crash Reporting kit shall be carried on each vehicle. The kit shall contain what 3 items?

F&EMSD Form 7, 7.1, 7.2 Current DC DMV Self-Insured Certificate, and Safety Operations Bulletin No. 13, Crash Investigations Involving Department Vehicles.

(Structural Firefighting PPE Safety Bull 14) The firefighting coat and firefighting pants will have a minimum of ___” of overlap between all layers as required by NFPA 1500.

(Structural Firefighting PPE Safety Bull 14) NFPA ____ – Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety, Health, and Wellness Program

1500

(Crash Investigations Involving Department Vehicles Safety Bull 13) The Deputy Fire Chief – Health and Safety Division has the ____ _____ to reinstate a driver.

final authority

(Structural Firefighting PPE Safety Bull 14) The only non-issued helmet that the Department will allow to be worn is the Cairns ___ with P.B.I ear protection, reflective trim and helmet shield

N6A

(Structural Firefighting PPE Safety Bull 14) PPE Set #1 will be sent for maintenance during the ___/___ cleaning cycle and PPE. PPE Set #2 will be sent for maintenance during the ___/____ cleaning cycle.

January/June, July/December

(Structural Firefighting PPE Safety Bull 14) Structural firefighting ensembles shall be retired no more than ___ years from the date the ensemble elements were manufactured, per NFPA 1851.

(Bed Bug Infestation at Department Facilities Safety Bull 15) The uniform shall be laundered in hot water (at least ____ F) and dried at high temp heat setting.

120

(Personal Escape System Safety Bull 16) During inspection, if webbing is found to be of grade “___” or lower (See Appendix B) the system shall be placed out of service.

(Structural Firefighting PPE Safety Bull 14) Company Officers shall notify Logistics when any member under their command has a turnout coat or turnout pant that has reached ___ of age, from the date of manufacturing

(Annual Physical and Cardiac Stress Test Noncompliance Safety 18) The Medical Services Officer (MSO) is responsible for removing members from Full Duty who have not completed an annual physical examination and/or cardiac stress test within ___ days of the conclusion of the member’s birth month.

(INCIDENT COMMAND Command Bull 01) ____ ____ – In cases where an incident, by virtue of its size, complexity, or potential for rapid expansion, demands early, strong, stationary command from the onset.

Strategic Command (Stationary)

(INCIDENT COMMAND Command Bull 01) Of the five National Incident Management System (NIMS) incident complex types, fire department incidents generally fall under Incident Complex Type __ or Type __

4, 5

(INCIDENT COMMAND Command Bull 01) The Company Officer of the first arriving unit shall establish Command on any incident where the following resources are assigned: 3 incidents

Three or more fire suppression units Multi-unit response with a Battalion Fire Chief Any incident where additional resources and an alternate TAC Channel are requested.

(INCIDENT COMMAND Command Bull 01)___ _____ is utilized to either oversee the management of multiple incidents that are each being handled by a separate ICS organization or to oversee the management of a very large or complex incident that has multiple incident management teams engaged.

Area Command

(INCIDENT COMMAND Command Bull 01) ____ _____ – shall be implemented by the first arriving Company Officer and will be utilized when the initial Incident Commander will have direct involvement with incident operations such

Tactical Command (mobile)

(INCIDENT COMMAND Command Bull 01) When Command is transferred from the first arriving Company Officer to an arriving Battalion Fire Chief it may be done via________ or _________

radio transmission or by performing a face-to-face briefing.

(INCIDENT COMMAND Command Bull 01) Who is in the Command Staff?

Safety Officer Liaison Officer Public Information Office

(INCIDENT COMMAND Command Bull 01) Who is in the General Staff?

Finance/Administration Logistics Operations Planning

(INCIDENT COMMAND Command Bull 01) When conflicting orders are given, the person receiving the conflicting order will notify the person giving the order that a conflict exists. If an order cannot be executed, notification shall be made to the ______ ____ ___ _______.

person who provided the initial order

(INCIDENT COMMAND Command Bull 01) ____ ________ - A building where the floor of an occupiable story is greater than 75 ft (23 m) above the lowest level of fire department vehicle access.

High-Rise Building

(INCIDENT COMMAND Command Bull 01) Effective span of control may vary from ___ to ___ with five being optimal.

3 to 7

(Response to Civil Disturbances Command Bull 06) Typical task force formations will be a ____, _____, ____ , ____.

Battalion Fire Chief, two engine companies, a truck company, and at a minimum two LE units

(Response to Civil Disturbances Command Bull 06) Units responding to the civil disturbance event shall stage a minimum of ____ blocks away in the line of approach or at a designated staging area.

