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SGT Exam > Bulletins > Flashcards

Bulletins Flashcards

1
Q

What does BASICS stand for? ( Core Values)

A

Bravery
Accountability
Safety
Integrity
Compassion
Service

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2
Q

Children means persons under the age of ___ years if age or younger

A

12

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3
Q

(Substance Abuse Policy) What does “EMIT” stand for?

A

Enzyme-multiplied-immunoassay test

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4
Q

“Positive Breathalyzer Test” means an alcohol concentration of ___ or Greater

A

.020

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5
Q

What alcohol concentration will require the employee to undergo mandatory rehab?

A

.020 - .040

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6
Q

What alcohol concentration will result in a recommendation of termination?

A

.040 or greater

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7
Q

Youth persons mean between the ages of what?

A

13-17 years old

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8
Q

Use of Prescribed Drugs and Over-the-Counter Medications, The employee shall advise the MRO of what?

A

the name, dosage, and known side effects of the drug

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9
Q

Reasonable suspicion means specific, contemporaneous observations that can be articulated concerning what?

A

appearance, behavior, speech, or body odors of the employee

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10
Q

An employee arrested on or off duty for a violation of the Controlled Substances Act, or a violation of any comparable statute in another jurisdiction shall be referred to ________?

A

the PFC for testing prior to his or her next regularly scheduled duty shift.

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11
Q

Covered employees will be tested for what under the Substance Abuse policy?

A

cocaine, marijuana, phencyclidine (PCP), opiates- with
an expanded opiates panel, amphetamines, benzodiazepines, methadone, propoxyphene,
barbiturates, quaaludes, and their derivatives, and alcohol

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12
Q

Pre-Duty Use: Use of alcohol by an employee within ___ hours prior to reporting for duty

A

four (4) hours

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13
Q

An employee seeking help for a possible drug or alcohol dependency who has not tested positive and/or violated this policy may seek assistance in confidence through programs such as
___, ___, ___, ___ without fear of disciplinary action, provided that this is
his/her initial request for formal assistance.

A

EAP, COPE, private doctor, and the PFC

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14
Q

The minimum annual percentage rate of covered employees subject to random testing shall be twenty (20) percent of the average total number of covered employees on the payroll on the first day of each calendar quarter (January 1, April 1, July 1, and October 1)

A

twenty (20)%

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15
Q

On each day that random testing is to be conducted, HR shall generate a list of up to ___ employees per platoon group

A

2

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16
Q

Upon being notified of random testing the employee will have __ minutes to report to the PFC for testing upon relief

A

90

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17
Q

An employee selected for testing who is ___, _____, shall not be excused from testing, allowed to reschedule testing, or allowed to take sick or other leave after being notified of testing, except in extremely unusual circumstances

A

on duty or in an administrative leave status pending disciplinary action

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18
Q

If an employee selected for testing is on previously ___, ___, ___, ___ when selected for random testing, he/she shall not be tested that day but will be notified upon their return to duty and tested on his/her next scheduled work day that the PFC is open

A

approved administrative leave, annual leave, sick leave, or scheduled day off

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19
Q

Samples resulting in a positive confirmation test will be preserved for at least ___ months, or, if disciplinary charges are initiated, until all related proceedings have been concluded, whichever is late

A

12

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20
Q

A breathalyzer shall be deemed negative if it is less than what alcohol concentration?

A

.020

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21
Q

After the initial breathalyzer tests greater than .020, a conformation test will be conducted. to ensure the integrity of the confirmation test it shall be done no earlier than __ minutes after completion of the screening test, but no later than ___ minutes

A

15, 30

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22
Q

Any positive confirmation test (0.020 or greater) requires that the employee be immediately removed from duty. The employee must remain in a non-duty status for ___ hours, and must be tested prior to assuming duty

A

24

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23
Q

The MSO shall advise the appropriate ___ of any confirmation test result (greater than .020 alcohol concentration)

A

AFC (Assistant Fire Chief)

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24
Q

Members testing positive for alcohol at the 0.020 level and above are not allowed to leave the ___ and are directed to remain on the premises until relieved from duty by the ___.

A

PFC. MSO

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25
Q

(Post-Accident Testing-Substance Abuse Policy)The immediate supervisor shall ensure a Special Report is generated and submitted which documents the particulars concerning the referral. This shall be submitted no later than the ___________

A

end of the tour of duty

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26
Q

Testing pursuant to Section 5.4(Post-Accident) of this Bulletin must be performed within __ hours of the
accident for the results to be valid.

A

2

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27
Q

(SUBSTANCE ABUSE POLICY Testing) Samples shall be collected at the PFC whenever it is open during the hours and days of ?

A

0700 to 2100 hours-Monday through Friday

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28
Q

(SUBSTANCE ABUSE POLICY Testing) If the PFC is closed at the time testing is required, the following procedures shall be followed.

A

the supervisor and/or manager shall make notification to the closest in-service BFC that testing is required. The BFC shall notify the Fire Liaison Officer (FLO) at the Office of Unified Communications (OUC), and shall request that the PFC Medical Director be contacted in regards to after-hours testing.

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29
Q

(SUBSTANCE ABUSE POLICY Testing After-Hours) This coordination will assist the PFC Medical Director towards facilitating a certified PFC employee to conduct the requested testing within a __ hour timeframe from the initial request for testing

A

2

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30
Q

(SUBSTANCE ABUSE POLICY Testing After-Hours) Who will escort the employee to the PFC for testing.

A

The BFC

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31
Q

Upon being hired the employee must complete a drug and alcohol disclosure, as well as submit to an updated background check within ___ days of the date of official hire.

A

thirty (30)

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32
Q

A non-probationary employee who tests at or above .020 and less than .040 for alcohol the first time will be _______ and __________

A

subject to discipline and placed in a mandatory rehabilitation program

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33
Q

Employees entering the Rehab Program will be placed in a leave status of their choice for a minimum of ____ calendar days, and what type of leave status is acceptable?

