Opera

Question 1

You are practicing pipetting in lab and one of the pipettes has a volume reading of 033 from top to bottom. Which of the following can be true?

I. the pipet you are looking at is the p1000 and it reads 330 milliliters
II. the pipet you are looking at is the p1000 and it reads 33 milliliters
III. the pipet you are looking at is the
p1000 and it reads 330
microliters
IV. the pipet you are looking at is the p1000 and it reads 0.33 milliliters
Select one:
a. I and II
b. II, III, and IV
c. IV only
d. III and IV
e. III only

Answer 1

d. III and IV

Question 2

A volume of liquid measuring \_\_\_\_ is most accurately measured and dispensed using a \_\_\_\_ pipetter.
Select one:
a. 0.12 ml, p2000
b. 1.2ml, p200
c. 0.12ml, p200
d. 0.012ml, p2000
e. 0.012ml, p200

Answer 2

c. 0.12ml, p200

Question 3

SDS, which stands for sodium dodecyl sulfate, is an anionic \_\_\_\_\_\_\_; itmay break down \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bonds.
Select one:
a. gel matrix; covalent
b. gel matrix; ionic
c. detergent; disulfide
d. detergent; dipole-dipole
e. reducing agent; hydr

Answer 3

d. detergent; dipole-dipole

Question 4

You are conducting a gel electrophoresis to determine small differences in protein subunit molecular weights. Which of the following is a valid reason to choose a polyacrylamide gel over an agarose gel for your purposes?
Select one:
a. Due to their unique chemical properties, proteins can only be examined using polyacrylamide and DNA can only be examined using agarose.
b. Running proteins through the gel vertically yields the best results and agarose gels cannot be cast vertically.
c. There is no reason to choose the polyacrylamide gel in this instance.
d. Polyacrylamide has a lower resolution than agarose and the resultant image will be less convoluted.
e. Polyacrylamide has a higher resolution than agarose and will be able to distinguish smaller differences in sizes.

Answer 4

e. Polyacrylamide has a higher resolution than agarose and will be able to distinguish smaller differences in sizes.

Question 5

What is the normal function of the protein product encoded by the I gene?
Select one:
a. Binds to the promoter of the lac operon
b. Imports of lactose into the cell
c. Binds to RNA polymerase
d. Binds to the operator of the lac operon
e. Cleaves lactose into glucose and gala

Answer 5

d. Binds to the operator of the lac operon

Question 6

The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ will bind to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (presence/absence) of lactose
Select one:
a. repressor, operator, absence
b. operator, repressor, presence
c. operator, promoter, absence
d. repressor, operator, presence
e. operator, repressor, absence

Answer 6

a. repressor, operator, absence

Question 7

B-galactosidase activity, as seen by the cleavage of ONPG to o-nitrophenol, is clearly visible at the 70 minute mark, but not the 20 minute mark because:
Select one:
a. some chloroform remains in the supernatant after centrifugation, and delays the effects of b-galactosidase.
b. transcription and translation of b-galactosidase is time dependent, and enough of it needs to build up before it can cleave enough ONPG to produce visible amounts of o-nitrophenol (yellow).
c. activity actually does occur at the 20 minute mark, but our constant transferring of liquid dilutes
the
o-nitrophenol.
d. it takes about 70 minutes for enough lactose to be cleaved.
e. only after 70 minutes is all of the broth consumed.

Answer 7

b. transcription and translation of b-galactosidase is time dependent, and enough of it needs to build up before it can cleave enough ONPG to produce visible amounts of o-nitrophenol (yellow).

Question 8

To measure the amount of enzyme activity in a cell, we use a procedurecalled a biochemical assay. To test the activity of b-galactosidase in E. coli cells, why did we need to add ONPG to the three sample tubes?
Select one:
a. ONPG is a yellow compound, and when cleaved with b-galactosidase it becomes colorless; as more ONPG iscleaved by b-galactosidase the color of the sample diminishes so we can see the amount of enzyme activity by taking the OD420
b. ONPG, a derivative of lactose, can be cleaved by b-galactosidase producing a yellow compound making it possible to assay enzyme activity
c. ONPG is a
derivative of lactose that can induce
the repressor, letting b-galactosidase be made so we can test for enzyme activity
d. we have to have a colored sample for thespectrophotometer to detect OD420 readings; ONPG is a yellow compound so we can use this compound to assay b-galactosidase activity
e. ONPG is the chemical that stops the reaction of b-galactosidase so we can see how much lactose b-galactosidase has cleaved within the 20 and 70 minute time stops

Answer 8

b. ONPG, a derivative of lactose, can be cleaved by b-galactosidase producing a yellow compound making it possible to assay enzyme activity

Question 9

PCR is simply an in vitro DNA synthesis reaction repeated many times. If our lab was looking to amplify a specific region (we have already provided them with primers, DNA polymerase, and Taq polymerase) to about 1 billion copies, how many cycles would you allow PCR to run?
Select one:
a. 25 cycles.
b. 35 cycles.
c. 64 cycles.
d. 45 cycles.
e. 55 cycles.

Answer 9

b. 35 cycles

Question 10

Forensic laboratories occasionally use mitochondrial DNA comparison in order to establish identification of individuals, human remains, and more notably, older unidentified skeletal remains. Which of the following reasons best serves as an advantage when using mtDNA as opposed to nuclear DNA during such analyses?
Select one:
a. none of these
b. Mitochondrial DNA is very stable since it is both linear and double-stranded.
c. all of these
d. A greater number of copies of mtDNA per cell increase the chance of obtaining a useful sample.
e. Mitochondrial DNA is heat resistant and is rarely susceptible t

Answer 10

d. A greater number of copies of mtDNA per cell increase the chance of obtaining a useful sample.

Question 11

Which one of the following is a requirement for a good primer?
Select one:
a. Primers should end in the 5’ end
b. Primers should be short (under 15 base pairs)
c. Melting temperatures of primer should be between 55-80 degree
Celsius
d. Contains many long runs with four or more of the same base in a row
e. Guanine and Cytosine should make up less than half of the total base

Answer 11

c. Melting temperatures of primer should be between 55-80 degree
Celsius

Question 12

Which of the following is NOT an important guideline to consider when designing primers?
Select one:
a. Length.
b. Presence of G or C at the 5' end.
c. Melting temperature.
d. G-C content.
e. Repeating bases in a ro

Answer 12

b. Presence of G or C at the 5’ end.

Question 13

All of the following are true descriptions of agents involved in gel electrophoresis except:
Select one:
a. grey is a fluorescent tag that can be attached by its isothiocyanate group to the amino terminal and primary amines in proteins so that protein bands become visible under a UV light.
b. B-mercaptoethanol is a reducing agent that breaks disulfide linkages between and within polypeptide chains
c. Polyacrylamide is the gel matrix in which the denatured proteins migrate that is mounted between two
buffer chambers containing separate
electrodes creating an electrical connection through the gel.
d. Agar is a stain which binds to proteins so that they may be visualized.
e. SDS is an anionic detergent that disrupts non-covalent interactions and confers an overall negative charge to the protein in proportion to its length.

Answer 13

d. Agar is a stain which binds to proteins so that they may be visualized.

Question 14

Is creating a phylogenetic tree from the DNA sequences that encode for RNA Polymerase II Beta subunit 1 (RPB 1) in a variety of species a completely accurate representation of the evolutionary relatedness of the species? Why or why not?
Select one:
a. No. The phylogenetic tree could reveal different evolutionary distances if a different DNA sequence is used to create the tree.
b. None of these.
c. No. The DNA sequences encoding RPB 1 have higher substitution rates than nucleotide sequences encoding other subunits of RNA polymerase II.
d. Yes. The DNA sequences encoding RPB 1 have the same substitution rates as other nucleotide sequences in the genomes of the species examined.
e. Yes. Any corresponding DNA sequence in the species examined will have the same substitution rate

Answer 14

a. No. The phylogenetic tree could reveal different evolutionary distances if a different DNA sequence is used to create the tree.

