Operational Flashcards

1
Q

What is the minimum circling minima for CAT C aircraft?

A

MDH 600 ft

VIsibility 2400 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When pilots are allowed to leave their seats for physiological needs?

A

In cruise and level flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In the event of laser attack, what is best to do?

A

In the event of a laser attack: OMA 6.18

  • Look away or shield eyes from the light.
  • Avoid rubbing eyes.

If still affected then seek medical attention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When pilots can take a break in flight?

A

In cruise only and at times of low workload. CPT will decide on a suitable time for a break.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Captain must not commence a flight unless:

A

Commander shall not commence a flight unless he is satisfied that:

The aircraft is airworthy.
The aircraft equipment, configuration and all calculations are made in accordance with the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) and the Configuration Deviation List (CDL).
The documents, additional information and forms required by Section 8.1.12, “List of Documents, Forms and Additional Information to Be Carried” are on board.
Ground facilities and services required for the planned flight are available and adequate.
The provisions specified in the Company Operations Manual in respect of fuel, oil and oxygen requirements, minimum safe altitudes, aerodrome operating minima and availability of alternate aerodromes, where required, can be complied with for the planned flight.
The load is properly distributed and safely secured.
The weight of the aircraft, at the commencement of the take-off roll, will be such that the flight can be conducted in compliance with the ‘Minimum Safe Altitudes’. Refer to Section 8.1.1, “Minimum Flight Altitudes (MFAs)” and the OMB.
Any operational limitation in addition to those covered above can be complied with.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How broad is the coverage of route MORA in OFP?

A

Wothin 20NM of route segment centerline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If OAT is -10 or colder, which altitudes needs to be corrected?

A

All minimum altitudes after FAF, MSA and DA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When visibility can be converted into RVR?

A

A conversion from meteorological visibility to RVR/CMV should not be used:

When reported RVR is available;
For calculating take-off minima; and
For any RVR minima less than 800 m (after conversion) OMA 8.1.3.4

RVR more than 1500 metres”, it is not considered to be a reported value for the purpose of this paragraph.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which minima should you enter in MCDU Approach PERF page for:

Cat 3b company
Cat 3b with RA
Cat 3a Company?

A

Cat 3b company - NO DH
Cat 3b with RA - 25 RA
Cat 3a Company? - 50 RA OM-A 8.1.5.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Fuel penalty for carrying extra fuel?

A

The penalty for carriage of extra fuel is normally 3.0% of extra fuel per hour of flight (i.e. on a 2 hour sector up to 6% of the extra fuel uplifted will be burned off due to the increased aircraft weight.).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When can we use 3% contingency fuel?

A

Not less than 3% or 5 minutes, which ever is greater, of the planned Trip Fuel or in the event of in flight replanning, 3% of the Trip Fuel for the remainder of the flight, provided that an en-route alternate is available in accordance with the diagram below. The en-route alternate should be located within a circle having a radius equal to 20% of the total flight plan distance, the centre of which lies on the planned route at a distance from the destination of 25% of the total flight plan distance, or at 20% of the total flight plan distance plus 50 NM, whichever is the greater;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the standards weight for:

Flight crew?
Cabin crew?
Male passenger?
Female passenger?
Children?
A
Flight crew - 85 kg including bag
Cabin crew - 75 kg including bag
Male - 93 kg incl. cabin bag
Female - 75 kg incl. cabin bag
Child - 35 kg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are standards weights for dogs and cello?

A

No standard weights established.

Use actual or reasonable assessment weight, e.g. 35 kg for dog or 10 kg for cello.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
What are pitch and power figures for A319/A320 for:
G dot
250 kts
conf 1 - s speed
conf 2 - f speed
3 deg final in conf 3
A
G dot - 5/55
250 kts - 3/62
conf 1 - s speed - 7/56
conf 2 - f speed - 8/58
3 deg final in conf 3 - 4/46

Achieving target pitch, set target N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Alcohol policy and restrictions

A

Alcoholic drinks must not be consumed by crew members while on duty, including standby duty, deadheading and during all rostered training (including ground training duties), during the 10 hours before reporting for duty (or the commencement of standby) and be kept to a minimum during the 14 hours preceding this period and only in moderation during the 24 hours preceding such duties. (As a guide, moderation should be regarded as no more than five units of alcohol dispersed over the 14 hours preceding the 10 hour ban. One unit of alcohol is equivalent to a small glass of wine (~100 ml), half a pint of beer (~250 ml) or a small measure of spirits (~25 ml).

