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2. OM-B > OM-B > Flashcards

OM-B Flashcards

1
Q

What are the minimum take off climb gradients?

A
  • second segment 2,4% gross
  • final segment 1,2% gross

OMB 4.4.2

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2
Q

When is the use of reverse thrust in an RTO assumed?

A

DRY: no credit for reverse thrust
WET or CONTAMINATED: max reverse thrust on the operative engine is assumed in the RTO case.

OMB 4.5.2 and 4.6.6

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3
Q

Which documents are electronically included in the EFB?

A

Oma
Omb
eRM/ Special airline information (SAI)
OMDF
NTC
CSPM
FCOM
FCTM
MEL
CDL

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4
Q

Which paper documents manuals and forms should be in the FD?

A

2 QRH
2 normal checklists
Certificates folder
Documents folder
Loading form and certificate pad
Aircraft tech log

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5
Q

On which runway conditions is take off not recommended?

A
  • wet ice
  • water on top of compacted snow
  • dry snow or wet snow over ice

Omb 2.1

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6
Q

What are the FO handling limits?

A
  • max x-wind 20Kts
  • TO minimum RVR 400m
  • min rwy width 45m
  • no contamination or slippery condition as declared by airport
  • no reported windshear
  • no AUTOLAND for normal ops
  • approach minima:
    CAT I ILS
    Published minima for NPA
    min vis for circling 5000m
  • no planned tailwinds for 3*
  • no flap 3 landings for 3*

Omb 2.1

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7
Q

If during the engine start the ground crew observes a fuel leak from the engine drain mast, how long should the engine be run at idle?

A

5 minutes.

Omb 2.3.8.1

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8
Q

If a leak is observed during start up, the engine is run for 5 minutes and the leakage is less than 60 drops/ min. Is there any maintenance action required?

A

No

Omb 2.3.8.1

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9
Q

If a leak is observed during start up, the engine is run for 5 minutes and the leakage is between 60 and 90 drops/ min. Is there any maintenance action required?

A

Yes, within 25 cycles

Mob 2.3.8.1

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10
Q

If a leak is observed during start up, the engine is run for 5 minutes and the leakage is more than 90 drops/ min. Is there any maintenance action required?

A

Yes, shutdown the engine and seek advice from MOC

OMB 2.3.8.1

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11
Q

What is the max certified brake temperature prior to take off?

A

300 degrees or 150 degrees with brake fans.

OMB 2.3.10

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12
Q

What is the reduction in flex temp if Engine A/ice is not used in the T/o calculations but will be used?

A

Subtract 5 degrees

OMB 2.3.10

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13
Q

What is the reduction in flex temp for a decrease in QNH?

A

Subtract 1 degree/ 2 hPa

OMB 2.3.10

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14
Q

What is the minimum required runway width for a 180 degree turn?

A

30 meters

OMB 2.3.10.1

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15
Q

When should the ENG MODE SEL set to IGN prior to TO?

A

When

  • the runway has standing water
  • heavy rain is falling
  • heavy rain or severe turbulence is expected after take off

OMB 2.3.11

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16
Q

What buffet margin will the MAX REC FL give?

A

At least 0.3 G

OMB 2.3.14.1

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17
Q

When may REV IDLE be selected?

A

DRY RUNWAYS:
Crew may select idle

WET RUNWAYS
Crew may select idle if the following conditions are satisfied during landing calculations:
- medium runway state
- autobrake low or med (A/R)
- no reverser credit
- the result of the factored LD is within LDA

Otherwise REV MAX shall be used

OMB 2.3.16

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18
Q

What is the target speed in the descent when the EXP button is used?

A

M0.8 or 340Kts

OMB 2.3.17.3

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19
Q

Above which speed is the rate of retraction of the speedbrakes slower?

A

Above 315kts/M.75

OMB 2.3.17.3

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20
Q

At which altitude should and must all approaches be stable?

A

All approaches should be stable at 1000 feet above TDZE and must be stable at 500ft RA

OMB 2.3.18.1.4

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21
Q

What are the stable approach criteria?

A
  • aircraft in landing config
  • target final approach speed +10/-5 kts
  • ROD less than 1200ft
  • aircraft on correct lateral and vertical path
  • bank angle less than 15 degrees

OMB 2.3.18.1.4

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22
Q

What is the latest when a circling approach must be stable?

A

400ft RADIO

OMB 2.3.18.1.4

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23
Q

What is the approach ban?

A

The final approach segment may not be continued beyond 1000ft if the reported RVR is below the required minima.

OMB 2.3.18.3.1.1

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24
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for (E)GPWS?

A

Pull up TOGA

OMB 2.3.90.10

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25
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for reactive windshear?

A

Windshear TOGA

OMB 2.3.90.10

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26
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for unreliable speed indication?

A

UNRELIABLE SPEED

OMB 2.3.90.10

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27
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for TCAS?

A

TCAS I HAVE CONTROL

OMB 2.3.90.10

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28
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for an emergency descent?