Question 15

___________ is made of ___________, which is a neuron toxin and is safe only after polymerization. In contrast, the _________ in __________ is safe to use and extracted from seaweed.
Select one:
a. Agarose gel, agarose, acrylamide, polyacrylamide gel.
b. Polyacrylamide gel, acrylamide, agarose, agarose gel.
c. Gel filtration column, acrylamide, polymer network, agarose gel.
d. polyacrylamide gel, PAGE, agar, agarose.
e. Native-PAGE gel, gel monomers, polyacrylamide, acrylamide gel.

Answer 15

b. Polyacrylamide gel, acrylamide, agarose, agarose gel.

Question 16

What kind of gel medium is used in SDS-PAGE?
Select one:
a. FITC
b. Agarose
c. Ethidium Bromide
d. Polyacrylamide
e. TBE

Answer 16

d. Polyacrylamide

Question 17

To determine Most Recent Common Ancestor, what is not compared?
Select one:
a. number of lysosomes
b. none of these
c. genetic sequence
d. mutation rate
e. mitochondrial DNA

Answer 17

a. number of lysosomes

Question 18

What should the best hit on BLAST have?
Select one:
a. a high score
b. a high score and a high E value
c. a high score and a low E value
d. a low score and a high E value
e. a low score and a low E value

Answer 18

c. high score and low E value

Question 19

Which of the following is true about the Sanger method?
Select one:
a. The dideoxynucleotides used in the reaction have a hydroxyl group at the 3’ position.
b. The fragments in the four reaction tubes are separated on agarose gel.
c. DNA
sequencing is rarely done using automated
systems.
d. The primer used in the reaction has a radioactive or fluorescent label on its 3’ end for visualization.
e. Each of the four reaction tubes contain only one of the four ddNTPs at a ratio of about 1 ddNTP/50 dNTP.

Answer 19

e. Each of the four reaction tubes contain only one of the four ddNTPs at a ratio of about 1 ddNTP/50 dNTP.

Question 20

How are dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) different from DNA nucleotides and why are ddNTPs needed in DNA sequencing?
Select one:
a. There is no difference between the two nucleotides and ddNTPs can be used instead of DNA nucleotides during DNA sequencing.
b. ddNTPs have a hydrogen at the 3’ position instead of an OH group and are used to terminate DNA synthesis.
c. There is only one ddNTP instead of 4 different ones and are used in terminating DNA synthesis.
d. ddNTPs are the same as DNA nucleotides but have a radioactively labelled nucleotide and are used interchangeably with regular nucleotides.
e. ddNTPs have an extra OH group at the 2’ position and are used to terminate DNA synthesis.

Answer 20

b. ddNTPs have a hydrogen at the 3’ position instead of an OH group and are used to terminate DNA synthesis.

Question 21

The following variables are good to experiment with goldfish except:
Select one:
a. Sugar effect
b. Light intensity
c. Salinity
d. Caffeine effect
e. Aspirin effect

Answer 21

e. aspirin effect

Question 22

In the fish metabolism lab, which of the following variables was NOT suggested in the manual for manipulation?
Select one:
a. Lighting.
b. pH.
c. Salinity.
d. Caffeine.
e. Temperature.

Answer 22

b. pH

Question 23

In the metabolism experiment, which of the following is not a reason(s) that we used goldfish?
Select one:
a. They are small and relatively easy to handle
b. They are poikilotherms
c. They have a three-chambered heart
d. It is easier to measure a change in the oxygen content of water than of air.

Answer 23

c. They have a three-chambered heart

Question 24

Which of the following least affects metabolic activity with respect to the production carbon dioxide and the consumption of oxygen?
Select one:
a. Body size
b. Body mass
c. Temperature
d. Diet
e. Activity

Answer 24

d. Diet

Question 25

Assuming that you are dissecting a normal FEMALE rat, which of the following should you NOT find:
Select one:
a. Epididymus
b. Uterine Horns
c. Pylorus
d. Pineal Gland
e. Fallopian Tubes

Answer 25

a. epididymus

Question 26

While performing a rat dissection, you accidentally puncture an organ, which begins to bleed profusely. The organ is located in the anterior portion of the abdominal cavity and is multi-lobed. What organ did you puncture?
Select one:
a. Spleen
b. Kidney
c. Pancreas
d. Liver
e. Ovaries

Answer 26

d. Liver

Question 27

In a male rat, the heart is not:
Select one:
a. anterior to the seminal vesicles.
b. anterior to the tail.
c. posterior to the vas deferens.
d. posterior to the brain.
e. anterior to the stomach.

Answer 27

c. posterior to the vas deferens.

Question 28

Which organ is the most dorsal in a rat?
Select one:
a. esophagus
b. caecum
c. kidney
d. pancreas
e. liver

Answer 28

c. kidney

Question 29

When selecting the proper microscope to view a sample, you should choose a/an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ microscope to look at a fresh lung tissue (whole organ) a/an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ microscope to observe the patterns of cells on a slide, and a/an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ microscope to study individual organelles within cells in great detail.
Select one:
a. compound, electron, dissecting
b. dissecting, compound, electron
c. electron, dissecting, compound
d. dissecting, electron, compound
e. electron, compound, dissecting

Answer 29

b. dissecting, compound, electron

Question 30

Which of the following is a major difference between a dissecting microscope and a compound microscope?
Select one:
a. The compound microscope uses a beam of electrons to obtain an image
b. They differ in the type of samples used
c. The dissecting microscope has 3 lenses
d. Only one is a light microscop

Answer 30

b. They differ in the type of samples used

Question 31

What is a major difference between a slide containing muscle and a slide containing fat?
Select one:
a. In Fat tissue, we see mostly red blood cells, and in the Muscle tissue, we see mostly cytoplasmic material.
b. Muscle tissue contains large bundles of fibers for movement whereas Fat tissues are densely packed cells to provide insulation.
c. Muscle tissue contains loosely packed circular cells whereas fat tissues contain longitudinal striations.
d. Muscle tissue is multi-nucleated and fat tissue has its nucleus and cytoplasm toward the outside of the cell.
e. Fat cells will be purple in color because of the lipids in the cell, and Muscle tissue will be white because of the numerous nuclei in the cell.

Answer 31

d. Muscle tissue is multi-nucleated and fat tissue has its nucleus and cytoplasm toward the outside of the cell.

Question 32

How can a thymus tissue be effectively identified under a microscope?
Select one:
a. The slide will show a densely-packed collection of cells with occasional holes to allow blood vessels to pass through.
b. The slide will show a collection of cells that show rigid structure, accompanied by cilia in certain part of the sample.
c. The
slide will show striated, long, and fibrous collections of cells.
d. The slide will show lobes of tightly-packed white blood cells surrounded by connective tissue.
e. The slide will show lobes of loosely-packed white blood cells surrounded by connective tis

Answer 32

d. The slide will show lobes of tightly-packed white blood cells surrounded by connective tissue.

Question 33

Marky the wolf is hungry. He stumbles upon Little Bo Peep’s meadow that is filled with her plump, delicious sheep. Marky notices that there are two types of sheep: black and white. Before pouncing on his tasty meal, he notices that the sheeps run at different speeds. To make this meal worth his time, Marky wants to use the scientific method to determine which color of sheep to eat. Assuming wolves can do math, which of the following should Marky perform?
Select one:
a. Perform a t-test comparing the location of the black sheep and white sheep.
b. Calculate the mode and chase after a sheep with the most common color.
c. Calculate the mean and standard deviation of the speeds.
d. Calculate the average speed of black vs. white sheep.
e. Perform a t-test comparing the speed of the black sheep and white sheep.

Answer 33

e. Perform a t-test comparing the speed of the black sheep and white sheep.

Question 34

You are designing an experiment to compare the average metabolic rate of right-handed people to the average metabolic rate of left-handed people. Which of the following would be an appropriate null hypothesis for your experiment?
Select one:
a. There is no difference between the average metabolic rate of left-handed people and the average metabolic rate of right-handed people.
b. Average metabolic rate depends on whether an individual is right-handed or left-handed.
c. A comparison of the average metabolic rate of left-handed people to the average metabolic rate of right-handed people shows a significant
difference.
d. On average, left-handed people have a comparably lower average metabolic rate than right-handed people.
e. Left-handed people have a higher average metabolic rate than right-ha

Answer 34

a. There is no difference between the average metabolic rate of left-handed people and the average metabolic rate of right-handed people.