A

45 days, Sick Leave, Annual Leave, Compensatory Leave, LWOP ( written request), Any combo of this list

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34
Q

When an employee voluntarily enters the Rehab Program, they must report to the PFC for testing prior to what time?

A

9am

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35
Q

After entry to the Rehab Program, the employee must test negative for __ consecutive days

A

45

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36
Q

After expiration of the 45 consecutive days, the employee will return to full-duty status with the following stipulations:

A

i) No driving for 45 days following return to duty;
ii) Approval of a PFC Behavioral Health Services provider;
iii) Weekly counseling;
iv) Weekly drug and/or alcohol testing as directed by the PFC Behavioral Health
Services provider.
v) Participation in a rehabilitation program for a period of 1 year from the date of
his or her first negative test. All test results must be negative during this period
and the employee is to be released from the program with no restrictions.

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37
Q

Probationary employees, applicants and cadets are not eligible for the second chance opportunity. Probationary employees and cadets must not test at the .020 concentration or greater for alcohol or they will be ___

A

terminated

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38
Q

(Project Safe Place Program Bull 9) Youths in crisis can present themselves to fire stations at any time, day or night, for temporary shelter while representatives from the___ ___ ___ make arrangements for transportation.

A

Sasha Bruce Youthwork

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39
Q

(Project Safe Place Program Bull 9) When a youth comes to the fire station seeking help, on-duty officers will be responsible for calling the Safe Place Hot Line at (202) 547-7777. Provide what 3 things to the Hot line personnel.

A

the location, telephone number and address of the fire station to hot line
personnel.

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40
Q

(Project Safe Place Program Bull 9) The Hot Line representative will contact the fire station to inform the OIC of the _____________ who will be sent to pick up the youth.

A

name of the person

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41
Q

(Project Safe Place Program Bull 9) Safe Place Project personnel will make arrangements for the youth to be
picked up, within __ minutes when possible, and transported to a Safe Place shelter.

A

20

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42
Q

(Project Safe Place Program Bull 9) As soon as it becomes apparent that Project Safe Place Services will be needed, the receiving company goes out of service until the youth is in the care of __________ or __________. The Company OIC then notifies the ___________

A

Project Safe Place representatives or other DCFEMS personnel, nearest in-service BFC

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43
Q

(Project Safe Place Program Bull 9) A _______ or _______ will also go out of service and proceed to the station providing shelter to stay with the youth and wait for Safe Place representatives.

A

Street Calls unit or nearest in-service EMS Supervisor

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44
Q

(Project Safe Place Program Bull 9) The on-duty platoon commander will immediately contact the __________ -________ to inform them that a youth is seeking Safe Place shelter, that the Safe Place Hot Line has been called, and place the Company is out of service.

A

Office of Unified Communications - Watch Commander

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45
Q

(Project Safe Place Program Bull 9) The on-duty platoon commander, Street Calls unit and/or EMS Supervisor shall ensure that at least ____ members are in the youth’s presence at all times to serve as witness to all actions or conversations involving the youth.

A

two (2)

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46
Q

(Project Safe Place Program Bull 9) On-duty platoon commanders shall make a comprehensive journal entry for each incident of service provided to Safe Place youths. The entry shall include:

A
  1. the name and age of the youth;
  2. name and identification card number of the Safe Place representative who picks up the youth;
  3. names of the two members who remained in the youth’s presence;
  4. name of the battalion fire chief who stood by until arrival of Safe Place personnel;
  5. any other information which may be considered important concerning the youth.
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47
Q

(ACTIVE MILITARY DUTY Bull 10) The time spent in military active duty counts as creditable service towards what 5 things?

A

seniority, within-grade step increases, career tenure, and retirement and leave rate accrual.

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48
Q

(ACTIVE MILITARY DUTY Bull 10) Provides __ days (___ hours) of paid military leave each fiscal year for active duty, active duty training, inactive duty training and military honors.

A

15, 120

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49
Q

(ACTIVE MILITARY DUTY Bull 10) An employee subject to the Police and Firefighters Retirement Program who is on LWOP for active military duty, or for military furlough, is not considered as separated from his position
unless he applies for and receives his retirement contributions or unless the period of unpaid absence for military duty exceeds __ years.

A

5

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50
Q

(ACTIVE MILITARY DUTY Bull 10) Company Officer’s Responsibility - Once the deployed member’s paid leave is exhausted, carry the member on ___ to reflect his non paid Military Furlough status.

A

LWOP

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51
Q

(ACTIVE MILITARY DUTY Bull 10) Return from Deployment - Member’s Responsibility

A

a. Provide copy of Military Release Orders to company officer
b. Schedule appointment with Human Resource Advisor for reinstatement coordination. An important aspect of this meeting will be to explain retirement compensation issues and to ensure processing of the Form DD-214 (Retirement Credit Form) as well as processing of Pay Differential check, if applicable.
c. Schedule and Report to PFC for return to duty physical examination.
d. Report to Training Academy for a 40 hour remedial training course as scheduled by Battalion Fire Chief.

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52
Q

(AWARENESS AND REPORTING SUSPICIOUS ACTIVITY Bull 11) REPORTING PROCEDURE: In the event a member
discovers any situation, it should be reported to the on-duty _______ and _________

A

on-duty Operations Deputy Fire Chief and the on-duty Special Operations Battalion Fire Chief

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53
Q

(AWARENESS AND REPORTING SUSPICIOUS ACTIVITY Bull 11) Information regarding your suspicions should ___ be transmitted over the radio.

A

not

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54
Q

(AWARENESS AND REPORTING SUSPICIOUS ACTIVITY Bull 11) Company Officers or Members who are not able to contact the on-duty Special Ops BFC will do what?

A

complete the Suspicious Activity Reporting form on line and e-mail it as soon as possible.