A

EMERGENCY DESCENT

OMB 2.3.90.10

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29
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for loss of braking?

A

LOSS OF BRAKING

OMB 2.3.90.10

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30
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for a stall recovery?

A

STALL I HAVE CONTROL

OMB 2.3.90.10

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31
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for stall warning at lift off?

A

STALL TOGA 15

OMB 2.3.90.10

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32
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for perceptible smoke or fumes in the FD?

A

SMOKE/ FUMES EMERGENCY PROCEDURE

OMB 2.3.90.10

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33
Q

What angle of approaches are considered as steep approaches?

A

Between 3.5 and 4.5 degrees

OMB 2.4.26

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34
Q

What is the highest angle when a decelerated approach may be executed?

A

3.5 degrees. Higher angles should be executed using a stabilized approach.

OMB 2.4.26

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35
Q

When can an engine be considered ‘cold’?

A

When it’s been shut down for 6 hours or more.

OMB 2.4.90

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36
Q

When is a OETD prohibited?

A
  1. The taxi surface is slippery
  2. LVO are in effect
  3. The engines are cold

OMB 2.4.90

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37
Q

What is the requiered climb gradient in the second segment?

A

2.4% gross

OMB 4.4.2

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38
Q

What is the required climb gradient in the final segment?

A

1.2% gross

OMB 4.4.2

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39
Q

Where is the start of the net take off flight path?

A

35ft above the end of the take off distance.

OMB 4.4.3

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40
Q

By what altitude must the net take off flight path clear all obstacles?

A

By at least 35ft

OMB 4.4.3

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41
Q

What is the net take off flight path?

A

The actual (i.e gross) flight path reduced by a specific gradient decrement. For two engine a/p this is 0.8%.

OMB 4.4.3

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42
Q

What is the definition of a damp runway?

A

A runway that’s not dry, but the moisture on it does not give it a shiny appearance.

OMB 4.5.1

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43
Q

For take off performance, a damp runway shall be considered….?

A

Wet

OMB 4.5.1

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44
Q

When is a runway considered wet for take off performance?

A
  • 3 mm or less of water, slush or loose snow
    Or
  • when there is sufficient moisture to cause it to appear reflective, but without significant areas of standing water.

OMB 4.5.1

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45
Q

Is reverse thrust credited in the RTO case on a dry runway?

A

No

OMB 4.5.2

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46
Q

Is the use of reverse thrust included in the RTO case on a wet runway?

A

Yes, the use of maximum reverse thrust on the operative engine.

OMB 4.5.2

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47
Q

On what screen height is the engine failure take off performance for a wet runway based?

A

15ft above the end of the take off distance.

OMB 4.5.3

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48
Q

What is the ‘dry check’ in performance calculations?

A

The take off weight on a wet runway must not exceed that permitted on a dry runway under the same conditions.

OMB 4.5.4

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49
Q

When is reduced thrust take off prohibited?

A

Runway is contaminated
Dispatch with gear extended planned.

OMB 4.5.6

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50
Q

What is the maximum crosswind on a runway notified as ‘may be slippery when wet’

A

25kts

OMB 4.5.7

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51
Q

What is the minimum permissible runway width?

A

30m

OMB 4.8

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52
Q

When is dispatch from/to narrow runways not allowed?

A
  • nosewheel steering inoperative
  • one brake or more inop.

OMB 4.8

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53
Q

Is AUTOLAND permitted on narrow runways?

A

No

OMB 4.8

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54
Q

An increase in which speed is required for the performance on narrow runways, and why?

A

Vmcg to improve controllability in the event of an engine failure.

OMB 4.8

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55
Q

What is the actual landing distance? (ALD)

A

The horizontal distance necessary to land and come to a full stop from a point 50ft above the runway surface.

OMB 4.11.1

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56
Q

By which factor is the ALD multiplied for a DRY runway?

A

1.67

OMB 4.11.1

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57
Q

By which factor is the ALD multiplied for a WET runway?

A

1.92

OMB 4.11.1

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58
Q

What is the required approach climb gradient and under which conditions?

A

2.1% in approach config and speed

One engine inop, other at TOGA and gear up.

OMB 4.11.2

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59
Q

What is the required landing climb gradient and under which conditions?

A

3.2% in landing config, all engines operative, gear down.

OMB 4.11.2

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60
Q

What is the required low visibility climb gradient and under which conditions?

A

2.5% or the published gradient.

Speed and config used for go around, one engine inop, with DH below 200ft

OMB 4.11.2

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61
Q

What is the fuel burn per min for the APU?

A

2kg/min

OMB 5.1

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62
Q

What is the fuel burn per minute, during 2 engine taxi?

A

10kg/min

OMB 5.1

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63
Q

What is the fuel burn during single engine taxi?

A

7kg/min

OMB 5.1

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64
Q

What is the fuel per min in the hold? (1500ft)

A

40kg/min

OMB 5.1

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65
Q

What is the extra fuel burn per min in the climb for engine anti ice?