Crew members shall not commence a flight duty period with a blood alcohol level in excess of 0.2 milligrams per millilitre. Be aware that local laws may be more restrictive and therefore supersede the Company requirement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Is smoking onboard permitted at any time?

A

No, nowhere on the airplane. Captains responsibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is normally required RFF category for A319/A320?

Are downgrades permitted?

A

RFF category 6.

Downgrades permitted for planning purposes:

Departure/destination experiencing low commercial air traffic may be downgraded to RFF 5, this will be noted in OFP when permitted.

Dep/destn in case pf TEMPORARY downgrade for a period not exceeding 72 hours (3days), notified through ATIS, by ATC or NOTAM - minimum RFF Category 4.

Alternates (take-off, enroute, destination) - minimum 4, but in UK minimum 5.

-Contact OCC if downgrade occurs and it is clear that OCC is not aware.

If a downgrade occurs during flight, the Commander may use OMA Table 8.3 as guidance. Nevertheless, the Commander may decide to land at an aerodrome regardless of RFFS category if it is considered safer to do so than to divert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Applicability of weather reports or forecasts for departure, destination, destination alternate and t/o alternate?

A

Weather reports and forecasts for Destination and Alternates shall be considered during a period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at an aerodrome.

The ceiling shall be taken into account, in addition to RVR/visibility, for non-precision and circling approaches.

Actual weather conditions shall be taken into account at the Departure aerodrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When take off alternate is required?

A

A take-off alternate is required when performance or meteorological conditions preclude a return to the departure aerodrome.

Meteorological conditions are suitable for return to the departure aerodrome when they are at or above the applicable minima for the instrument approach in use.

The weather reports or forecasts for the take-off alternate shall be at or above the applicable minima for the expected instrument approach.

Any limitation related to one engine inoperative operation or dispatch under MEL conditions shall be taken into account.

Note:
Automatic landing is not certified above maximum landing weight.

An aerodrome selected as a take-off alternate shall be located within one hour still air flight time at the one engine inoperative cruising speed (maximum continuous thrust speed) in ISA conditions based on the actual take-off weight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When two destination alternates are required?

A

when:

The weather reports or forecasts at destination are below the applicable planning minima.

No meteorological information is available.

The landing performance requirements cannot be assured at a destination aerodrome due to dependence on a specific wind component or runway state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are planning minima for destination alternate?

A

Cat II and Cat III-Cat I minima (RVR)
LTS Cat I-Cat I minima (RVR)
Cat I-Non-precision approach minima (ceiling/RVR above MDH)
APV-NPA or CAT I minima, depending on the DH/MDH
Non-precision-Non-precision approach minima plus 200 ft/1000 m
(MDH/MDA + 200 ft/RVR + 1000 m)

Circling-Circling minima

“Non precision minima” mentioned in the table above, means the next highest minimum that is available in the prevailing wind and serviceability conditions; Localiser only approaches, if published, are considered to be “non precision” in this context.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When destination alternate aerodrome is not required?

A

At least one usable destination alternate aerodrome must be selected for each IFR flight unless:

Dispatched under the Alternative Flight Planning Procedures in Section 8.1.7.6.5, “No Destination Alternate Aerodrome Procedure”.

The use of Alternative Flight Planning Procedures is normally limited to those flights that are PAYLOAD or performance restricted, consideration should be given to obtaining a revised OFP in the event that these procedures are necessary for dispatch.

The duration of the planned flight from take-off to landing, or, in the event of in-flight re-planning, the remaining flying time to destination does not exceed six hours.

Two separate runways are available and usable at the destination and the appropriate weather reports or forecasts for the destination aerodrome, or any combination thereof, indicate that for the period from one hour before until one hour after the expected time of arrival (ETA) at the destination, the ceiling will be at least 2,000 ft or circling height +500 ft, whichever is greater, and the visibility will be at least 5 km.

Note:
Runways on the same aerodrome are considered to be separate runways when.

They are separate landing surfaces which may overlay or cross such that if one of the runways is blocked, it will not prevent the planned type of operations on the other runway.

Each runway shall have a separate approach procedure based on a separate navigation aid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When can CPT assess visibility RVR for take-off?

A

When the reported meteorological visibility is below that required for take-off and RVR is not reported, a take-off may only be commenced if the Commander can determine that the actual RVR/visibility along the take-off runway is equal or better than the required minimum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Do you need RVR reports for CAT1 approach?