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55
Q

(Handling Sensitive, but Unclassified Information Policy Bull12) _____ is the marking used by DHS to identify Sensitive but Unclassified information within the DHS community,

A

For Official Use Only (FOUO)

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56
Q

(Handling Sensitive, but Unclassified Information Policy Bull12) “___ __ ___” (CUI) is used by the executive
branch to designate information that was previously shared under “____ ___ ____ (SBU)” label.

A

Controlled Unclassified Information, Sensitive but Unclassified

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57
Q

(Handling Sensitive, but Unclassified Information Policy Bull 12) At a minimum, it is marked on the bottom of each page “ __ ___ __ ___”

A

“FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY.” FOUO

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58
Q

(Handling Sensitive, but Unclassified Information Policy Bull12) Monday Report – Intelligence Briefing -
* Standard – ___ version will be used to disseminate general information out to the entire Department.
* Critical – ___ version will be used to disseminate time sensitive critical out to the entire Department

A

Blue, Red

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59
Q

(Presumptive Disability Bull 13) since October 1, 2016, if seeking the presumption for a diagnosis of a covered cancer you must be current with what ?

A

Be current with all Department physical examination requirements, including the
annual physical exam

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60
Q

(Presumptive Disability Bull 13) To be eligible for the presumption after a diagnosis of a covered cancer, a uniformed member or EMS employee must also have been employed by the Department for the previous ___ years and must have had contact while in the line of duty with a toxic substance that is a known carcinogen or is associated with an increased risk of developing a covered cancer.

A

10

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61
Q

(Presumptive Disability Bull 13) To be eligible for the presumption after a diagnosis of an infectious disease, a uniformed member or EMS employee must also have a ___________ during the performance of their job duties.

A

documented exposure to blood or bodily fluids

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62
Q

(Presumptive Disability Bull 13) what are some Covered Cancers -

A

Leukemia and breast, ovarian, pancreatic, prostate, rectal, testicular, and respiratory cancers.

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63
Q

(POLICY REGARDING GENDER IDENTITY AND EXPRESSION Bull 23) The Department, when requested, shall make reasonable accommodations, including medical leave, for transgender-related and other health care needs. Such needs may include, but are not limited to :

A

medical or counseling appointments, surgery, recovery from surgery, and any other related procedures.

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64
Q

(EQUAL EMPLOYMENT OPPORTUNITY Bull 26) Designate at least ___ EEO Counselor to conduct an inquiry into EEO complaints that are brought to his or her attention and then attempt informal resolution of those complaints

A

one (1)

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65
Q

(EQUAL EMPLOYMENT OPPORTUNITY Bull 26) Inform employees and applicants of the requirement that they shall consult an EEO Counselor within _____ calendar days of the alleged unlawful employment practice or within _______ calendar days of the discovery of the occurrence giving him or her cause to believe that he or
she has been discriminated against;

A

180, 180

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66
Q

(EQUAL EMPLOYMENT OPPORTUNITY Bull 26) DCFEMS employees and applicants alleging employment discrimination who wish to file a complaint with the Office of Human Rights (OHR) must first consult an Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO) Counselor within ___ calendar days of the occurrence of discrimination or discovery of discrimination in order to attempt informal resolution.

A

180

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67
Q

(EQUAL EMPLOYMENT OPPORTUNITY Bull 26) Complainants will have __ calendar days to work with the Counselor to seek resolution. Once the EEO Counseling process ends, the Counselor will issue an _____

A

30, Exit Letter

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68
Q

(EQUAL EMPLOYMENT OPPORTUNITY Bull 26) If the complainant wishes to file a formal complaint with OHR, he or she must bring a copy of the Exit Letter and file the complaint with OHR within __calendar days of the Exit Letter.

A

15

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69
Q

(EQUAL EMPLOYMENT OPPORTUNITY Bull 26) The EEO Counselor shall,
insofar as is practicable, conduct the final interview with the Complainant and
issue an Exit Letter no later than thirty (30) calendar days of initial contact by the
Complainant. This time may be extended by ____ days for good cause.

A

30

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70
Q

(EQUAL EMPLOYMENT OPPORTUNITY Bull 26) The EEO Counselor shall Schedule and conduct an initial interview with the Complainant within ____ days of initial contact

A

7

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71
Q

(EQUAL EMPLOYMENT OPPORTUNITY Bull 26) The EEO Counselor shall Schedule a Final Interview with the complainant and issue an Exit Letter within ____ days of the contact (or ___ days if extended for good cause)

A

30, 60

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72
Q

(SEXUAL HARASSMENT Bull 27) ___ __ ___ sexual harassment is defined as unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature

A

Quid pro quo

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73
Q

(SEXUAL HARASSMENT Bull 27) If an employee feels sexually harassed, the employee must either:

A

(A) tell the person who is engaging in offensive or inappropriate sexual conduct to stop and that such
conduct is unwelcome
(B) ask the employee’s supervisor or counsel or the Department’s designated Sexual Harassment Officer to advise the person that the conduct is offensive and unwelcome.

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74
Q

(SEXUAL HARASSMENT Bull 27) If the complaint is against an agency director, the report shall be submitted to the appropriate___ ___ for review.

A

Deputy Mayor

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75
Q

(SEXUAL HARASSMENT Bull 27) Allegations of sexual harassment shall be investigated and resolved as soon as
practicable, but no later than ___ days after reporting.

A

60

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76
Q

(SEXUAL HARASSMENT Bull 27) The Sexual Harassment Officer or office investigating the charges must provide the employee and the alleged harasser with a _________ and _______ after the sixty (60) day period, and shall convey the same to MOLC.

A

written notification of its findings and conclusions

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77
Q

(SEXUAL HARASSMENT Bull 27) The agency shall also require that any employee found to have engaged in
inappropriate conduct who is not terminated must attend mandatory sexual harassment training within ___ days of receipt of the findings.