Question 35

Which of the following can NEVER be a measure of central tendency?
Select one:
a. Median.
b. Standard deviation.
c. Both mode AND standard deviation.
d. Mode.
e. Mean.

Answer 35

b. Standard deviation.

Question 36

Suppose in the Statistics lab, a p-value of 0.01 was obtained after tallying the weights of babies in the experimental and control group, what can we conclude?
Select one:
a. The p value of 0.01 indicates that one percent of the time, our mean in the experimental group will differ from our mean in the control group.
b. The p value of 0.01 tells us that we fail to reject the null hypothesis and conclude that the two groups are not significantly different.
c. The p value of 0.01 leads us to conlude that the two samples (experimental and control) are not from the same population.
d. The p value of 0.01 is the value of our error. This small value means that we conducted the experiment correctly.

Answer 36

c. The p value of 0.01 leads us to conlude that the two samples (experimental and control) are not from the same population.

Question 37

When ejecting a protein sample into a well of the SDS-PAGE gel with a pipetter, why should you only push down on the pushbutton to the first stop and not the second stop?
Select one:
a. Pushing down to the second stop will eject more sample than required.
b. The pushbutton should only be pushed down to the second stop when loading the sample into the pipetter.
c. Pushing down to the second stop when loading the samples will not affect the SDS-PAGE results.
d. Pushing down to the second stop could denature the protein sample.
e. Pushing down to the second stop will result in ejection of air from the pipet tip, which could blow the content intended for that particular well to the surrounding wells.

Answer 37

e. Pushing down to the second stop will result in ejection of air from the pipet tip, which could blow the content intended for that particular well to the surrounding wells.

Question 38

How do you release the excess solution that remains at the pipette tip after expelling?
Select one:
a. Adjust the volume adjustment ring to a volume more than currently displayed
b. Adjust the volume adjustment ring to a volume less than currently displayed
c. Tap the tip to the wall of the container
d. Press the push button down to the second stop to complete expulsion
e. Release the push button from the 1st stop and press it down to the 1st stop once more

Answer 38

d. Press the push button down to the second stop to complete expulsion

Question 39

On an SDS polyacrylamide gel, a protein band show 4 bands, this means:
Select one:
a. there are only 4 subunits in this protein
b. there are 4 different types subunits in this protein
c. there are 2 different subunits but in two copies
d. there are only 2 different subunits in this protein that got separated by the SDS detergent
e. there is only 1 subunit in this protein that got separated by the SDS detergent

Answer 39

b. there are 4 different types subunits in this protein

Question 40

Why are having marker proteins of a known weight important in running an SDS-Page Gel along other proteins that have ambiguous weights?
Select one:
a. They are not influenced by a reducing agent so the protein remains intact.
b. Those subunits are composed of DNA, and show how much DNA makes up a certain protein.
c. They provide a comparison for the subunits whose weights are not known.
d. They are not important; you can find the weights of the protein in an SDS-Page Gel without having markers.
e. They fluoresce brighter than other proteins when put under a UV-light.

Answer 40

c. They provide a comparison for the subunits whose weights are not known.

Question 41

What event is MOST responsible for causing the conformational change in the lac repressor of E. Coli?
Select one:
a. enough time has passed since the end of mitosis and the cell is ready to begin transcription
b. the presence of glucose causes a conformational change in RNA polymerase which allows it to carry out transcription
c. The increase in cell density over time causes their to be more lac operons than there are repressors
d. ONPG interferes with the lac repressor?s ability to bind the operator
e. lactose allosterically binds to the lac repressor, causing a conformational change

Answer 41

e. lactose allosterically binds to the lac repressor, causing a conformational change

Question 42

In a biochemical assay, the transcription of b-galactosidase is monitored in bacterial cells. A substrate that functions like ONPG, however produces a purple color when cleaved, is added to the reaction mixture. Under a constant pH of 7, if b-galactosidase is transcribed in these cells,
Select one:
a. the reaction mixture will turn orange since the bacteria is constantly dividing.
b. the substrate will be cleaved, but the reaction mixture will remain the same color as it was before the addition of the substrate.
c. it will stimulate transcription of the genes downstream of it in the operon.
d. no color change will be observed since b-galactosidase is pH sensitive and cannot function at pH 7.
e. the substrate will be cleaved as the mixture produces a purple color.

Answer 42

e. the substrate will be cleaved as the mixture produces a purple color.

Question 43

The function of the Chelex beads in PCR is to
Select one:
a. prevent DNA degradation by binding to Mg2+
b. allow the DNA to form a pellet
c. prevent DNA degradation by binding to DNases
d. prevent DNA degradation by releasing Mg2+
e. prevent DNA degradation by releasing DNases

Answer 43

a. prevent DNA degradation by binding to Mg2+

Question 44

PCR is:
Select one:
a. an in vitro DNA extraction reaction
b. an in vivo protein synthesis reaction
c. an in vivo DNA synthesis reaction
d. an in vitro DNA synthesis reaction
e. an in vitro protein synthesis reaction

Answer 44

d. an in vitro DNA synthesis reaction

Question 45

In PCR, a _____ binds to the _____ at the complementary sequence, while the _____ Polymerase catalyzes the synthesis of the new complementary strand.
Select one:
a. primer, denatured DNA, RNA
b. primer, denatured DNA, Taq
c. double-stranded DNA, denatured DNA, RNA
d. primer, double-stranded DNA, Taq
e. double-stranded DNA, double-stranded RNA, Taq

Answer 45

b. primer, denatured DNA, Taq

Question 46

In the DNA Isolation and Amplification lab, we must amplify a region of mitochondrial DNA by using a technique called Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) ________.
Select one:
a. to increase the efficiency of Taq polymerase
b. to increase the frequency of Mg2+ binding
c. because we need many copies to sequence the DNA
d. because this makes it is easier for primers to bind
e. for DNA reproduction

Answer 46

c. because we need many copies to sequence the DNA

Question 47

When the nucleic acid absorption ratio of 260nm/280nm is less than \_\_\_\_\_ than it indicates that your nucleic acid is \_\_\_\_\_\_?
Select one:
a. 1.8 and impure
b. 2.8 and stable
c. 2.8 and unstable
d. 1.8 and stable
e. 1.8 and pure

Answer 47

1.8 and impure

Question 48

The farther a DNA molecule migrates during electrophoresis
Select one:
a. the greater its positive charge.
b. the bulkier the shape of the DNA is.
c. the larger the molecule.
d. the smaller the molecule.
e. the smaller its charge:mass ratio.

Answer 48

d. the smaller the molecule

Question 49

Which of the following is true about agarose gel electrophoresis?
Select one:
a. Both DNA and proteins can be run on agarose gel.
b. It can be run only vertically.
c. It is less safe to handle than the acrylamide used in SDS-PAGE.
d. Agarose gel has higher resolution than SDS-PAGE due to smaller pores.
e. Before running DNA on agarose gel, it is denatured and coated with a negative charge.

Answer 49

a. Both DNA and proteins can be run on agarose gel.

Question 50

In the “Agarose Gel Electrophoresis and Molecular Clocks” lab we use both electrophoresis and spectrophotometry. The spectrophotometry was performed to ___________________ and the electrophoresis was used to ________________________.
Select one:
a. estimate the concentration of DNA ; confirm both the presence of DNA and determine the size our PCR product
b. determine the sequence of the DNA; estimate the concentration of DNA in our PCR sample.
c. estimate the concentration of DNA; determine the sequence of the DNA in our PCR sample.
d. determine the size of purified DNA; estimate the concentration of DNA in our PCR sample.
e. determine our most recent common ancestor (MRCA) within the class; confirm the presence of DNA and determine the size of PCR product.

Answer 50

a. estimate the concentration of DNA ; confirm both the presence of DNA and determine the size our PCR product

Question 51

Which of the following statements is NOT true about PCR & DNA sequencing?
Select one:
a. Both are based on in vitro DNA synthesis
b. Both use radioactive primer or fluorescent label on its 5’ end for visualization.
c. Both use DNA polymerase to catalyze the
reaction
d. Only DNA sequencing uses ddNTPs to prematurely terminate DNA synthesis
e. Both require a primer for initiation

Answer 51

b. Both use radioactive primer or fluorescent label on its 5’ end for visualization.