A

1.1 kg/min

OMB 5.1

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66
Q

What is the extra fuel burn per min in the climb for engine and wing anti ice?

A

2.0 kg/ min

OMB 5.1

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67
Q

What is the extra fuel burn per min in the cruise for engine anti ice?

A

1 kg/min

OMB 5.1

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68
Q

What is the extra fuel burn per min in the cruise for engine and wing anti ice?

A

2 kg/ min

OMB 5.1

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69
Q

What is the extra fuel burn per min in the hold for engine anti ice?

A

2.0 Kg/ min

OMB 5.1

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70
Q

What is the extra fuel burn per min in the hold for engine and wing anti ice?

A

3 kg/ min

OMB 5.1

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71
Q

What is the distance for an adequate aerodrome for the A319?

A

380NM

OMB 5.1

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72
Q

What is the distance for an adequate aerodrome for the A320?

A

400NM

OMB 5.1

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73
Q

If a take off alternate is required, within what distance must it be?

A

Within 320nm for A319 and A320.

OMB 5.1

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74
Q

If a longer SID/STAR is expected, and fuel is adjusted, how much fuel per mm for and increase?

A

5kg/nm

OMB 5.4

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75
Q

If a shorter SID/STAR is expected, and fuel is adjusted, how much fuel per mm for and decrease?

A

4kg/nm

OMB 5.4

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76
Q

When is a new loading form required after receiving the LMC’s?

A

Plus 10/ minus 20 pax

OMB 7.4

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77
Q

What are the minimum climb gradients?

A

Second segment 2.4% gross

Final segment 1.2% gross

OMB 4.4.2

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78
Q

What are the landing and approach climb gradients?

A

Approach climb:
Cat 1: 2.1%
Cat 2 or 3: 2.5%

Landing:
3.2
(All engine operative spool up delay 8 secs. This is never limiting).

OMB 4.11.2

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79
Q

What is the max allowable altimeter tolerance on the ground? And in flight?

A

PFD within 25’ of elevation. A further check may be done at runway threshold if necessary.

Between PFD’s max 20 feet and PFD and ISIS max 100’

OMB 2.3.6.9
FCOM 3.4.34

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80
Q

What is the APU fuel burn?

A

2kg/min

OMB 5.1

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81
Q

Within what distance must a take off alternate be?

A

320nm

OMB 5.2.2

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82
Q

Within what distance must a adequate aerodrome be?

A

A319- 380nm
A320- 400nm

OMB 5.1

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83
Q

What is an approach ban?

A

The final approach segment may not be continued if the reported RVR is below the published minimum. Below 1000’ the approach may be continued if the RVR drops below.

OMB 2.3.18.1

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84
Q

What is the specific gravity of JETA-1

A

0,8kg/ litre

OMB 6.4

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85
Q

When may we take off on a RUNWAY reported as may be slippery when wet?

A
  • when the distance available equals or exceeds that required for an icy runway
  • max xwind 25kts
  • if any section of runway is ba poor or unreported, max crosswind 15kts

OMB 4.12.4

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86
Q

What are the calls for an emergency landing?

A

2000’:
Cabin crew take up landing positions

500’:
Brace, Brace

Unplanned emergency:
Attention crew brace brace

Omb 2.3.90.10

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87
Q

What are the priorities of procedures/ publication?

A
  1. OFP COMPANY NOTAMS, crew Alerts, crew bulletins
  2. NTCs
  3. AIRBUS OEB’s
  4. COMPANY MANUALS
  5. Airbus FCOM
  6. Airbus FCTM

OMB 0.2

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88
Q

The taxi fuel on the OFP, does it take OETD in account?

A

No, based on all engines taxi fuel flow.

OMB 5.2.4

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89
Q

Is the taxi fuel on the OFP specific for the departure runway on the OFP?

A

No, it is a statistical value derived from all departure runway data.

OMB 5.2.4

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90
Q

Which CI is used for the calculation of alternate fuel?

A

CI0

OMB 5.2.4

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91
Q

Who will initiatie the decleration of an emergency?

A

The captain

Omb 3.1.3

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92
Q

When would as a guide, the decleration of an mayday call be appropriate?

A

When a succesfull outcome is in jeopardy.

OMB 3.1.3

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93
Q

What is the correct call for a state of urgency?

A

PAN PAN

OMB 3.1.3

94
Q

What is the correct call for a distress?

A

MAYDAY

OMB 3.1.3

95
Q

Which call should ensure priority over other traffic and the airport emergency services are on standby?

A

Pan pan call

OMB 3.1.3

96
Q

When are ECAM warnings inhibit during the takeoff roll?

A

From 80kts to 1500ft (or 2 minutes after lift off, whatever occurs first).

OMB 3.10

97
Q

What is the PA that should be made when initiating an evacuation?

A

EVACUATE, UNFASTEN YOUR SEATBELTS AND GET OUT.

OMB 3.80.2

98
Q

When may reduced thrust not be used for take off?

A
  • Runway contaminated
  • Dispatch with landing gear extended

OMB 4.5.6

99
Q
A
100
Q

When may reduced thrust not be used for take off?