A

No. Iaw table of failed or downgraded equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Do you need RVR reports for Cat2, Cat 3a and Cat 3b with DH?

A

On runways equipped with 2 or more assessment units (normally 3) one of them may be inop. (So normally 2 are required)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Do you need RVR reports for Cat3B NO DH operation? And if yes, how many?

A

At least one RVR value to be available on the airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When the new page of tech log has to be started?

A

If defect has been entered or no direct handover between the crews

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Briefing Notes in tech log, are they required documents for dispatch?

A

No. If they are missing, call MOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When cabin defects log need to be presented to CPT?

A

At the end of each flight/sector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are Captain actions regarding the Cabin defects log?

A

Review entries for airworthiness affecting defects and transfer them to tech log.

Seats, life jackets and emergency exit lighting are airworthiness items. Where doubt exists airworthiness should be the overriding consideration. considered as non-airworthiness items would affect soft furnishings, carpets, seat covers, and some galley equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are you actions if previous sector details are incomplete or missing?

A

Call OCC to get approval for dispatch (in certain circumstances it is possible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Tech log entry FOR INFO. What does this mean?

A

In certain circumstances it is permissible to use the term “FOR INFO” in the Technical Log for specific entries that record information which may be useful in fault diagnosis, but which does not require immediate engineering action.

The intent of this approval is to ensure that the engineers are aware of events which potentially may not have otherwise been reported.

A “FOR INFO” entry is not considered an open defect at time of entry, however the Commander must still inform MOC that such an entry is made.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are you actions if system malfunction is rectified by QRH reset?

A

System malfunctions which are rectified by QRH action and/or system resets, in accordance with the FCOM. Follow the “CREW RESET” procedure in accordance with OMB, Section 3.2. There is no requirement to contact MOC and the “action taken” column and “CRS” column shall be crossed out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When does flight envelope should be returned?

A

At the end of flight duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Are there any restrictions on number of PRMs?

A

No restrictions. Number of ABP should be equal or exceed number of PRMs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are your actions stowaway is discovered enroute?

A

Notify company and raise an ASR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Are stretchers accepted for travel?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the restrictions regarding travel of infants?

A

Infants under two weeks of age are not accepted for travel.

Not more than 2 infants per adult.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the restrictions for travel of children aged 13 years or younger?

A

Children aged 13 years or younger cannot travel unless they are accompanied by an adult who is at least 16 years old and who will take full responsibility for them.

Max 10 children per one superviser who is 16 years or older.

easyJet does not operate an indemnity policy and therefore under no circumstances must another customer be asked to accept responsibility for an unaccompanied minor from the point of check-in. If a member of the ground handling Company suspects a customer may be taking responsibility for an unaccompanied minor they are to notify their supervisor, and politely challenge the customer and be satisfied the customer has an established relationship with the minor.

If the ground handling Company is unsatisfied with the response the unaccompanied minor and the customer posing as a known individual to the minor will be refused carriage.

Note:
In exceptional circumstances, the ALO or OCC may authorise acceptance of an unaccompanied minor younger than the ages stated above. This would normally only be approved as a ‘service recovery’ measure for passengers on a return journey, and would not normally be approved on an outbound sector of a return booking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Can we carry prisoners?

A

With NDM permission, escorted and normally one at a time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the boarding restrictions for deportees?

A

They should board first and disembark last, travel documents to be in possession of SCCM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How many unescorted passengers we can normally carry onboard?

A

Normally only 2. On case by case basis it could be authorized higher number by Security Manager.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are travel restrictions for inadmissible passengers?

A

They can have their travel documents and disembark unescorted after the flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Can Commander refuse carriage of deportee or inadmissible passenger?

A

The Commander retain the right to refuse to carry deportees inadmissible passengers where in their opinion the safety of the aeroplane, passengers or crew is being put at risk. The Commander must be prepared to fully justify his refusal. If required by UK immigration authorities, Commanders should detain on board any passenger refused permission to enter the United Kingdom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When aircraft doors can be closed?

A

When the flightdeck door is closed and all passengers seated

46
Q

Is it allowed to carry baggage onboard which was supposed to be carried in the hold?

A

No, unless the baggage was specifically screened as cabin bag.

47
Q

Is it allowed to carry AOG spares to/from Switzerland?

A

No

48
Q

What is the procedure for carrying of AOG spares?