Question 52

Which of the following statements is NOT true about PCR & DNA sequencing?
Select one:
a. Both are based on in vitro DNA synthesis
b. Both use radioactive primer or fluorescent label on its 5’ end for visualization.
c. Both use DNA polymerase to catalyze the
reaction
d. Only DNA sequencing uses ddNTPs to prematurely terminate DNA synthesis
e. Both require a primer for initiation

Answer 52

b. Both use radioactive primer or fluorescent label on its 5’ end for visualization.

Question 53

Mitochondrial DNA_______:
Select one:
a. cannot be traced back to one common ancestor
b. is passed down from the father and mother
c. gains variation through recombination
d. gains variation through mutations
e. is linear in structure

Answer 53

d. gains variation through mutations

Question 54

In Sanger’s method, dNTPs are used. Which of the following statements are true of dNTPs:
Select one:
a. They are radioactively or fluorescently labeled.
b. all of these
c. They lack a 3’OH group.
d. They do not terminate DNA strand extension.
e. none of these

Answer 54

d. They do not terminate DNA strand extension

Question 55

How are dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) different from DNA nucleotides and why are ddNTPs needed in DNA sequencing?
Select one:
a. ddNTPs have a hydrogen at the 3’ position instead of an OH group and are used to terminate DNA synthesis.
b. There is no difference between the two nucleotides and ddNTPs can be used instead of DNA nucleotides during DNA sequencing.
c. ddNTPs are the same as DNA nucleotides but have a radioactively labelled nucleotide and are used interchangeably with regular nucleotides.
d. ddNTPs have an extra OH group at the 2’ position and are used to terminate DNA synthesis.
e. There is only one ddNTP instead of 4 different ones and are used in terminating DNA synthesis.

Answer 55

a. ddNTPs have a hydrogen at the 3’ position instead of an OH group and are used to terminate DNA synthesis.

Question 56

In the Goldfish Metabolism lab, the slope of the line for the graphs for dissolved oxygen should \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ because the goldfish are in a/an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ chamber \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ oxygen.
Select one:
a. decrease, open, not consuming
b. increase, open, not consuming
c. decease, closed, consuming
d. increase, closed, consuming
e. decrease, open, consuming

Answer 56

c. decease, closed, consuming

Question 57

Why is it easier to use poikilothermic goldfish in the “Metabolism in Goldfish” lab, instead of homeothermic humans?
Select one:
a. It is too expensive to test the metabolic rates of homeothermic organisms
b. The metabolic rate of a human is much faster, making it difficult to determine
c. Goldfish tend to be smaller than humans, thus it is easier to manipulate their metabolic rates
d. It is easier to detect dissolved oxygen than atmospheric oxygen
e. Goldfish’s metabolic rates have a direct relationship with environmental temperature making their metabolic rates easier to manipulate

Answer 57

e. Goldfish’s metabolic rates have a direct relationship with environmental temperature making their metabolic rates easier to manipulate

Question 58

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is how energy is stored and released; \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the storage of energy, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_is the release of energy.
Select one:
a. Metabolism, catabolism, anabolism.
b. Metabolism, anabolism, catabolism.
c. Metabolism, catabolism, anabolism.
d. Catabolism, metabolism, metabolism.
e. Anabolism, catabolism, metabolism.

Answer 58

b. Metabolism, anabolism, catabolism.

Question 59

The pancreas is physically connected to the
Select one:
a. fundus
b. philtrum
c. jejunum
d. ileum
e. duodenum

Answer 59

e. duodenum

Question 60

The small intestine of a rat:
Select one:
a. Is shorter than the large intestine
b. Is smoother than the large intestine
c. There is no small intestine in a rat
d. Is rougher than the large intestine
e. Is longer than the large intestine

Answer 60

e. Is longer than the large intestine

Question 61

What is one of the functions of the kidneys and are they dorsal or ventral to the liver?
Select one:
a. produce hormones that aid in the uptake of glucose; ventral
b. remove nitrogenous wastes from blood; ventral
c. produce bile that aid in digestion; dorsal
d. remove nitrogenous wastes from blood; dorsal
e. remove lactic acid in the blood; dorsal

Answer 61

d. remove nitrogenous wastes from blood; dorsal

Question 62

The pyloric valve in a rat:
Select one:
a. is located in the thoracic cavity and is responsible for the continuous flow of blood to the brain
b. Rats do not have pyloric valves
c. is part of the reproductive system
of the male, which connects the prostate
gland to the seminal vesicles
d. is located beneath the olfactory lobe and is responsible for enhancing neuron communication between the brain and the olfactory lobe
e. is located in the abdominal cavity and it opens into the small intestine thereby regulating the flow of material from the stomach to the small intestine

Answer 62

e. is located in the abdominal cavity and it opens into the small intestine thereby regulating the flow of material from the stomach to the small intestine

Question 63

All are true of a compound light microscope except which of the following:
Select one:
a. It contains two lenses.
b. It produces a mirror image.
c. It requires a thin specimen.
d. It has discrete increments of magnification.
e. It focuses on light that reflects off the surface of the specimen.

Answer 63

e. It focuses on light that reflects off the surface of the specimen.

Question 64

The cells that tear down and remodel bone are the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Select one:
a. macrophages
b. Bone Marrow cells
c. osteoblasts
d. osteoclasts
e. osteocytes

Answer 64

d. osteoclasts

Question 65

Which of the following tissue samples has the most differential layering (different layers) in its composition?
Select one:
a. adipose tissue
b. skeletal muscle
c. lung tissue
d. tracheal epithelium
e. neurons

Answer 65

d. tracheal epithelium

Question 66

Skeletal muscle can be easily identified based on the fact that it:
Select one:
a. is multinucleated
b. has highly differentiated cells
c. has no nuclei
d. contains vascular tissue
e. contains epithelial tissue

Answer 66

a. is multinucleated

Question 67

In a particular experiment to see if caffeine consumption has a statistically significant effect upon memory, a student found that the caffeine consumers scored a 97 while those who didn’t consume caffeine scored an 89. The student also determined that t=2.39 and p=0.03. What can the student conclude?
Select one:
a. There is a statistically significant difference in scores between these two groups based solely on the high p-value
b. There is a statistically significant difference in scores between these two groups based solely on the large difference in means
c. Not enough information is given
d. There is not a statistically significant difference in scores between these two groups based solely on the high t-value
e. There is a statistically significant difference in scores between these two groups based solely on the low p-value

Answer 67

e. There is a statistically significant difference in scores between these two groups based solely on the low p-value

Question 68

A study was conducted to see if there was a difference in final exam scores of Life Science 2 students who consumed more than 120mg caffeine per day, versus those who consumed none. Data was recorded and formulated into a t-test. The p-value for this experiment was 0.0325. Which of the following statements would not apply, or is false?
Select one:
a. There is a 3.25% probability that the two test groups are drawn from the same population.
b. More information is needed to make a determination.
c. The difference in data is significant such that we can claim that caffeine consumption has an effect on final exam scores.
d. There is a 96.75% probability that accepting the alternative hypothesis is correct.
e. The p-value falls below the threshold for significance, so we can feel confident in retaining our null hypothesis.

Answer 68

e. The p-value falls below the threshold for significance, so we can feel confident in retaining our null hypothesis.
Question 39

Question 69

In statistics,
Select one:
a. The t-test takes into account the difference between the means and medians of the two samples.
b. The t-test takes into account the difference between the means of the two samples only.
c. The t-test takes into account the difference between the means and modes of the two samples.
d. The t-test takes into account the difference between the means and p-values of the two samples.
e. The t-test takes into account the difference between the means and standard error of the two samples.

Answer 69

e. The t-test takes into account the difference between the means and standard error of the two samples.

Question 70

An experimental p-value of 0.06 would mean:
Select one:
a. There is a 6% chance your sample groups are not significantly different.
b. The null hypothesis can be rejected with 6% certainty.
c. The hypothesis can be rejected with 6% certainty. (pg6)
d. There is a 94% chance your sample groups are not significantly different.
e. The results of your study are statistically significant.