A
  • Runway contaminated
  • Dispatch with landing gear extended

OMB 4.5.6

101
Q

What are the minimum take off climb gradients?

A
  • second segment 2,4% gross
  • final segment 1,2% gross

OMB 4.4.2

102
Q

When is the use of reverse thrust in an RTO assumed?

A

DRY: no credit for reverse thrust
WET or CONTAMINATED: max reverse thrust on the operative engine is assumed in the RTO case.

OMB 4.5.2 and 4.6.6

103
Q

Which documents are electronically included in the EFB?

A

Oma
Omb
eRM/ Special airline information (SAI)
OMDF
NTC
CSPM
FCOM
FCTM
MEL
CDL

104
Q

Which paper documents manuals and forms should be in the FD?

A

2 QRH
2 normal checklists
Certificates folder
Documents folder
Loading form and certificate pad
Aircraft tech log

105
Q

On which runway conditions is take off not recommended?

A
  • wet ice
  • water on top of compacted snow
  • dry snow or wet snow over ice

Omb 2.1

106
Q

What are the FO handling limits?

A
  • max x-wind 20Kts
  • TO minimum RVR 400m
  • min rwy width 45m
  • no contamination or slippery condition as declared by airport
  • no reported windshear
  • no AUTOLAND for normal ops
  • approach minima:
    CAT I ILS
    Published minima for NPA
    min vis for circling 5000m
  • no planned tailwinds for 3*
  • no flap 3 landings for 3*

Omb 2.1

107
Q

If during the engine start the ground crew observes a fuel leak from the engine drain mast, how long should the engine be run at idle?

A

5 minutes.

Omb 2.3.8.1

108
Q

If a leak is observed during start up, the engine is run for 5 minutes and the leakage is less than 60 drops/ min. Is there any maintenance action required?

A

No

Omb 2.3.8.1

109
Q

If a leak is observed during start up, the engine is run for 5 minutes and the leakage is between 60 and 90 drops/ min. Is there any maintenance action required?

A

Yes, within 25 cycles

Mob 2.3.8.1

110
Q

If a leak is observed during start up, the engine is run for 5 minutes and the leakage is more than 90 drops/ min. Is there any maintenance action required?

A

Yes, shutdown the engine and seek advice from MOC

OMB 2.3.8.1

111
Q

What is the max certified brake temperature prior to take off?

A

300 degrees or 150 degrees with brake fans.

OMB 2.3.10

112
Q

What is the reduction in flex temp if Engine A/ice is not used in the T/o calculations but will be used?

A

Subtract 5 degrees

OMB 2.3.10

113
Q

What is the reduction in flex temp for a decrease in QNH?

A

Subtract 1 degree/ 2 hPa

OMB 2.3.10

114
Q

What is the minimum required runway width for a 180 degree turn?

A

30 meters

OMB 2.3.10.1

115
Q

When should the ENG MODE SEL set to IGN prior to TO?

A

When

  • the runway has standing water
  • heavy rain is falling
  • heavy rain or severe turbulence is expected after take off

OMB 2.3.11

116
Q

What buffet margin will the MAX REC FL give?

A

At least 0.3 G

OMB 2.3.14.1

117
Q

When may REV IDLE be selected?

A

DRY RUNWAYS:
Crew may select idle

WET RUNWAYS
Crew may select idle if the following conditions are satisfied during landing calculations:
- medium runway state
- autobrake low or med (A/R)
- no reverser credit
- the result of the factored LD is within LDA

Otherwise REV MAX shall be used

OMB 2.3.16

118
Q

What is the target speed in the descent when the EXP button is used?

A

M0.8 or 340Kts

OMB 2.3.17.3

119
Q

Above which speed is the rate of retraction of the speedbrakes slower?

A

Above 315kts/M.75

OMB 2.3.17.3

120
Q

At which altitude should and must all approaches be stable?

A

All approaches should be stable at 1000 feet above TDZE and must be stable at 500ft RA

OMB 2.3.18.1.4

121
Q

What are the stable approach criteria?

A
  • aircraft in landing config
  • target final approach speed +10/-5 kts
  • ROD less than 1200ft
  • aircraft on correct lateral and vertical path
  • bank angle less than 15 degrees

OMB 2.3.18.1.4

122
Q

What is the latest when a circling approach must be stable?

A

400ft RADIO

OMB 2.3.18.1.4

123
Q

What is the approach ban?

A

The final approach segment may not be continued beyond 1000ft if the reported RVR is below the required minima.

OMB 2.3.18.3.1.1

124
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for (E)GPWS?

A

Pull up TOGA

OMB 2.3.90.10

125
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for reactive windshear?

A

Windshear TOGA

OMB 2.3.90.10

126
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for unreliable speed indication?

A

UNRELIABLE SPEED

OMB 2.3.90.10

127
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for TCAS?

A

TCAS I HAVE CONTROL

OMB 2.3.90.10

128
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for an emergency descent?