A

Only for EZY fleet
Not a DGR Goods
Max 60kgs
Engineers at departure station will deliver aog spares, which will be screened and sealed with spares label attached and NOTOC to Captain
At arrival, only engineers can collect the spares. If engineer not available, call OCC.

49
Q

Can FDM data be carried?

A

Yes if sealed and delivered and collected by an Enginner. It should be screened.

50
Q

Can musical instruments be carried?

A

Yes, if it fits overhead locker (max 117cm) otherwise pax to purchase extra seat.

51
Q

If you are not sure if PRM is fit for travel, who will you contact?

A

ALO

52
Q

Do not start take off run unless:

A

Commence take-off nor continue beyond the point from which a revised flight plan applies in the event of in-flight re-planning, unless information is available indicating that the expected weather conditions at the destination and / or required alternate aerodrome(s) prescribed in Section 8.1.2.1, “Approved Aerodromes” are at or above the PLANNING minima prescribed

53
Q

Do not continue to planned destination unless:

A

Continue towards the planned destination aerodrome unless the latest information available indicates that, at the expected time of arrival, the weather conditions at the destination, OR at least one destination alternate aerodrome, are at or above the applicable aerodrome operating minima.

54
Q

At which weather report should landing performance be based inflight?

A

Latest available but not later than ETA-30min

55
Q

Describe NADP2

A

For distant noise sensitive areas
SRS (V2+10-20kts) till 1000 AAL
CLB thrust, Gdot+5 till 3000 AAL,
Passing 3000AAL accelerate to enroute climb speed

Crew to ensure that safety has priority of noise abatement

56
Q

Desribe NADP1

A

For distant noise sensitive areas
SRS (V2+10-20kts) till 1000AAL
Climb thrust, climb at V2+10-20kts till 3000 AAL
Accelerate to enroute climb speed, retract flaps on schedule.

Crew to ensure safety has priority over noise abatement consideration

57
Q

What events has precedence over TCAS alerts?

A

Stall
Windshear
GPWS

58
Q

What is the minimum FOB when starting engines?

A

The fuel on board when starting the engines must not be less than the minimum fuel quantity defined by the fuel policy.

59
Q

If as the result of an in-flight fuel check, the expected useable fuel remaining on arrival at the destination aerodrome is less than CNR - The required Alternate Fuel plus Final Reserve:

A

Commander must take into account the traffic and the operational conditions prevailing at the destination aerodrome, at the destination alternate aerodrome and at any other adequate aerodrome, in deciding whether to proceed to the destination aerodrome or to divert so as to perform a safe landing with not less than Final Reserve Fuel.

In other words, assess:

Expected delay and weather at destination
Delay and weather at destn alternate and any other adequate aerodrome

A landing is “assured” if, in the judgement of the Commander, it could be completed in the event of any forecast deterioration in the weather and plausible single failures of ground and/or airborne facilities, e.g. CAT II/III to CAT I.

60
Q

When do you call MINIMUM FUEL

A

If commited to an airfield, to let ATC know that any extra delay (change ti existing clearance) will result in landing with less than OFP Final reserve fuel.

61
Q

When will you call MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY, FUEL?

A

when the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less than the planned final reserve fuel. (OFP figure)

62
Q

What would be your actions in case of lightning strike?

A
Check flight and system instruments
Check all radios, nav equipment, 
Weather radar operation
Check situation in the cabin
Record in ATL, call MOC (lightning strike inspection required at landing)
63
Q

What are the guideline if thunderstorm activity is present

A

Don’t land or take-off in the face of an approaching thunderstorm. Turbulence wind reversal or windshear could cause loss of control.

Don’t attempt to fly under a thunderstorm even if you can see through to the other side. Turbulence and wind shear under the storm could be disastrous.

Don’t fly without airborne radar into a cloud mass containing scattered embedded thunderstorms. Scattered thunderstorms not embedded usually can be visually circumnavigated.

Don’t trust the visual appearance to be a reliable indicator of the turbulence inside a thunderstorm.

Do avoid by at least 20 NM, preferably on the upwind side, any thunderstorm identified as severe or giving an intense radar echo. This is especially true under the anvil of large cumulonimbus.

Do circumnavigate the entire area if the area has 6/10 thunderstorm coverage.

Do regard as extremely hazardous any thunderstorm with tops 35,000 feet or higher whether the top is visually sighted or determined by radar.