Answer 70

a. There is a 6% chance your sample groups are not significantly different.

Question 71

In lab, B-galactosidase enzyme activity was measured in “units of activity”. In order to determine the units of activity, one must be able to measure
Select one:
a. how long the reaction between B-galactosidase and its substrate was allowed to proceed.
b. All of these.
c. the volume of the sample assayed.
d. the concentration of o-nitrophenol.
e. E. coli density.

Answer 71

b. All of these.

Question 72

In the biochemical assay lab, test tubes A and B were treated with ONPG. After 15 minutes of incubation, test tube A turned a yellow color while test tube B remained a clear color. Test tube ___ contained __________ which reacted with ONPG to produce _________ and __________ .
Select one:
a. A, glucose, Na2CO3, lactose
b. B, b-galactosidase, lactose, Na2CO3
c. A, lactose, lactose, o-nitrophenol
d. A, b-galactosidase, galactose, o-nitrophenol
e. B, lactose, glucose, o-nitrophenol

Answer 72

d. A, b-galactosidase, galactose, o-nitrophenol

Question 73

Which pipette would you use to measure 2.7 microliters MOST accurately and what would its corresponding volumetric reading (top to bottom) be?
Select one:
a. p20 pipette with 2, 7, 0
b. p200 pipette with 2, 7, 0
c. p20 pipette with 0, 2, 7
d. p1000 pipette with 2, 7, 0
e. p20 pipette with 2, 7, 0

Answer 73

c. p20 pipette with 0, 2, 7

Question 74

According to the equation that was created from the standard curve in SDS-PAGE lab, as the x-value \_\_\_, the y-value \_\_\_.
Select one:
a. increases, decreases
b. increases, remains unchanged
c. increases, increases
d. decreases, decreases,

Answer 74

a. increases, decreases

Question 75

In the presence of lactose, the Lac repressor is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which allows the transcription of the lac operon to occur. Thus when lactose is the only source of sugar, the activity of the b-galactosidase is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ compared to the condition where glucose is the only
source of sugar.
Select one:
a. Inactivated, the same.
b. Activated, increased
c. Activated, the same
d. Inactivated, decreased
e. Inactivated, increased

Answer 75

e. Inactivated, increased

Question 76

All of the following are true regarding the regulation of transcription of the lac operon except:
Select one:
a. The transcribed Z gene leads to the creation of mRNA that encodes beta-galactosidase.
b. Lactose causes the lac repressor to change comformation so it gets off of the operator.
c. RNA polymerase is stopped by the lac repressor when no lacotse is present.
d. RNA Polymerase initially attaches to the operator.
e. The transcribed I gene leads to the creation of mRNA that encodes the Lac repressor protein.

Answer 76

d. RNA Polymerase initially attaches to the operator.

Question 77

Which of the following tells us the cell density in a solution? :
Select one:
a. estimate directly according to color of the solution.
b. measure the weight of the solution and divide by volume.
c. measure OD550 of the solution.
d. take absorbance reading at 420nm, and convert it to concentration.
e. take absorbance reading at 600nm, and convert it to concentration.

Answer 77

e. take absorbance reading at 600nm, and convert it to concentration.

Question 78

b-galactosidase is synthesized by E. coli grown in which of the following media?
Select one:
a. LB + ethidium bromide
b. LB + galactose
c. LB
d. Luria Broth (LB) + glucose
e. LB + lactose

Answer 78

e. LB + lactose

Question 79

In one step of PCR the temperature is lowered to about 50-60C, what is the point of this?
Select one:
a. To prevent DNA degradation
b. Because it is the optimum temperature for Taq Polymerase
c. To separate the DNA strands
d. Allows the hybridization of the primers
e. To add a sequencing primer

Answer 79

d. Allows the hybridization of the primers

Question 80

If a man with mutated mitochondria marries a woman with normal mitochondria, what is the likelihood that their first child will have mutated mitochondria at the exact location?
Select one:
a. Close to 0% because the child will inherit only viable mitochondria, regardless of which parent it comes from.
b. 50% because the child will receive either the father’s or the mother’s mitochondria based on pure chance.
c. 100% because the child will only inherit the father’s mitochondria
d. Close to 0% because the child will only inherit the mother’s mitochondria.
e. 50% because the child will inherit half of his/her mitochondria from the mother, and half from the father.

Answer 80

d. Close to 0% because the child will only inherit the mother’s mitochondria.

Question 81

Which of the following statements regarding primers is true (as learned in the context of this class)?
Select one:
a. Good primers are designed to bind to hyper variable regions of the DNA that we want to amplify.
b. Primer specificity is increased by making the 3’ (C terminmus) end in a G or C, since G and C bind more tightly than A or T.
c. Primers are single-stranded RNAs, usually 20-30 bases long.
d. Good primers should have long sequences (more than 40 base pairs). This will make it easier for a primer to bind to DNA more tightly.
e. Adenine and Thyamine should make up the majority of the total base pairs in a good primer.

Answer 81

b. Primer specificity is increased by making the 3’ (C terminmus) end in a G or C, since G and C bind more tightly than A or T.

Question 82

What would be the most likely result of adding nucleotides lacking a hydroxyl group at the 3’ end to a PCR reaction instead of dNTP?
Select one:
a. This would not affect the PCR reaction because hydroxyl groups are not involved in elongation.
b. No additional nucleotides would be added to a growing strand containing that nucleotide.
c. The phosphate will form a covalent bond with another atom, terminating elongation.
d. T. aquaticus DNA polymerase would be denatured.

Answer 82

b. No additional nucleotides would be added to a growing strand containing that nucleotide.

Question 83

Which one of the following statements is false?
Select one:
a. Ethidium bromide is used to visualize the DNA.
b. FITC denatures proteins and creates a uniformly negative charge in the polypeptide.
c. Polyacrylamide gel has the best resolution
d. SDS-PAGE is typically run vertically.
e. Acrylamide gel is only safe after
polymerization.

Answer 83

b. FITC denatures proteins and creates a uniformly negative charge in the polypeptide.

Question 84

How can one detect DNA after running it through a gel?
Select one:
a. introduce ethidium bromide, which will fluoresce under UV
b. measure the distance that each of the bands traveled
c. place the gel into a transilluminator to see the bands
d. allow it to bind to a fluorescent tag, which will fluoresce under UV
e. introduce a dye, which can bind to the DNA and will appear as a band

Answer 84

a. introduce ethidium bromide, which will fluoresce under UV

Question 85

Why don’t we use Y-linked genes to trace the genetic line?
Select one:
a. There might be a lot mutation in these genes
b. Y-linked genes are too short and not enough for sequencing
c. mtDNA are easier to work with
d. Females do not have Y-linked genes
e. The ancestors did not have Y-linked DNA

Answer 85

d. Females do not have Y-linked genes

Question 86

Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding BLAST?
Select one:
a. stands for Basic Local Alignment Search Tool
b. is a set of homology search programs designed to explore all of the available sequence databases for proteins and DNA
c. developed to access a database to compare you sequence to
d. The “E-value” indicates the probability of a random match between the two seqences in comparison
e. The best match has the highest “Score” AND the highest “E-value.”

Answer 86

e. The best match has the highest “Score” AND the highest “E-value.”