A

EMERGENCY DESCENT

OMB 2.3.90.10

129
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for loss of braking?

A

LOSS OF BRAKING

OMB 2.3.90.10

130
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for a stall recovery?

A

STALL I HAVE CONTROL

OMB 2.3.90.10

131
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for stall warning at lift off?

A

STALL TOGA 15

OMB 2.3.90.10

132
Q

What is the call out for the memory items for perceptible smoke or fumes in the FD?

A

SMOKE/ FUMES EMERGENCY PROCEDURE

OMB 2.3.90.10

133
Q

What angle of approaches are considered as steep approaches?

A

Between 3.5 and 4.5 degrees

OMB 2.4.26

134
Q

What is the highest angle when a decelerated approach may be executed?

A

3.5 degrees. Higher angles should be executed using a stabilized approach.

OMB 2.4.26

135
Q

When can an engine be considered ‘cold’?

A

When it’s been shut down for 6 hours or more.

OMB 2.4.90

136
Q

When is a OETD prohibited?

A
  1. The taxi surface is slippery
  2. LVO are in effect
  3. The engines are cold

OMB 2.4.90

137
Q

What is the requiered climb gradient in the second segment?

A

2.4% gross

OMB 4.4.2

138
Q

What is the required climb gradient in the final segment?

A

1.2% gross

OMB 4.4.2

139
Q

Where is the start of the net take off flight path?

A

35ft above the end of the take off distance.

OMB 4.4.3

140
Q

By what altitude must the net take off flight path clear all obstacles?

A

By at least 35ft

OMB 4.4.3

141
Q

What is the net take off flight path?

A

The actual (i.e gross) flight path reduced by a specific gradient decrement. For two engine a/p this is 0.8%.

OMB 4.4.3

142
Q

What is the definition of a damp runway?

A

A runway that’s not dry, but the moisture on it does not give it a shiny appearance.

OMB 4.5.1

143
Q

For take off performance, a damp runway shall be considered….?

A

Wet

OMB 4.5.1

144
Q

When is a runway considered wet for take off performance?

A
  • 3 mm or less of water, slush or loose snow
    Or
  • when there is sufficient moisture to cause it to appear reflective, but without significant areas of standing water.

OMB 4.5.1

145
Q

Is reverse thrust credited in the RTO case on a dry runway?

A

No

OMB 4.5.2

146
Q

Is the use of reverse thrust included in the RTO case on a wet runway?

A

Yes, the use of maximum reverse thrust on the operative engine.

OMB 4.5.2

147
Q

On what screen height is the engine failure take off performance for a wet runway based?

A

15ft above the end of the take off distance.

OMB 4.5.3

148
Q

What is the ‘dry check’ in performance calculations?

A

The take off weight on a wet runway must not exceed that permitted on a dry runway under the same conditions.

OMB 4.5.4

149
Q

When is reduced thrust take off prohibited?

A

Runway is contaminated
Dispatch with gear extended planned.

OMB 4.5.6

150
Q

What is the maximum crosswind on a runway notified as ‘may be slippery when wet’

A

25kts

OMB 4.5.7

151
Q

What is the minimum permissible runway width?

A

30m

OMB 4.8

152
Q

When is dispatch from/to narrow runways not allowed?

A
  • nosewheel steering inoperative
  • one brake or more inop.

OMB 4.8

153
Q

Is AUTOLAND permitted on narrow runways?

A

No

OMB 4.8

154
Q

An increase in which speed is required for the performance on narrow runways, and why?

A

Vmcg to improve controllability in the event of an engine failure.

OMB 4.8

155
Q

What is the actual landing distance? (ALD)

A

The horizontal distance necessary to land and come to a full stop from a point 50ft above the runway surface.

OMB 4.11.1

156
Q

By which factor is the ALD multiplied for a DRY runway?

A

1.67

OMB 4.11.1

157
Q

By which factor is the ALD multiplied for a WET runway?

A

1.92

OMB 4.11.1

158
Q

What is the required approach climb gradient and under which conditions?

A

2.1% in approach config and speed

One engine inop, other at TOGA and gear up.

OMB 4.11.2

159
Q

What is the required landing climb gradient and under which conditions?

A

3.2% in landing config, all engines operative, gear down.

OMB 4.11.2

160
Q

What is the required low visibility climb gradient and under which conditions?

A

2.5% or the published gradient.

Speed and config used for go around, one engine inop, with DH below 200ft

OMB 4.11.2

161
Q

What is the fuel burn per min for the APU?

A

2kg/min

OMB 5.1

162
Q

What is the fuel burn per minute, during 2 engine taxi?

A

10kg/min

OMB 5.1

163
Q

What is the fuel burn during single engine taxi?

A

7kg/min

OMB 5.1

164
Q

What is the fuel per min in the hold? (1500ft)

A

40kg/min

OMB 5.1

165
Q

What is the extra fuel burn per min in the climb for engine anti ice?

A

1.1 kg/min

OMB 5.1

166
Q

What is the extra fuel burn per min in the climb for engine and wing anti ice?