64
Q

If thunderstorm approaching the field

A

When significant thunderstorm activity is approaching within 15 NM of the airport, the Commander should consider conducting the departure or arrival from different direction or delaying the take-off or landing. Use all available information for this judgement, including PIREPs, ground radar, aircraft radar, tower-reported winds, and visual observations. In the terminal area thunderstorms should be avoided by no less than 3 NM.

65
Q

What is the minimum distance to avoid CBs, thunderstorm

A

Terminal area - 3NM
FL200 - 10 NM
FL250 - 15 NM
FL300 - 20 NM

Preferably upwind.

Vertically by at least 5000 ft. Negative tilt x ND distance x 100=vertical clearance above the cell when it disappears from radar.

66
Q

If ATC clearance can not be obtained in time for weather deviation

A

ATC requirements make flight into unsafe conditions imminent, the Commander should request a change of routing and if necessary use his emergency authority to avoid the severe weather conditions.

67
Q

When flying through weather storm or cell

A

Have margin

Maintain wings level

68
Q

Where in a cell is the greatest chance of thunderstorm and lightning

A

Near freezing level - 0 degrees C

69
Q

If encountered VA

A

Make 180 turn
QRH checklist 80.12
Report ATC

70
Q

What is the minimum time separation for take off

A

Heavy 2 min
A380 3 min
+1 min if interscetion

71
Q

Min separation of final behind
Heavy
A380
Medium

A

Heavy - 5NM
A380- 7 NM and 2 min
Medium 3 NM

72
Q

What are your actions in case of wake turbulence in cruise?

A

Report ATC. If safety in danger, deviate, then report ATC and report “Unable RVSM due Turbulence”

73
Q

What are controlled rest limitations?

A

Max duration 45 min, after controlled rest both pilots must be in f.deck for 20min (adoptation) and no controlled rest allowed within 30min prior ToD.

74
Q

When commuter can use f.deck jump seat?

A

In case passenger seat or cabin jump seat not available in the cabin and with the authorization from Duty Pilot

75
Q

What is the minimum age for cabin jump seat?

A

16 years old

76
Q

When is member of flight or cabin crew is reposnsible for safety of the cabin?

A

From the moment aircraft is accepted for flight till pax offload

77
Q

Who is responsible for correct freq. selections on VHF1 and VHF2?

A

PM

78
Q

When 121,5 shall be monitored?

A

In cruise, additionally if appropriate, during climb and descent

79
Q

Can both pilots use EFB simultaneously?

A

Not allowed during critical phases of flight

80
Q

What is pre-flight check of EFB?

A

Battery status
EFB cycle validity
Validity of LIDO database

81
Q

What are your actions if EFB mount is broken?

A

Record important data on paper and stow EFB for critical phases of flight

82
Q

Can passengers use PEDs while on the ramp?

A

No

83
Q

When WIFI feature of PEDs must be deactivated?

A

Before aicraft doors are closed

84
Q

What are the restrictions of carriage company personnel onboard of non commercial flights WITHOUT cabin crew

A

Authorization of Duty Pilot required
Company personnel must be on company business
And max 19 persons onboard

85
Q

If you need to ferry flight the aircraft in non standard configuration , example with G down, what are your actions?

A

DP authorization is required

86
Q

When normally aircraft doors are targeted to be closed?

A

By STD-3 min

87
Q

When Crew must be onboard, latest?

A

By STD-35

GLB starts STD-25min (if not ready for boarding, contact and advise dispatcher)

88
Q

What is the earliest time aircraft can depart from stand?

A

At STD-10 min

89
Q

If one cabin crew missing, what are your actions?

A

Advise crewing, go to aircraft and if SCCM present, advise dispatcher that initially will board max. 150 pax. BUT boarding and refuelling is not allowed!

90
Q

If crew food is missing, can you delay departure?

A

No, Cpt may authorize to use onboard bar

91
Q

Who determines delay codes?

A

Where possible, CPT should agree with dispatcher delay code(s)

92
Q

How many approaches can be attempted?

A

Not more than 2, unless significantly improvement in wx or in state of emergency. In exceptional situations, 3rd approach may be flown if reason for go-around was not wx related AND landing is ASSURED.

No more than two successive approaches may be flown when there has been a go-around due to weather conditions unless there has been a significant improvement to the weather, or a state of emergency exists.

In exceptional circumstances, a third approach may be flown when a go-around has been carried out for non-weather related reasons providing the Commander is satisfied that landing is assured.