A

60

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78
Q

(SEXUAL HARASSMENT Bull 27) The statute of limitations for complaints filed at OHR is within ___ year of the harassment or its discovery.

A

1

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79
Q

(SEXUAL HARASSMENT Bull 27) EEO Counseling is not required prior to the filing of a sexual harassment complaint with OHR; however, if the employee wishes to first seek informal resolution, EEO Counseling is available. To exercise this option, the employee must contact a certified EEO Counselor within ___ days of the alleged harassment, in accordance with Bulletin 26.

A

180

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80
Q

(SEXUAL HARASSMENT Bull 27) The EEO Counselor must then resolve the complaint within ___ days, or at maximum _____ days, and issue an Exit Letter

A

30, 60

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81
Q

(SEXUAL HARASSMENT Bull 27) If the employee is not satisfied with the outcome of the counseling effort, the employee may file a formal complaint with OHR within ____ days of receiving the Exit Letter.

A

15

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82
Q

(Religious Accommodation Policy Bull 28) Employees are responsible for completing the ___ __ ___ and submitting a Special Report to request the accommodation.

A

Religious Accommodation Form,

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83
Q

(PREGNANCY POLICY Bull 29) The American Medical Association (AMA) recommends that expectant women who spend more than ___ hours a day on their feet should switch to a desk job by week ___. Some experts recommend that a woman stop working or switch to a desk job at week ___ if the job requires heavy lifting, climbing stairs (or ladders), pulling or pushing, or bending below the waist.

A

4, 24, 20

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84
Q

(PREGNANCY POLICY Bull 29) Firefighters [and single role providers seeking a change in duty status due to pregnancy] shall be directed to schedule a visit to the PFC within ___ business days of the date that they advise the PFC, the company officer, or their supervisor of their pregnancy so that the PFC provider can review the completed form.

A

5

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85
Q

(PREGNANCY POLICY Bull 29) When an employee’s medical condition requires a change in duty status, subsequent visits to the PFC during the prenatal period will be at the discretion of the attending PFC provider, not to exceed __ weeks.

A

6

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86
Q

(PFML, DCFMLA, FMLA Bull 30) To qualify for Paid Family Medical Leave (PFML), an employee must Be an employee of the District of Columbia government, including an employee of an independent agency, who is neither a temporary employee appointed for less than ___ days, nor on an intermittent schedule.

A

90

87
Q

(PFML, DCFMLA, FMLA Bull 30) Submit a “Paid Family and Medical Leave Application Form” as soon as possible
and within __ months of a qualifying event;

A

12

88
Q

(PFML, DCFMLA, FMLA Bull 30) Probationary employees who use PFML must enter a____________ agreement.

A

one-year continuation of service

89
Q

(PFML, DCFMLA, FMLA Bull 30) To qualify for DCFMLA (D.C. Family and Medical Leave Act) Leave and DCFMLA Medical Leave employee must be an employee of the District of Columbia government with at least ___ year of continuous service, Have received compensation for at least ____ hours in the last __ months immediately preceding the leave

A

1, 1,000, 12

90
Q

(PFML, DCFMLA, FMLA Bull 30) To qualify for leave (family or medical) under Federal FMLA (Family and Medical
Leave Act) an employee must: Be an employee of the District of Columbia government with: At least ___ year of service; and Have worked for at least ____ hours in the last 12 months.

A

1, 1,250

91
Q

(PFML, DCFMLA, FMLA Bull 30) When applying for Paid Family and Medical Leave the member must include:

A

The reason for the leave request.
The total number of hours requested.
The type(s) of leave being used.

92
Q

(PFML, DCFMLA, FMLA Bull 30) Members shall provide _____ days’ notice of the anticipated need for approved family or medical leave when it occurs on their regular tour of duty.

A

8

93
Q

(PFML, DCFMLA, FMLA Bull 30) May employees use family or medical leave when ordered to remain in continuation of duty or for mandatory overtime periods.

A

yes they may

94
Q

(PFML, DCFMLA, FMLA Bull 30) Operational members (42-hour workweek) may use PFML, DCFMLA, and FMLA in the following increments:
_____ hours.
_____ hours.

A

12, 24

95
Q

(PFML, DCFMLA, FMLA Bull 30) Administrative members (40-hour workweek) may use PFML, DCFMLA and FMLA in the following increments:
___ hour.
___ hours.

A

1, 8

96
Q

(PFML, DCFMLA, FMLA Bull 30) If a member is assigned to a 42-hour workweek immediately preceding the use of DCFMLA, the member shall be eligible to use up to ___ hours of leave over a two-year period.

A

672

97
Q

(PFML, DCFMLA, FMLA Bull 30) If a member is assigned to a 40-hour workweek immediately preceding the use of DCFMLA, the member shall be eligible to use up to ___ hours of leave over a two-year period.

A

640

98
Q

(PFML, DCFMLA, FMLA Bull 30) If a member is assigned to a 42-hour workweek immediately preceding the use of Federal FMLA, the member shall be eligible to use up to ___ hours of unpaid leave over a one-year period.

A

540

99
Q

(PFML, DCFMLA, FMLA Bull 30) If a member is assigned to a 40-hour workweek immediately preceding the use of Federal FMLA, the member shall be eligible to use up to ___ hours of unpaid leave over a one-year period.

A

480

100
Q

(PFML, DCFMLA, FMLA Bull 30) If a member is assigned to a 42-hour workweek, the member is eligible for ___ hours of PFML, of which __ hours can be utilized by the member for their own serious medical condition

A

336, 80

101
Q

(PFML, DCFMLA, FMLA Bull 30) If a member is assigned to a 40-hour workweek, the member is eligible for ___ hours of PFML, of which __ hours can be utilized by the member for their own serious medical condition,

A

320, 80

102
Q

(BREASTFEEDING MOTHERS’ POLICY Bull 32) ___ and ____ shall not be designated as appropriate spaces for lactation purposes.