A

2.0 kg/ min

OMB 5.1

167
Q

What is the extra fuel burn per min in the cruise for engine anti ice?

A

1 kg/min

OMB 5.1

168
Q

What is the extra fuel burn per min in the cruise for engine and wing anti ice?

A

2 kg/ min

OMB 5.1

169
Q

What is the extra fuel burn per min in the hold for engine anti ice?

A

2.0 Kg/ min

OMB 5.1

170
Q

What is the extra fuel burn per min in the hold for engine and wing anti ice?

A

3 kg/ min

OMB 5.1

171
Q

What is the distance for an adequate aerodrome for the A319?

A

380NM

OMB 5.1

172
Q

What is the distance for an adequate aerodrome for the A320?

A

400NM

OMB 5.1

173
Q

If a take off alternate is required, within what distance must it be?

A

Within 320nm for A319 and A320.

OMB 5.1

174
Q

If a longer SID/STAR is expected, and fuel is adjusted, how much fuel per mm for and increase?

A

5kg/nm

OMB 5.4

175
Q

If a shorter SID/STAR is expected, and fuel is adjusted, how much fuel per mm for and decrease?

A

4kg/nm

OMB 5.4

176
Q

When is a new loading form required after receiving the LMC’s?

A

Plus 10/ minus 20 pax

OMB 7.4

177
Q

What are the minimum climb gradients?

A

Second segment 2.4% gross

Final segment 1.2% gross

OMB 4.4.2

178
Q

What are the landing and approach climb gradients?

A

Approach climb:
Cat 1: 2.1%
Cat 2 or 3: 2.5%

Landing:
3.2
(All engine operative spool up delay 8 secs. This is never limiting).

OMB 4.11.2

179
Q

What is the max allowable altimeter tolerance on the ground? And in flight?

A

PFD within 25’ of elevation. A further check may be done at runway threshold if necessary.

Between PFD’s max 20 feet and PFD and ISIS max 100’

OMB 2.3.6.9
FCOM 3.4.34

180
Q

What is the APU fuel burn?

A

2kg/min

OMB 5.1

181
Q

Within what distance must a take off alternate be?

A

320nm

OMB 5.2.2

182
Q

Within what distance must a adequate aerodrome be?

A

A319- 380nm
A320- 400nm

OMB 5.1

183
Q

What is an approach ban?

A

The final approach segment may not be continued if the reported RVR is below the published minimum. Below 1000’ the approach may be continued if the RVR drops below.

OMB 2.3.18.1

184
Q

What is the specific gravity of JETA-1

A

0,8kg/ litre

OMB 6.4

185
Q

When may we take off on a RUNWAY reported as may be slippery when wet?

A
  • when the distance available equals or exceeds that required for an icy runway
  • max xwind 25kts
  • if any section of runway is ba poor or unreported, max crosswind 15kts

OMB 4.12.4

186
Q

What are the calls for an emergency landing?

A

2000’:
Cabin crew take up landing positions

500’:
Brace, Brace

Unplanned emergency:
Attention crew brace brace

Omb 2.3.90.10

187
Q

What are the priorities of procedures/ publication?

A
  1. OFP COMPANY NOTAMS, crew Alerts, crew bulletins
  2. NTCs
  3. AIRBUS OEB’s
  4. COMPANY MANUALS
  5. Airbus FCOM
  6. Airbus FCTM

OMB 0.2

188
Q

The taxi fuel on the OFP, does it take OETD in account?

A

No, based on all engines taxi fuel flow.

OMB 5.2.4

189
Q

Is the taxi fuel on the OFP specific for the departure runway on the OFP?

A

No, it is a statistical value derived from all departure runway data.

OMB 5.2.4

190
Q

Which CI is used for the calculation of alternate fuel?

A

CI0

OMB 5.2.4

191
Q

Who will initiatie the decleration of an emergency?

A

The captain

Omb 3.1.3

192
Q

When would as a guide, the decleration of an mayday call be appropriate?

A

When a succesfull outcome is in jeopardy.

OMB 3.1.3

193
Q

What is the correct call for a state of urgency?

A

PAN PAN

OMB 3.1.3

194
Q

What is the correct call for a distress?

A

MAYDAY

OMB 3.1.3

195
Q

Which call should ensure priority over other traffic and the airport emergency services are on standby?

A

Pan pan call

OMB 3.1.3

196
Q

When are ECAM warnings inhibit during the takeoff roll?

A

From 80kts to 1500ft (or 2 minutes after lift off, whatever occurs first).

OMB 3.10

197
Q

What is the PA that should be made when initiating an evacuation?

A

EVACUATE, UNFASTEN YOUR SEATBELTS AND GET OUT.

OMB 3.80.2

198
Q

What items should be discussed between crews during a verbal handover?

A
    • any defects
    • any anomalies
    • relevant OEBs which may affect the subsequent operation.
199
Q

On arriving at the aircraft what items does OM-B state you should check?

What other items might you include with an eye to the operation?