93
Q

What is the minima for visual approach?

A

Min vis 5 km
Ceiling 2500ft or above
Maintain at least 1500ft above aerodrome level OR 500ft above terrain or obstacle untill established on FINAL.

94
Q

Talk about approach ban

A

Approach may be started irrespective of reported RVR/VIS. If reported RVR/VIS below minima, do not continue below 1000 AAL or FINAL approach segment if DA/MDA is above 1000AAL (SKG)

An instrument approach may be commenced regardless of the reported RVR/VIS. If the reported RVR/VIS is less than the applicable minimum the approach shall not be continued:

  1. Below 1000 ft above the aerodrome; or
  2. Into the final approach segment in the case where the DA/H or MDA/H is more than 1000 ft above the aerodrome.

Where the RVR is not available, RVR values may be derived by converting the reported visibility in accordance with Part A Section 8.1.3.4.

If, after passing 1000 ft above the aerodrome, the reported RVR/VIS falls below the applicable minimum, the approach may be continued to DA/H or MDA/H.

The approach may be continued below DA/H or MDA/H and the landing may be completed provided that the visual reference adequate for the type of approach operation and for the intended runway is established at the DA/H or MDA/H and is maintained.

Note:
For Non-Precision Approach reported ceiling does not need to be considered for the commencement and continuation of the approach.

95
Q

RVR for which part of the runway is always controlling?

A

TDZ. If mid point and stop end is reported, also controlling

96
Q

What are the minimum RVR values for approach?

A

TDZ as per AOM from IAC.
Mid point 125m or 75m provided rollout abd AP is used
Stop end - 75m

97
Q

How many RVR reports are required for CAT3B NO DH operation?

A

Only one.

98
Q

What is the maximum acceptable difference in track value between IAC and MCDU?

A

3 degrees or less

99
Q

What are the requirements for destination alternate if RNAV approach is planned at destination?

A

Conventional approach must be available at destination alternate

100
Q

What are company recommendations regarding circling approach?

A

Nominated PF for the approach on a side of circling, provided other limitations are fullfilled

101
Q

Is circling approach allowed at night if vertical guidance not available (e.g. PAPi, VASI, ILS or equivalent)?

A

No

102
Q

If destination weather or forecast is below CAT1 during pre flight preparation what is a requirement for destination alternate?

A

At least CAT1 weather or better conditions

103
Q

What are your actions if Dangerous Goods are discovered onboard?

A

Report OCC via ACARS to arrange safe offload

Raise ASR

104
Q

the definition of critical phases of flight is?

A

Critical Phases of Flight: The take-off run, the take-off flight path, the final approach, the missed approach, the landing, including the landing roll, and any other phases of flight as determined by the pilot-in-command or commander.

105
Q

What are the limitations for travel of pregnant?

A

Expectant mothers can be accepted for travel up to the end of the 35th week for single pregnancies.

Expectant mothers expecting more than one baby (e.g. twins) can only be accepted for travel up to the end of the 32nd week.

Medical certification is not required for expectant mothers to travel.

106
Q

Minima and visual references required for CAT 1 approach?

A

DA not less than 200ft
Min. RVR 550m

ONE of the following:

  • approach lights
  • threshold markings or lights
  • PAPI
  • touchdown zone lights or markings
  • runway edge lights
107
Q

Minima and visual references required for CAT2 approach?

A

Not lower than DH 100RA and RVR 300m

Visual references
At least 3 consecutive lights of:
-The centre light of the approach lights
-Touchdown zone lights
-centre line lights
-Runway edge lights, or
A combination of these.

AND a lateral element of the ground pattern:
-approach lighting crossbar,
The landing threshold or a barrette of the touchdown zone lighting.

108
Q

Minima and visual references for CAT3A?

A

DH lower than 100RA but RVR not lower than 200m

Visual references

At least 3 consecutive lights of:

centreline of the approach lights, or
The touchdown zone lights, or
The runway centre line lights, or
The runway edge lights, or

A combination of these is attained and can be maintained.

NO REQUIREMENT FOR LATERAL ELEMENT as for CAT2 and CAT1LTS

109
Q

Minima and visual references for CAT3 B with DH?

A

CAT 3B with RA - DH=25 ft, RVR minimum 75 m

Visual references
1 centerline light

110
Q

CAT 3B NO DH what is the minima and visual references requirement?

A

No visual references required, minimum RVR 75m