A

Restrooms and locker rooms

103
Q

(BREASTFEEDING MOTHERS’ POLICY Bull 32) Members who store expressed breast milk in any refrigerated area within any Department facility shall clearly label the container with their ____ and ______

A

name, and the date the milk was expressed

104
Q

(BREASTFEEDING MOTHERS’ POLICY Bull 32) If a lactation room is not available at a member’s work location The request shall be made __ days before the first day the member wishes to use a lactation room and shall include a Lactation Time Request Form (F&EMSD Form 44.2)

A

30

105
Q

(Criminal Background Checks Bull 34) Uniformed employees shall complete their criminal background check between ____ and ____preceding the expiration date of their D.C. Department of Health (DC Health) Emergency Medical Technician or Paramedic certification.

A

January 1 and March 31

106
Q

(Criminal Background Checks Bull 34) Non-uniformed employees shall complete their criminal background check biennially during their_____ or ______________.

A

birth month or other designated time period as notified by DC FEMS Human Resources (DC FEMS HR)

107
Q

(Criminal Background Checks Bull 34) Employees shall follow the web link, enter an email address, enter the access code, and select a time and location for fingerprinting based on the demographic data provided. Fingerprinting shall be scheduled and completed within ____ weeks

A

2

108
Q

(Criminal Background Checks Bull 34) Uniformed employees will be compensated on a _____ basis for completing the fingerprinting during their off-duty hours.

A

quarter-hour

109
Q

(Criminal Background Checks Bull 34) Will Non-uniformed members be compensated for completing the
fingerprinting process during non-duty hours.

A

no

110
Q

(Criminal Background Checks Bull 34) Uniformed employees are responsible for completing their criminal background check by ______ in the year their DC Health certification expires.

A

March 1

111
Q

(Criminal Background Checks Bull 34) Non-uniformed employees are responsible for completing their criminal background check within ___ days of receiving the email notification from DCFEMS HR.

A

30

112
Q

(HIPAA, FOIA, AND PRIVACY Bull 35) The ___________ is the only entity within the agency authorized to release Protected Health Information (PHI) to any person outside of the agency.

A

Office of Information and Privacy (OIP)

113
Q

(HIPAA, FOIA, AND PRIVACY Bull 35) All questions from the media about FEMS patients and their condition must be referred to the ________ for a response.

A

Public Information Office

114
Q

(HIPAA, FOIA, AND PRIVACY Bull 35) Providers who receive subpoenas that would require them to provide any medical information concerning a patient must consult with the _________ before responding to the subpoena.

A

Office of Information and Privacy (OIP)

115
Q

(HIPAA, FOIA, AND PRIVACY Bull 35) Making a request. A request for a record of the department which is not ordinarily made available shall be submitted in writing with the envelope and letter clearly marked ________

A

“FOIA REQUEST.”

116
Q

(HIPAA, FOIA, AND PRIVACY Bull 35) Processing of Requests The person responsible may extend the time for initial determination on requests up to __ days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays and legal holidays).

A

15

117
Q

(TELEWORK PROGRAM Bull 38) Telework may be approved for up to ___ days per week.

A

2

118
Q

(TELEWORK PROGRAM Bull 38) Telework may not be approved for a member to be off site both ___ and ___

A

Monday and Friday

119
Q

(TELEWORK PROGRAM Bull 38) Telework is not authorized on what day?

A

Wednesday

120
Q

(TELEWORK PROGRAM Bull 38) ___________ members assigned or detailed to administrative positions (eligible administrative members) may participate in the Telework Program

A

Full-time civilian

121
Q

(TELEWORK PROGRAM Bull 38) Members who telework must remain within the DMV area and be able to return to the office within a ___-hour time frame after notice.

A

2

122
Q

(TELEWORK PROGRAM Bull 38) Members shall work at least ____ complete tours of duty each week at their regular work site.

A

3

123
Q

(TELEWORK PROGRAM Bull 38) Answer or return phone calls within __ minutes while teleworking and respond to emails by the ________.

A

45, end of work day

124
Q

(TELEWORK PROGRAM Bull 38) Be prepared to reapply for the Telework Program ______

A

annually.

125
Q

(DEATH OF A MEMBER AND FAMILY SERVICES Bull 40) ____________ shall be notified of the death of all active and retired members.

A

The Battalion Fire Chief of Professional Standards (BFC-PSO)

126
Q

(DEATH OF A MEMBER AND FAMILY SERVICES Bull 40) During off-duty hours of the BFC-PSO, members shall notify the _________ at the Office of Unified Communications (OUC) upon learning of the death of active or retired members with all particulars.

A

Fire Liaison Officer (FLO)

127
Q

(DEATH OF A MEMBER AND FAMILY SERVICES Bull 40) The Regulations Officer shall notify the __________ at OUC with information concerning a line of duty death. A vocal message with notification of the death shall be transmitted to the Department on the dispatch talkgroup.

A

Watch Commander

128
Q

(DEATH OF A MEMBER AND FAMILY SERVICES Bull 40) The___ ____ _____ shall be responsible for contacting/notifying the deceased’s family.

A

Family Services Team

129
Q

(DEATH OF A MEMBER AND FAMILY SERVICES Bull 40) The FST shall coordinate pallbearers (__ to ___). There may be a need for up to 14 personnel to load and unload the casket to and from the apparatus.

A

6-8

130
Q

(DEATH OF A MEMBER AND FAMILY SERVICES Bull 40) The ceremonial portion of the funeral service shall consist of an __________________________.

A

Officer-in-Charge, six to eight pallbearers, honorary pallbearers, Honor Guard, and a piper and/or bugler

131
Q

(DEPARTMENT FLAGS Bull 41) Supervisors shall ensure U.S. and D.C. flags are flown at Department facilities from ____ hours until sunset daily, except during inclement weather.

A

0730

132
Q

(Peer Support Team Bull 42) The PST shall consist of ___ teams that will operate on a rotating monthly call schedule.