Question 87

Dideoxynucleotides are essential for:
Select one:
a. DNA Sequencing
b. SDS-PAGE
c. Primer design
d. PCR
e. Gel electrophoresis

Answer 87

a. DNA Sequencing

Question 88

In a metabolism experiment involving goldfish, you want to compare the metabolic rate between goldfish exposed to direct sunlight versus those that live in the dark. Your hypothesis is that goldfish that live in the dark have different metabolic rates than those
grown in direct sunlight. Which of the
following is NOT TRUE?
Select one:
a. If your P value is

Answer 88

c. If you P value is

Question 89

In the metabolism lab, the oxygen concentration was measured in order to:.
Select one:
a. determine if the goldfish are using metabolic pathways
b. correlate with the goldfish’s body temperature
c. see if the goldfish are still breathing
d. determine the metabolic rate of the goldfish
e. track the energy produced by the goldfish

Answer 89

d. determine the metabolic rate of the goldfish

Question 90

Which of the following branches from the aorta?
Select one:
a. Vena cavae
b. Pulmonary vein
c. Axillary arteries
d. Left ventricle
e. Pulmonary artery

Answer 90

c. Axillary arteries

Question 91

The stomach opens to the small intestines through the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Select one:
a. Ascending colon
b. Ileocolic valve
c. Esophagus
d. Pyloric valve
e. Jejunum

Answer 91

d. Pyloric valve

Question 92

Which of the following represent the same orientation in humans?
Select one:
a. Medial and Lateral
b. Dorsal and Superior
c. Dorsal and Ventral
d. Posterior and Dorsal
e. Posterior and Anterior

Answer 92

d. Posterior and Dorsal

Question 93

The heart is composed of 4 chambers. The ________ receive blood and the ________ pump blood out of the heart. During the rat dissection lab it was also observed that the walls of the ___________ differ in thickness because the ____ side pumps blood to the entire body
and the ____ side pumps blood to the
lungs.
Select one:
a. atria, ventricles, ventricles, right, left.
b. ventricles, atria, atria, right, left.
c. atria, ventricles, ventricles, left, right.
d. ventricles, atria, atria, left, right.
e. ventricles, atria, ventricles, left, right.

Answer 93

c. atria, ventricles, ventricles, left, right.

Question 94

Which of the following statements concerning compound microscopes is FALSE?
Select
one:
a. the specimen must be dead in order to observed
b. the compound microscope is composed of two lenses
c. light passes through the speciment into the viewer’s eye
d. the image produced is a mirror to what is actually observed
e. there are various levels of discreet magnification in a compound microscope

Answer 94

a. the specimen must be dead in order to observed

Question 95

All of these statements about electron and compound microscopes are true EXCEPT
Select one:
a. An electron microscope cannot be used to look at living cells.
b. An electron microscope has a higher magnification.
c. An electron microscope is more appropriate for analyzing living prokaryotic cells.
d. An electron microscope uses beams of electrons to visualize an image.

Answer 95

c. An electron microscope is more appropriate for analyzing living prokaryotic cells.

Question 96

Which one of the following biological tissue types is characterized by large amounts of extracellular material and relatively large spaces between cells?
Select one:
a. Nervous tissue
b. Epithelial tissue
c. Connective tissue
d. Muscular tissue
e. Vascular tissue

Answer 96

c. Connective tissue

Question 97

A TA is reviewing the slides for the "Microscopy and Histology" lab. He discovers a mystery slide and examines it under a compound microscope. He notices that the sample has many thin, spindle-shaped fibers that contain only one nucleus per cell. What could the sample be
of?
Select one:
a. Smooth Muscle
b. Neurons
c. Skeletal Muscle
d. Bone
e. Liver

Answer 97

a. Smooth Muscle

Question 98

A scientist is interested in studying the parasite responsible for malaria, and wants to study the effects of different variables on the parasite’s ability to cause disease. She hypothesizes that the parasite is more pathogenic in environments containing glucose. Which of the following
most accurately captures the null hypothesis
of her experiment?
Select one:
a. The parasite switches moes of metabolism in the presence of lactose.
b. The parasite’s pathogenicity is not affected by environmental glucose levels.
c. The parasite is less pathogenic in environments without glucose.
d. The parasite cannot use glucose.
e. The parasite is more pathogenic
in environments with high glucose levels.

Answer 98

b. The parasite’s pathogenicity is not affected by environmental glucose levels.

Question 99

The falsificationist procedure is simple method to increase the power of conclusions deduced using the hypothetico-deductive approach. A student in LS 2 walks along the UCLA campus and forms a hypothesis that all squirrels are grey in every part of world. If she applied the falsificationist procedure to her hypothesis, her next step would be:
Select one:
a. Derive another hypothesis (H1) of her observations of grey squirrels to determine using quantitative methods if it is statistically beneficial to retain her first hypothesis.
b. Conclude that the UCLA campus possesses only grey squirrels and thus, her hypothesis is proven true and then make an interpretation of the data from the sample of the squirrel population.
c. Subsequently
derive a null hypothesis (H0) which
states that all squirrels in the world are not grey and then formulate an experiment so as to retain or reject her null hypothesis.
d. Derive a null hypothesis (H0) which states that all squirrels are black regardless of the temperature and location of their habitat and then use inferential statistics to reject her null.

Answer 99

c. Subsequently
derive a null hypothesis (H0) which
states that all squirrels in the world are not grey and then formulate an experiment so as to retain or reject her null hypothesis.

Question 100

What does a p-value of 0.04 tell an experimenter?
Select one:
a. There is a 4% probability that he is making a mistake by REJECTING the null hypothesis.
b. He has miscalculated his t-value.
c. There is a 4% probability that he is correct in accepting the experimental hypothesis.
d. He can conclude that his two sample groups are not significantly different.

Answer 100

a. There is a 4% probability that he is making a mistake by REJECTING the null hypothesis.

Question 101

The Student’s T-Test is used to:
Select one:
a. tell the exact difference in values between the two groups you are studying.
b. determine the standard deviations of two groups in order to determine the means.
c. determine the p-value to figure out the population means.
d. determine the significance of the difference between two sample groups.
e. determine the values that will be used to make a null and alternative hypothesis.

Answer 101

d. determine the significance of the difference between two sample groups.

Question 102

A student picks up the P1000 pipetter turns the volume adjustment ring until the top digit reads 0, the middle digit reads 8, and the bottom digit reads 3. He then places a tip on the shaft of the pipetter and aspirates an unknown liquid from a test tube, and expels the liquid into a clean graduated cyllinder. After ejecting the tip from the P1000 and placing it on the tray, he picks up a P200 pipetter and turns the volume adjustment ring until the top digit reads 1, the middle digit reads 7, and the bottom digit reads 0. He then places a tip on the shaft of the pipetter and aspirates the same unknown liquid from the same
test tube, and
expels the liquid into the same graduated cylinder. The student, who did not pay attention in Lab 1, is bewildered, and then looks at the graduated cylinder to see how much liquid total he took out of the test tube. What is the reading on graduated cylinder?
Select one:
a. 0.85 mL
b. 0.001mL
c. 1 mL
d. 10 mL
e. 0.1 mL

Answer 102

c. 1 mL

Question 103

A p20 Pipette reads from top to bottom 067. How much liquid will be aspirated?
Select one:
a. 0.67 milliliters
b. 6.7 milliliters
c. 0.67 microliters
d. 0.0067 milliliters
e. 67 microliters

Answer 103

d. 0.0067 milliliters

Question 104

Which of the following methods is NOT a way to separate proteins based predominantly on their size?
Select one:
a. SDS-PAGE.
b. Gel filtration.
c. Electrophoresis.
d. Centrifugation.
e. Thin layer chromatography.

Answer 104

e. Thin layer chromatography.

Question 105

If a protein that weighs 160 KD and has two subunits of different weights (60KD and 40KD) that are held together by disulfide linkages, is treated with SDS and a reducing agent, and run through gel electrophoresis, which of the following answer choices would resemble the gel picture?
Select one:
a. One stronger band nearer to the top with two weaker bands nearer to the bottom.
b. One stronger band nearer to the top and one weaker band nearer to the bottom.
c. One band only
d. One weaker band nearer to the top with one stronger band nearer to the bottom.
e. No bands

Answer 105

b. One stronger band nearer to the top and one weaker band nearer to the bottom.

Question 106

Which of the following is not a component of the lac operon in E. coli?
Select one:
a. Lac A gene (for Thiogalactoside transacetylase)
b. Operator
c. Promoter
d. Lac Z gene (for beta-galactosidase)
e. I gene (for Lac repressor)

Answer 106

e. I gene (for Lac repressor)

Question 107

The _________________ binds to the ____________ and prevents the RNA polymerase from transcribing the ___________.
Select one:
a. I gene, promoter, A gene
b. repressor, promoter, Z gene
c. Lac repressor, operator, Lac Operon
d. Lac repressor, promoter, Lac repressor
e. A gene, operator, Z gene

Answer 107

c. Lac repressor, operator, Lac Operon

Question 108

Which of the following statements is false regarding the B-galactosidase Assay Lab?
Select
one:
a. We stopped B-galactosidase from cleaving ONPG by adding a solution that increased pH.
b. We assayed B-galactosidase activity specifically by measuring the amount of o-nitrophenol in the solution.
c. Using the spectrophotometer, we measured cell density at 420 nm and B-galactosidase activity at 600 nm.
d. The units of enzyme activity took time, volume, and cell denisty into account.
e. In the lac operon, the I gene is constantly encoding lac repressor protein.