(Response to Civil Disturbances Command Bull 06) The initial staging area for all units responding to the civil disturbance event shall be in the ____ zone.

Cold

(Response to Civil Disturbances Command Bull 06) Fire and EMS shall not provide direct tactical support to ____ ____

SWAT Teams

(Response to Civil Disturbances Command Bull 06) If units are on the scene of a civil unrest event and determine that they are in imminent danger without LE support, units shall transmit a _____ to the OUC.

10-33

(Response to Civil Disturbances Command Bull 06) Firehouses - When abandoning firehouses for safety considerations:

Companies shall take all portable radios, battery chargers, cell phones, and cell phone chargers with them Company Officers shall take journals, logbooks, and other relevant documentation

(Staffing Policy Admin Bull 03) Company level personnel assignments for a platoon’s next tour of duty shall be communicated to the Battalion Management Team (BMT) by ____ hours.

0800

(Staffing Policy Admin Bull 03) Battalion personnel assignments for a platoon’s next tour of duty shall be entered in TeleStaff by ____ hours.

1100

(Staffing Policy Admin Bull 03) City-wide staffing, including the assignment of overtime, for a platoon’s next tour of duty shall be completed by ____ hours.

1700

(Staffing Policy Admin Bull 03) Details for Firefighter Paramedics shall rotate among all Medic Units that are staffed by rotation on a___-week cycle (7 shifts).

(Reporting Suspected Child Abuse Admin Bull 08) Members on the scene of incidents without MPD and ____ ___ _____ shall make notification using the CFSA hotline recited in § 2.1.1 (above) and request MPD through OUC to send the closest patrol car.

no transport is necessary

(Reporting Suspected Child Abuse Admin Bull 08) Submit a Special Report of the findings to the____ ____ _____ the special report shall be expedited.

Assistant Fire Chief – Operations;

(Reserve Apparatus Organization and Deployment Fleet Bull 03) The Deputy Fire Chief – Apparatus Division will assign a minimum of ___ Ready Reserve Engines (Water Supply Engines when available) to the Adams Place warehouse.

(Reporting Suspected Child Abuse Admin Bull 08) ____ _____ and ___ ___ ____ ____ shall also receive a copy of the special report.

The Medical Director and Assistant Fire Chief - EMS

(BATTALION RESERVE AMBULANCES Fleet Bull 02) _____ __________ is responsible for maintaining six Battalion Reserve Ambulances that are fully equipped, in compliance with the existing minimum equipment standards.

The Director – Fleet Maintenance Division

(Reserve Apparatus Organization and Deployment Fleet Bull 03) The Deputy Fire Chief – Apparatus Division will maintain a minimum of ____ Reserve Engines when possible.

(Reserve Apparatus Organization and Deployment Fleet Bull 03) The numeric designation for the reserve engines shall be the ___ through ____ series.

60, 90

(Reserve Apparatus Organization and Deployment Fleet Bull 03) The Deputy Fire Chief – Apparatus Division will identify and maintain _____ reserve ladder trucks.

(Reserve Apparatus Organization and Deployment Fleet Bull 03) The Deputy Fire Chief – Apparatus Division will assign a minimum of ___ Ready Reserve Ladder Truck to the Adams Place warehouse.

(Reserve Apparatus Organization and Deployment Fleet Bull 03) The Deputy Fire Chief – Apparatus Division will assign a minimum of ___ Ready Reserve Rescue Squad to the Special Operations Division warehouse (Gallatin Street).

(Reserve Apparatus Organization and Deployment Fleet Bull 03) The Deputy Fire Chief – Apparatus Division will assign a minimum of ____ Reserve Rescue Squads to the Special Operations Division warehouse (Gallatin Street).

(Reserve Apparatus Organization and Deployment Fleet Bull 03) The Deputy Fire Chief – Apparatus Division will assign a minimum of ____ EMS Units to the Special Operations Division.

(Reserve Apparatus Organization and Deployment Fleet Bull 03) The Deputy Fire Chief – Apparatus Division will maintain a minimum of thirty (30) EMS Units as Reserve Ambulances.

(Reserve Apparatus Organization and Deployment Fleet Bull 03) The Deputy Fire Chief – Apparatus Division will assign ____ fully equipped Ready Reserve Battalion Chief Buggies and ___ fully equipped EMS Supervisor Buggies to the Adams Place Warehouse.

2, 2

(Reserve Apparatus Organization and Deployment Fleet Bull 03) The Deputy Fire Chief – Apparatus Division will assign the following fully equipped Ready Reserve units to the Training Academy, which are what?

Four Engines One Ladder Truck Two EMS Units One EMS Supervisor Vehicle