A

3

133
Q

(Peer Support Team Bull 42)Peers shall be selected by a panel of PST members and shall complete a minimum of __hours of initial training

A

26

134
Q

(Peer Support Team Bull 42) Peers shall be required to participate in ___ hours of in-person continuing education
annually.

A

20

135
Q

(Peer Support Team Bull 42) responses shall be made of no less than ___ Peers and no more than ____ Peers
depending on the situation.

A

2, 4

136
Q

(Peer Support Team Bull 42) The response time goal for the PST is __ minutes.

A

90

137
Q

(Peer Support Team Bull 42) When an event exceeds the capacity of our PST, the Peer Support Coordinator shall
notify the ________

A

Governance Board

138
Q

(Peer Support Team Bull 42) For On-Duty Incidents - The PST Coordinator shall notify the on-duty Deputy Fire Chief of Operations, who shall notify the __________.

A

Assistant Fire Chief of Operations

139
Q

(Peer Support Team Bull 42) Employees on leave for more than ___ hours shall be required to be evaluated by the PFC’s Behavioral Health Clinician prior to returning to duty.

A

24

140
Q

(Peer Support Team Bull 42) Peers will work in teams of__ to __.

A

2-3

141
Q

(EMPLOYEE ASSISTANCE PROGRAM Bull 43) The program is designed to address the needs of employee suffering from all types of ____, ____, _______ problems that are adversely impacting job
performance or behavior on the job (e.g., family, marital, financial, emotional, and substance abuse problems).

A

behavioral, emotional and physical

142
Q

(EMPLOYEE ASSISTANCE PROGRAM Bull 43) ____ hours of administrative leave may be granted for an employee’s initial EAP appointment.

A

2

143
Q

(EMPLOYEE ASSISTANCE PROGRAM Bull 43) The two types of referrals that may be used for admission into the EAP are ______ and _______.

A

self-referrals and agency referrals

144
Q

(EMPLOYEE ASSISTANCE PROGRAM Bull 43) An employee who is referred by his or her supervisor to the EAP will be excused from work for up to ___ hours to attend his or her initial assessment and referral session with no charge to his or her leave. This time is to be charged to ____ _____.

A

2, administrative leave

145
Q

(GUIDELINES FOR WORKING OVERTIME AND HOLIDAYS Bull 45) each employee is required to provide his/her current contact information both on his/her ________ and ______

A

F&EMSD Form 9 and in PeopleSoft.

146
Q

(GUIDELINES FOR WORKING OVERTIME AND HOLIDAYS Bull 45) An employee may sign up in TeleStaff ___ days in advance of the date that he or she desires to work (whether am or pm).

A

30

147
Q

(GUIDELINES FOR WORKING OVERTIME AND HOLIDAYS Bull 45) An employee desiring to work OT on the day half of a tour who did not sign up in advance must enter his/her availability by ____ hours on the day she/he desires to work:

A

0500

148
Q

(GUIDELINES FOR WORKING OVERTIME AND HOLIDAYS Bull 45) An employee desiring to work OT on the night half of a tour who did not sign up in advance must enter his/her availability by ____ hours on the day she/he desires to work.

A

0900

149
Q

(GUIDELINES FOR WORKING OVERTIME AND HOLIDAYS Bull 45) The Department will make efforts to prevent an employee from working more than __ consecutive duty hours beyond his/her regular tour of duty.

A

12

150
Q

(GUIDELINES FOR WORKING OVERTIME AND HOLIDAYS Bull 45) Accordingly, no such employee may exceed 36 consecutive duty hours (IAFF Local 36 and AFGE Local 3721 members) absent permission from the on–duty
___________

A

Deputy Fire Chief of Operations.

151
Q

(GUIDELINES FOR WORKING OVERTIME AND HOLIDAYS Bull 45) Reset the number of hours employees work on a bi-annual schedule — the reset will occur the first full pay period in____ and ____

A

January and July

152
Q

(GUIDELINES FOR WORKING OVERTIME AND HOLIDAYS Bull 45) The employee shall notify his/her respective Company Officer as soon as the unforeseen event becomes known, but no less than ___ hours prior to the start of the OT assignment.

A

2

153
Q

(GUIDELINES FOR WORKING OVERTIME AND HOLIDAYS Bull 45) An employee who cancels his/her assigned OT shift will be passed over and will count as an “___ ___,” and the next available employee who signed up to work will be notified.

A

Opportunity Worked

154
Q

(GUIDELINES FOR WORKING OVERTIME AND HOLIDAYS Bull 45) An employee is not eligible to work OT in any pay period while on:

A

a. A non-pay status for disciplinary reasons, for example:
 Suspended Without Pay (SWOP);
 Absent Without Leave (AWOL); and/or
 Leave Without Pay (LWOP);
b. FMLA–Medical Leave (FMLA).

155
Q

(GUIDELINES FOR WORKING OVERTIME AND HOLIDAYS Bull 45) An employee is eligible to work OT in any pay period while on:

A

a. FMLA–Family Sick Leave (FMSK);
b. FMLA–Family Annual Leave (FMAL);
c. Paid Family Leave (PFLT);
d. Military Leave (MILI).

156
Q

(GUIDELINES FOR WORKING OVERTIME AND HOLIDAYS Bull 45) An employee on ___ ___ of any type may not work OT.

A

Sick Leave

157
Q

(GUIDELINES FOR WORKING OVERTIME AND HOLIDAYS Bull 45) The Battalion Commander/Platoon Commander shall ensure that a Probationer who wishes to work OT on his/her assigned day off has completed a __–day period in his/her assigned Company.

A

90

158
Q

(GUIDELINES FOR WORKING OVERTIME AND HOLIDAYS Bull 45) if the needs of the Department require a Probationer to work OT on his/her assigned day off within the 90–day period, approval must be granted by the on–duty _____________________

A

Deputy Fire Chief of Operations.