A
  • Wheel Chocks - Check in Place
  • L/G Doors - Check Position
  • APU Area - Check Clear

Other items you may check;

  • GPU - Present?
  • Steps - Front & rear/ or airbridge?
  • Fueller - Present?
200
Q

What 2 main items are you looking for during the Exterior Inspection (Walk Around)?

A
    • Check structure for impact damage
    • Check that there is no evident fuel, oil or hydraulic leaks.
201
Q

What items must be on during the exterior inspection?

A
    • NAV lights
    • Parking Brake, to allow the brake wear indicators to be checked.
202
Q

ADIRS - When would you perform a ‘Complete Alignment’ & when would you perform a ‘fast alignment.’

A

Complete Alignment if;

    • First Flight of the day
    • GPS not available & long segments in poor navaid coverage.

Fast Alignment if;

    • Residual groundspeed is > 5 knots
203
Q

Pre-Selected Speeds.

What speed constraint should you use for a wraparound SID?

A

The greater of:

  • 220 knots, or
  • Green Dot + 5 knots.
204
Q

Altimeters Check (Initial RVSM check) What are the tolerances?

A
  • PFD Altitude - within 25 feet of elevation
  • Difference between PFDs - Maximum 20 feet
  • Difference between PFD & ISIS - Maximum 100 feet
205
Q

ALT Window - what do you set prior to departure (Cockpit Prep.)?

A

ALT Window

For ‘all’ SID types,

the FIRST stop ALT should be set.

i.e. Don’t use ALT CST to level off for you even if PRNAV Departure.

206
Q

Last Minute Changes: When would a new load sheet be required?

A

If the LMC exceeds the following values: +10/-20 Passengers

OMB 7.4

207
Q

Rules regarding LMCs & recalculating performance, what are they?

OMB 7.4

A
  • New Loading form if +10/-20 Pax

If new loading form not required, then following criteria apply:

  • If LMC is negative, no action to be taken as long as MACTOW is within 2% of the original value.
  • If LMC +ve but <250 kg & MACTOW within 2%, speeds OK, reduce flex by 1º
  • If LMC +ve, TOGA planned, or >250 kg, or MACTOW >2% of original, Takeoff Perf recalc using revised TOW.

Only revise ZFW/CG in FMGS if Takeoff perf is to be recalculated, otherwise revise in the cruise.

208
Q

Engine Start Sequence, what should you observe?

A
  • N2 increases
  • Start valve in-line
  • Bleed pressure GREEN
  • Oil Pressure Increases
  • 16% N2 - IGNITION
  • 22% N2 - FUEL FLOW
  • 15 SECS MAX after ENG Master ON - EGT Increases & N1 Increases
  • 50% N2 - Start Valve Cross-Line, Igniter OFF.
209
Q

After the Flight Control Check - how long does the F/CTL page remain displayed for?

A

20 seconds.

210
Q

What conditions must be met for the autobrakes to engage during an Aborted Take-Off?

DSC 27.10.20

A
    • Auto Brake p/b - MAX
    • Ground Speed >72 knots
    • Thrust Levers - Both IDLE or One Reverse
211
Q

Flex Temperature Corrections, what can be used?

A
  • Engine A/ICE ON - subtract 5 deg
  • QNH Reduction - subtract 1 deg / 2 hPa

The corrections can also be added.

e.g. If A/ICE req’d & the QNH reduces, the flex can be reduced by 6 degrees.

212
Q

Tailwind or Crosswind >20 knots Take-Off technique is…?

A
    • Full Forward Stick
    • 50% N1 set on both engines until stablised
    • Rapidly increase thrust to 70% N1
  • -Then progressively increase thrust to reach T/O thrust at 40 knot ground speed
    • maintain full forward stick to 80 knots,
    • then release gradually to be neutral by 100 knots
213
Q

At what speed during the take-off roll is connection between NWS & rudder pedals removed?

A
  • 130 knots (wheel speed)
  • In strong cross winds, more rudder input required at this point to prevent a/c turning into wind.
214
Q

What is OPT FL a function of?

A

Cost Index

215
Q

Can you enter a cruise flight level above MAX REC FL?

A
  • Yes.
  • MAX REC FL gives the a/c at least a 0.3g buffet margin.
  • You may enter a higher flight level & FMGC will accept it,
  • provided it does not exceed a level at which the buffet margin is reduced to 0.2g.
216
Q

How often do we need to perform a fuel check?

A
    • as soon as practical after TOC
    • thereafter a written check made at intervals not exceeding 1 hour
    • verbal check made at 30 minute intervals
    • Shorter flights one fuel check should be recorded unless flight time <20 minutes.
217
Q

Where will you find the instrument tolerances for the hourly RVSM check in the cruise?

A

FCOM PRO-SUP-34

218
Q

When must a navigation accuracy check be performed?