Answer 108

c. Using the spectrophotometer, we measured cell density at 420 nm and B-galactosidase activity at 600 nm.

Question 109

What are differences between mitochondrial and nuclear DNA?
Select one:
a. Only two of these are correct.
b. All of these are correct.
c. One is double-stranded, one is single-stranded.
d. One is linear, one is circular.
e. One uses uracil, one uses thiamine.

Answer 109

d. One is linear, one is circular.

Question 110

What is the special property of Taq polymerase that allows it to work in a PCR reaction?
Select
one:
a. It is non-degrading
b. it is heat resistant
c. It is bigger than other polymerases
d. Taq polymerase is cheaper than others
e. There is nothing special, it's just like all the other polymerases

Answer 110

b. it is heat resistant

Question 111

Which of these rules for designing a primer pair is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Primers should not have long runs of the same base in a row, because this can lead to mispriming.
b. Primers should consist of about 40% A-T pairs and 60% G-C pairs.
c. Primers should end their 3’ ends with purines because they bind more tightly than pyrimidines.
d. Primers that are too long will have difficulty binding fully to the DNA, and primers that are too short will not bind to the DNA with enough specificity.
e. Primers should have similar melting temperatures to each other and to the temperature at which double-stranded DNA dissociates into single strands.

Answer 111

c. Primers should end their 3’ ends with purines because they bind more tightly than pyrimidines.

Question 112

In the DNA isolation and amplification lab, what would happen if human DNA polymerase was used instead of Taq polymerase for the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?
Select one:
a. The reaction would run less smoothly, because human DNA polymerase does not work as well with artificially-made primers.
b. The reaction would run more smoothly, because the nucleotides bind more efficiently through human DNA polymerase.
c. The reaction would run more quickly, because more copies of DNA would be made per cycle.
d. The reaction would not produce many target DNA PCR products, because human DNA polymerase cannot withstand multiple thermal heat cycles.
e. The reaction would be the same, regardless of DNA polymerase used.

Answer 112

d. The reaction would not produce many target DNA PCR products, because human DNA polymerase cannot withstand multiple thermal heat cycles.

Question 113

In the agarose gel electrophoresis and molecular clocks lab, why did we not add SDS and beta mercaptoethanol to the agarose gel before loading our PCR product?
Select one:
a. The agarose gel is not toxic, so we do not need SDS and beta mercaptoethanol.
b. The PCR product is so small that SDS and beta mercaptoethanol are not needed.
c. The PCR product is already linear and has a negative charge associated with it.
d. The agarose gel was run horizontally instead of vertically.
e. The ethidium bromide (EtBr) acted as a reducing agent and gave the PCR product a negative charge.

Answer 113

c. The PCR product is already linear and has a negative charge associated with it.

Question 114

In the agarose gel and molecular clock lab, we are looking at the DNA sequence in several mammals encoding RNA polymerase II beta subunit (RPB1), a protein that is essential for DNA transcription. Choose the best answer from the following about mutations in this sequence:
Select one:
a. A non-conservative mutation, which changes amino acid sequence and the amino acid properties, will probably not change the function of RPB1 greatly.
b. A silent mutation in the nucleotide sequence would go undetected in our lab because a silent mutation does not change the amino acid sequence.
c. A conservative mutation, which changes amino acid sequence while retaining similar amino acid properties,
will probably not change the
function of RPB1 greatly.
d. A portion of the sequence that is very important to its function, like the carboxy terminal domain of RPB1, is expected to exhibit more mutations than less important parts of the sequence.
e. Because RPB1 has an essential function, it is expected to accumulate more mutations over time than other proteins.

Answer 114

c. A conservative mutation, which changes amino acid sequence while retaining similar amino acid properties,
will probably not change the
function of RPB1 greatly.

Question 115

___________ is made of ___________, which is a neuron toxin and is safe only after polymerization. In contrast, the _________ in __________ is safe to use and extracted from seaweed.
Select one:
a. Gel filtration column, acrylamide, polymer network, agarose gel.
b. Agarose gel, agarose, acrylamide, polyacrylamide gel.
c. polyacrylamide gel, PAGE, agar, agarose.
d. Polyacrylamide gel, acrylamide, agarose, agarose gel.
e. Native-PAGE gel, gel monomers, polyacrylamide, acrylamide gel.

Answer 115

d. Polyacrylamide gel, acrylamide, agarose, agarose gel.

Question 116

Which one of these statements is false?
Select one:
a. Ethidium bromide is highly toxic and carcinogenic.
b. FITC can be used for visualization on a PAGE gel.
c. DNA travels towards the positive electrode in gel electrophresis.
d. The smaller pores on a PAGE gel allow for greater resolution than on an agarose gel.
e. PAGE gels can only be ran vertically.

Answer 116

e. PAGE gels can only be ran vertically.

Question 117

In the phylogenetic tree lab, what does the age for the most-recent-common-ancestor show?
Select
one:
a. The time when many species became extinct.
b. The genes that are constant between two species.
c. How far the entire phylogenetic tree dates back.
d. Which new mutations occurred in the DNA of new species.
e. The moment when two lineages diverged.

Answer 117

e. The moment when two lineages diverged.

Question 118

When mapping lineage, it is important to amplify a non-coding region of DNA for analysis by PCR because:
Select one:
a. a non-coding region accumulates mutations that would be manifested in gene products
b. a non-coding region is not as susceptible to replication errors, and exposure to mutagens and oxidizing conditions
c. a non-coding region can be more easily identified by a primer than a protein coding region
d. a non-coding region can accumulate more mutations without affecting the function of the protein
e. a non-coding region is more susceptible to replication errors and exposure to mutagens,and oxidizing conditions

Answer 118

d. a non-coding region can accumulate more mutations without affecting the function of the protein

Question 119

What information are you attaching to your individual sequence when you annotate it?
Select
one:
a. Your country of origin and ethnic information.
b. Your first name and sex.
c. Your race and hair color.
d. Your country of origin and mother’s maiden name.
e. Your sex and mother’s maiden name.

Answer 119

a. Your country of origin and ethnic information.

Question 120

If the results of an experiment allow one to reject the null hypothesis, then
Select
one:
a. the control and experimental treatments do not differ significantly with respect to the variable being studied.
b. the null hypothesis correctly predicts the outcome of the experiment.
c. the experiment lacked adequate controls.
d. too few trials per treatment were performed.
e. the control and experimental treatments differ significantly with respect to the variable being studied.

Answer 120

e. the control and experimental treatments differ significantly with respect to the variable being studied.

Question 121

Which of the following statements is true about the control and experimental trials each set of fish must undergo in this metabolism lab?
Select one:
a. One set of fish should undergo two control trials, and the other set should undergo two experimental trials because this keeps your results consistent.
b. One set of fish should undergo two control trials, and the other set should undergo two experimental trials because doing so is less stressful on the poikilothermic fish.
c. As long as there are two control trials and two experimental trials,
it does not matter what
combination of trials each set of fish undergoes – there’s no effect on the results of the experiment.
d. Each set of fish should undergo both a control and an experimental trial, because otherwise it wouldn’t be fair for the fish.
e. Each set of fish should undergo both a control and an experimental trial, because doing so would make it possible to test the effects on the metabolic rate caused by the single variable introduced in the experimental trial by itself. The effects of confounding factors, such as differences in the two sets
of fish, are thus
minimized.

Answer 121

e. Each set of fish should undergo both a control and an experimental trial, because doing so would make it possible to test the effects on the metabolic rate caused by the single variable introduced in the experimental trial by itself. The effects of confounding factors, such as differences in the two sets
of fish, are thus
minimized.