159
Q

(CONSPICUOUS SERVICE AND DEPARTMENT AWARDS PROGRAM Bull 46) What does DABA stand for?

A

Department Advisory Board of Awards

160
Q

(CONSPICUOUS SERVICE AND DEPARTMENT AWARDS PROGRAM Bull 46) The DABA will publish notice to the Department on an ____ basis seeking nominations for candidates for all of the awards listed in this bulletin.

A

annual

161
Q

(CONSPICUOUS SERVICE AND DEPARTMENT AWARDS PROGRAM Bull 46) All nominations shall be submitted to the DABA by ______ __ of each year.

A

February 15

162
Q

(CONSPICUOUS SERVICE AND DEPARTMENT AWARDS PROGRAM Bull 46) _____ _ _____ Memorial Award is awarded posthumously to the family of any member who has died in the line of duty.

A

The Benjamin C. Grenup

163
Q

(CONSPICUOUS SERVICE AND DEPARTMENT AWARDS PROGRAM Bull 46) What is a Class 1 recognition of class?

A

Bronze Bar

164
Q

(LOAD BEARING CAPACITIES AT VARIOUS BUILDINGS Bull 64) Under no circumstances shall apparatus be driven onto the slag roof terrace surrounding the ___, ___, ______ of the U.S. Capitol building.

A

north, south and west sides

165
Q

(LOAD BEARING CAPACITIES AT VARIOUS BUILDINGS Bull 64) No apparatus shall be driven upon the concrete terraces abutting the ___, ____, ______ of the Kennedy Center.

A

north, south or west sides

166
Q

(LOAD BEARING CAPACITIES AT VARIOUS BUILDINGS Bull 64) __ _____ shall be driven upon the parking deck over the maintenance shop at the Zoo.

A

No apparatus

167
Q

(LOAD BEARING CAPACITIES AT VARIOUS BUILDINGS Bull 64) VAN NESS PLAZAS - The Plazas in front of the following locations will not support the weight of ___, ____, _____

A

Engines, Trucks or Rescue Squads

168
Q

(LOAD BEARING CAPACITIES AT VARIOUS BUILDINGS Bull 64) GALLAUDET UNIVERSITY - The following locations have restrictions which prohibit fire apparatus

A
  1. KRUG HALL
    Restriction: parking area in front.
  2. MIDDLE SECONDARY SCHOOL FOR THE DEAF BUILDING
    Restriction: parking area - west side.
169
Q

(EMERGENCY WATER SUPPLY FOR HOSPITALS Bull 66) Hospitals need as much as ___-____ gallons of water per minute to operate life support equipment such as suction devices and pumps, as well as heating and cooling equipment and toilet facilities.

A

500 - 1000

170
Q

(EMERGENCY WATER SUPPLY FOR HOSPITALS Bull 66) Hospitals participating in this program will install a ____” gated National Standard Fire Thread female intake coupling to their existing water service.

A

2 1⁄2

171
Q

(EMERGENCY WATER SUPPLY FOR HOSPITALS Bull 66) Which 3 people will be the only persons authorized to request the FEMS Department to supply emergency water to the hospital.

A

The hospital Administrator, acting Administrator or the Chief Engineer

172
Q

(EMERGENCY WATER SUPPLY FOR HOSPITALS Bull 66) To minimize the possibility of contaminating the hospital’s water supply, all FEMS Department hoses which are to be used to supply the water shall be flushed for a ________minutes before being connected to the hospital intake coupling.

A

full five (5)

173
Q

(REFERRAL OF JUVENILE FIRE-SETTERS Bull 72) The Juvenile Fire-Setters Intervention Program identifies and services juveniles ranging in ages from __ to ___ years old .

A

2-17

174
Q

(REFERRAL OF JUVENILE FIRE-SETTERS Bull 72) Through their daily involvement in fire incident investigations, this Unit identifies approximately __% - __% of the “at risk” or “repeat” juvenile
fire-setters.

A

85-90

175
Q

(SUITABILITY BOARD Bull 80) The presence of all three members of the suitability board shall constitute a quorum and no action shall be taken by the suitability board without__ ___ ____

A

a quorum present.

176
Q

(SUITABILITY BOARD Bull 80) Decisions of the suitability board shall be effected by a _____ majority vote.

A

2/3

177
Q

(SUITABILITY BOARD Bull 80) ______ ______ – three uniformed members of DC FEMS at a rank no lower than
Captain utilized to evaluate and approve or disapprove candidates for appointment to DC FEMS.

A

Suitability Board

178
Q

(SUITABILITY BOARD Bull 80) Any uniformed member of the DC FEMS at a rank____________________ may be
utilized to comprise the suitability board on an as needed basis.

A

no lower than Captain

179
Q

(SUITABILITY BOARD Bull 80) Who is responsible for assigning officers to the suitability board.

A

Agency Recruiting Officer (ARO) - Battalion Fire Chief assigned to the Recruiting Office.

180
Q

(Travel, Outside Training and Professional Development Bull 85) Employees shall complete the Obligated Service Agreement except when: An employee is attending training that does not exceed __ hours of duty time
within a single training program

A

80

181
Q

(Travel, Outside Training and Professional Development Bull 85) The employee shall submit the following within 10 business days after returning from the training/travel:

A

1 Travel Expense Report;
2 Original airline/train tickets;
3 Original transportation receipts (i.e. taxi, shuttle, parking, or gas receipts) if applicable
4 Hotel receipt showing room is paid in full.

182
Q

(Tuition Reimbursement Bull 85A) The Department will equally allot the budgeted funds to all members who apply for the funds, capping reimbursement at a maximum of _____$ per course.

A

500$

183
Q

(Tuition Reimbursement Bull 85A) The Department will reimburse tuition costs to those members who complete each course in which they are enrolled and earn a minimum letter grade of a “___”

A

C

184
Q

(Tuition Reimbursement Bull 85A) This policy does not apply to members in _____ ____ _______

A

Paramedic Certification Programs.