A
  • if GPS PRIMARY is lost (as displayed on the PROG Page)

and especially if any of the following occur:

  • IRS only naviagtion
  • The PROG page displays LOW accuracy
  • “NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD” appears on the MCDU
219
Q

Descent Gates:

A
  • 20,000 feet - 70 nm adjusted for wind
  • 10,000 feet - 35 nm adjusted for wind
  • 20 nm - Reduce from 250 knots (if maintained high speed.)
  • 10 nm long final or on intercept to LOC - Flap 1, 180 Knots
  • > 2000 feet above TDZE - Flap 2
  • Maximum; 180 knots to 6nm, 170 knots to 5nm, or 160 knots to 4nm (wind permitting)
  • ~ 5nm - Managed Speed / Gear Down
220
Q

Stable Approach Criteria?

OMB 2.3.16.2

A
  • Aircraft in Landing Config.
  • Target final approach speed +10 / -5 knots
  • ROD < 1000 fpm (may be increased by 150 fpm per 0.5 deg that published g/s exceeds 3 deg.)
  • Aircraft within +/- 1 dot of Glideslope / LOC
  • Bank angle <15 deg

Transient deviations due to atmospheric conditions are acceptable

if corrected in a timely manner.

221
Q

What are the maximum final approach speeds that we can accept from ATC?

A
  • 160 knots to 4 dme
  • 170 knots to 5 dme
  • 180 knots to 6 dme
222
Q

Flight Parameters, when should PNF call out… ?

A
  • V/S > 1,000 fpm
  • SPEED +10 or -5 knots from target speed
  • LOC exceeds 1/4 dot
  • GS exceeds 1 dot
  • Bank Angle exceeds 7 deg
  • Pitch < 2.5 degrees Nose Down
  • Pitch > 10 degrees Nose UP
223
Q

During Cockpit prep, how do you check that you have a sufficient amount of Flight deck oxygen?

A
  • *DOOR key……………………..PRESS
  • If the oxygen pressure is half boxed in amber;
  • check the “MIN FLT CREW OXY CHART”
  • FCOM LIM-35
224
Q

During cockpit prep. How do you check the Engine Oil quantity & how do you know it is sufficient?

A
  • *ENG key…………………..PRESS
  • Check that the oil quantity is at, or above:
  • 9.5 qts + 0.5 qts/per hour
225
Q

During aircraft power up, if the aircraft has not been electrically supplied for 6 hours or more, what check should be performed?

A
  • BAT 1 and 2 CHECK OFF
  • BAT 1 and 2 VOLTAGE CHECK ABOVE 25.5 V
  • (Battery voltage above 25.5 V ensures a charge above 50%.)
  • If battery voltage is below 25.5 V a charging cycle of about 20 minutes is required.
226
Q

Whilst inspecting the tech log during pre-flight you notice a deferred defect.

What are the rectification intervals & how are they displayed in the tech log?

A
  • A - No standard interval specified
  • B - 3 days
  • C - 10 days
  • D - 120 days.

Located in the MEL preamble.

227
Q

How long is a daily inspection valid for?

A
  • The daily inspection is valid for one calendar day.

For example;

If the daily check had been carried out at 09.00 on Tuesday 24th then it would be valid until 23.59 on Wednesday the 25th.

You could dispatch any time before 23.59 on Wednesday the 25th even if you land after midnight.

228
Q

Brake Fans. Describe the SOP & the limitations.

A

During taxi out,

  • ECAM WHEEL page : ARC Indication - set the brake fans ON. (OM-B 2.3.10)

Before RWY line up. If BRAKE FANS RUNNING:

  • BRAKE TEMP CHECK
  • If > 150°C, delay take-off.
  • If < 150°C, select brake fans off.

If BRAKE FANS OFF:

  • The maximum temp. 300°C.
  • In circumstances when brake temperatures approach this limitation, the recommended procedure is to use brake fans to reduce the temperature to 150°C. (OM-B 2.3.11.1)
229
Q

Final Approach. At 1000’ above TDZE What does PNF check & Announce?

A

At 1,000 ft above TDZE;

  • PNF checks;
  1. Aircraft in Landing Config?
  2. Speed < Vapp+30?
  3. Aircraft Stable?
  • Calls if Stable: PNF: “1,000 feet” PF: “Checked.”
  • If not configured or speed > Vapp+30: PNF: “NOT STABLE GO-AROUND.” PF: “GO-AROUND FLAPS.”
  • If unstable due to other parameters: PNF:”1,000 feet - UNSTABLE -(parameter)”
  • e.g. PNF: “1,000 ft - Unstable - Speed” PF: “CONTINUE” or “GO-AROUND FLAP”
230
Q

AFTER LANDING SCAN

Do you have to wait for the GRND SPOILER to be DISARMED before completing all items of the after landing scan?

OMB 2.3.24.

A

NO.

  • LAND LIGHTS
  • STROBE LIGHTS &
  • OTHER EXTERIOR LIGHTS

May be switched off as required prior to the GND SPOILERS being DISARMED.

231
Q

Where do you refer to in order to find BRAKE TEMP. LIMITATIONS requiring maintenance action?

A

FCOM PRO-SUP-32

2. OM-B (13 decks)

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