185
Q

(Tuition Reimbursement Bull 85A) The member must submit the request for college tuition reimbursement within ___ days of course completion.

A

45

186
Q

(EMERGENCY VEHICLE DRIVER TRAINING Bull 90) Members who have had their driving privileges removed and/or had a break in service for more than ___ year must complete the Emergency Vehicle Driver Training program.

A

One

187
Q

(EMERGENCY VEHICLE DRIVER TRAINING Bull 90) The Emergency Vehicle Driver Training program shall be evaluated every _____ years.

A

3

188
Q

(EMERGENCY VEHICLE DRIVER TRAINING Bull 90) ____ _____ _____ ____ _______ is responsible for overseeing the reviewing and updating of the Emergency Vehicle Driver Training program to ensure the safe operation of emergency vehicles, especially during emergency responses.

A

The Deputy Fire Chief of Training

189
Q

(Guidelines for Preparing for Technician Exams Bull 93) A technician position is considered vacant whenever it is anticipated that the incumbent will not be performing the duties of a technician for a period of ____ or more days, exclusive of annual leave

A

30

190
Q

(Guidelines for Preparing for Technician Exams Bull 93) The selection of technicians shall be completed not later than ___ days after the position becomes vacant.

A

90

191
Q

(Guidelines for Preparing for Technician Exams Bull 93) The Captain shall, as soon as the need is determined, but not later than __ days after the position actually becomes vacant, post on the station bulletin board a technician vacancy announcement.

A

10

192
Q

(Guidelines for Preparing for Technician Exams Bull 93) Deadline to submit the F&EMSD Form 140-A, Application for Position of Technician (within ___ days after the vacancy announcement is posted)

A

14

193
Q

(Guidelines for Preparing for Technician Exams Bull 93) Date, time, and location of the knowledge of box alarm district exam (maximum ___ days),

A

30

194
Q

(Guidelines for Preparing for Technician Exams Bull 93) Not less than ___ week prior to the exam, the Captain shall notify the appropriate Battalion Fire Chief that the company will be out-of-service for the examination.

A

1

195
Q

(Guidelines for Preparing for Technician Exams Bull 93) To ensure that the time frames of the CBA are adhered to, the maximum prior notification of the exam shall be no more than __ days.

A

30

196
Q

(Guidelines for Preparing for Technician Exams Bull 93) ___ weeks prior to the scheduled TA exam, the Captain shall submit the steps of operation for the apparatus to be used to the TA.

A

2

197
Q

(Guidelines for Preparing for Technician Exams Bull 93) For Engine Companies, no later than ___ week prior to the exam, the drafting capability of the engine shall be determined.

A

1

198
Q

(Guidelines for Preparing for Technician Exams Bull 93) Not less than ___ week prior to the TA portion, the Captain shall notify the appropriate Battalion Fire Chief that the company will be out-of-service for the examination at the TA.

A

1

199
Q

(Guidelines for Preparing for Technician Exams Bull 93) The practical examination has two parts,_______ and ___________

A

inspection of the apparatus and operation of the apparatus.

200
Q

(Guidelines for Preparing for Technician Exams Bull 93) If the company has been using a reserve prior to the exam, and will continue to use the same reserve for an extended period of time (i.e., over ___ months) after the exam, then that reserve shall be treated as the company’s regular apparatus, regardless of make/model.

A

6

201
Q

(Guidelines for Preparing for Technician Exams Bull 93) If a company’s regular apparatus goes out-of-service during the ___ days prior to the TA portion of the exam, then the Captain shall attempt to obtain a reserve of the same make/model.

A

30

202
Q

(Guidelines for Preparing for Technician Exams Bull 93) The Academy portion shall be scheduled within ___ calendar days, absent of any extenuating circumstances.

A

30

203
Q

(Terrorism Liaison Officer Program Bull 102) The selection of TLOs shall Have a minimum of __ years with DCFEMS

A

5

204
Q

(Terrorism Liaison Officer Program Bull 102) How often do you evaluating each TLO?

A

Annually

205
Q

(Terrorism Liaison Officer Program Bull 102) Attend required TLO meetings and training. Shall compete ____ to ____ hours of in-service training annually, and all other assigned training.

A

three (3) to eight (8) hours

206
Q

(Funeral Leave Bull 106) Employees assigned to a 40-hour workweek shall be granted funeral leave for ____ workdays.

A

3

207
Q

(Funeral Leave Bull 106) Employees assigned to a 24/72 shift shall receive ____ 24-hour shift of funeral leave.

A

1

208
Q

(Funeral Leave Bull 106) Employees assigned to a 2-2-4 shift shall receive ___ 12-hour shifts of funeral leave.

A

2

209
Q

(DOCUMENTATION OF VERBAL COUNSELING Bull 107) Within ___ days, supervisors shall follow-up verbal counseling with the issuance of the F&EMSD Form 169 (Revised 2020), Documentation of Verbal Counseling.

A

5

210
Q

(DOCUMENTATION OF VERBAL COUNSELING Bull 107) Supervisors shall retain a copy of the F&EMSD Form 169 (Revised 2020) for a period of no less than ___ years.

A

2

211
Q

(DOCUMENTATION OF VERBAL COUNSELING Bull 107) A F&FEMS Form 169 (Revised 2020) ___ ___ be used if the member is being cited and a case number has been obtained from Compliance.

A

shall not

212
Q

(DOCUMENTATION OF VERBAL COUNSELING Bull 107) Documents of verbal counseling may be used as a reference for up to ___ years by supervisors when determining any new infraction’s level of appropriate action.

A

3

213
Q

(Apparatus and Firehouse Security Bull 108) Entry doors ___ ___ be propped open without a member present in the immediate area.

A

shall not

SGT Exam (11 decks)

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