Question 122

From the metabolism lab, what can a student conclude about the relative metabolic rates of smaller vs. larger animals?
Select one:
a. The rates for both are the same
b. Smaller animals have lower rates
c. No conclusion can be made
d. Smaller animals have higher rates
e. Larger animals have higher rates

Answer 122

d. Smaller animals have higher rates

Question 123

What is the function of the rat cecum?
Select one:
a. the rat cecum is the site of cellulose break down through bacterial fermentation
b. the rat cecum digests proteins
c. the rat aids the small intestine in water absorption
d. the rat cecum is just an extra stomach for digestion
e. the rat cecum is just an organ for feces storage

Answer 123

a. the rat cecum is the site of cellulose break down through bacterial fermentation

Question 124

A rat swallows a piece of corn. Which of these organs or structures does the piece of corn NOT pass through during digestion and excretion?
Select one:
a. Large Intestine.
b. Stomach.
c. Esophagus.
d. Rectum.
e. Trachea.

Answer 124

e. Trachea.

Question 125

Anterior is equivalent to what part of the rat?s body?
Select one:
a. It is the same as saying posterior
b. None of the above
c. It is towards the tail in a rat
d. It is towards the head in a rat
e. It is the same as saying dorsal

Answer 125

d. It is towards the head in a rat

Question 126

As we learned in the rat dissection lab one of the main differences between rats and humans is orientation and direction. The dorsal side of a rat points in the upwards direction though in humans the dorsal side is the same as the \_\_\_\_ direction
.
Select one:
a. Inferior
b. Posterior
c. Superior
d. Caudal
e. Cranial

Answer 126

b. Posterior

Question 127

Using a microscope, you are trying to identify a tissue sample. Using a 40x objective and 10x ocular lens, you see striations within the tissue sample and parallel fibers. The unknown sample you are looking at is most likely:
Select
one:
a. thymus
b. neurons
c. tracheal epithelium
d. skeletal muscle
e. lung

Answer 127

d. skeletal muscle

Question 128

Why are thymus tissue slides NOT stained for DNA like the other slides?
Select one:
a. The thymus is where red blood cells mature and because red blood cells have no nuclei, the slides are stained differently.
b. Thymus cells do not have nuclei, so no cells would show otherwise.
c. Staining the thymus for white blood cells instead of thymus DNA will exemplify the importance of the tissue’s function.
d. Thymus tissue slides are stained for DNA; there would not be any other kind of material to stain for in the tissue.
e. When examining thymus tissue under a microscope, the nuclei are too small to see, so we stain for other things instead.

Answer 128

c. Staining the thymus for white blood cells instead of thymus DNA will exemplify the importance of the tissue’s function.

Question 129

A student examines many different tissue types under a microscope. Which of the following characteristics would not be observed for the respective tissue types?
Select one:
a. Red blood cells with no visible nucleus
b. Bone tissue with a crystalline structure and visible holes
c. Thymus cells with no visible DNA staining
d. Lung tissue with large spaces for gas exchange
e. Striated muscle tissue with multiple nuclei per cell

Answer 129

c. Thymus cells with no visible DNA staining

Question 130

Which of the following tissue will appear the most vascularized (have the highest density of blood vessels)?
Select one:
a. neurons
b. hair
c. adipose tissue
d. cartilage
e. lung tissue

Answer 130

e. lung tissue

Question 131

Suppose a group of scientists test the hypothesis that females and males perform differently on the SAT by collecting data and performing statistical analysis. Their null hypothesis would be that___________. If their calculated p-value is 30%
then____________.
Select one:
a. females and males perform the same on the SAT; they should reject the null hypothesis
b. females and males perform differently on the SAT; they should accept the null hypothesis
c. females and males perform the same on the SAT; they should accept the null hypothesis
d. males perform better than females on the SAT; the results were not statistically significant
e. females perform better than males on the SAT; they should reject the null hypothesis

Answer 131

c. females and males perform the same on the SAT; they should accept the null hypothesis

Question 132

Suppose the following hypothesis: females respond better to questions than men. Given 540 degrees freedom, t-test value of 3.56, and p-value of 0.02, and females answer 120 questions correctly while men answer 100 questions correctly, determine if the hypothesis is accepted or not and why.
Select one:
a. The hypothesis is valid because the p-value is less than 0.05 indicating that we can accept the hypothesis.
b. The hypothesis is invalid because the sample is too large.
c. The hypothesis is valid because the t-test value is high, which indicates that the samples are the same; therefore we have a valid hypothesis.
d. The hypothesis is invalid because the p-value is less than 0.05 indicating that we cannot accept the hypothesis.
e. The hypothesis is invalid because the t-test value is greater than 0.05 indicating t

Answer 132

a. The hypothesis is valid because the p-value is less than 0.05 indicating that we can accept the hypothesis.

Question 133

What two factors does the p-value depend on?
Select one:
a. standard deviation, mode
b. standard deviation, mean
c. mode, median
d. standard deviation, median
e. mean, mode

Answer 133

b. standard deviation, mean

Question 134

You are conducting an experiment to determine whether males and females have different emotional reactions to chocolate consumption. Your male sample size is 124, and your female sample size is 232. What is your degrees of freedom when determining your p-value?
Select one:
a. 232
b. 354
c. 359
d. 356
e. 124

Answer 134

b. 354

Question 135

When ejecting a protein sample into a well of the SDS-PAGE gel with a pipetter, why should you only push down on the pushbutton to the first stop and not the second stop?
Select one:
a. Pushing down to the second stop will eject more sample than required.
b. The pushbutton should only be pushed down to the second stop when loading the sample into the pipetter.
c. Pushing down to the second stop will result in ejection of air from the pipet tip, which could blow the content intended for that particular well to the surrounding wells.
d. Pushing down to the second stop could denature the protein sample.
e. Pushing down to the second stop when loading the samples will not affect the SDS-PAGE results.

Answer 135

c. Pushing down to the second stop will result in ejection of air from the pipet tip, which could blow the content intended for that particular well to the surrounding wells.

Question 136

What would the pipetter read for P20, P200, and P1000 for 5.5, 150, 500 microliters respectively?
Select one:
a. 500,015,500
b. 505,150,050
c. 055,150,050
d. 550, 015, 500
e. 005,150,500

Answer 136

c. 055,150,050

Question 137

During SDS-PAGE, the reducing agent breaks \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bonds while the SDS creates an overall \_\_\_\_ charge on the protein. Thus, the proteins migrate toward the \_\_\_electrode on the gel.
Select one:
a. disulfide, negative, positive
b. disulfide, positive, negative
c. Hydrogen , negative, negative
d. Hydrophobic , positive, negative
e. Hydrophobic, positive, positive

Answer 137

a. disulfide, negative, positive

Question 138

How were the proteins in the SDS-PAGE lab visualized?
Select one:
a. The proteins were stained with ethidium bromide and could be seen under a UV light.
b. The gel was stained with ethidium bromide and the proteins could be seen under a UV light.
c. The proteins were linked to a
fluorescent tag and could be seen under a UV light.
d. The proteins were tagged with ONPG and could be detected with the spectrophotometer.
e. The gel was stained with coomassie blue and the proteins could be seen under a UV light.

Answer 138

c. The proteins were linked to a

fluorescent tag and could be seen under a UV light.

Question 139

In the absence of lactose, what gene(s) on the lac operon is/are transcribed?
Select one:
a. I and Z genes
b. Z gene
c. X and Y genes
d. I gene
e. X, Y and Z genes

Answer 139

I gene

Question 140

If lactose is the sole sugar source present in E.coli, then the repressor cannot bind the _______ and lactose is broken down into _________ .
Select one:
a. RNA polymerase, glucose and galactose
b. operator, glucose and galactose
c. promoter, glucose and galactose
d. Beta-Galactosidase, glucose and fructose
e. operator, glucose and fructose

Answer 140

b. operator, glucose and galactose

Question 141

B-galactosidase activity, as seen by the cleavage of ONPG to o-nitrophenol, is clearly visible at the 70 minute mark, but not the 20 minute mark because:
Select one:
a. activity actually does occur at the 20 minute mark, but our constant transferring of liquid dilutes the o-nitrophenol.
b. only after 70 minutes is all of the broth consumed.
c. some chloroform remains in the supernatant after centrifugation, and delays the effects of b-galactosidase.
d. it takes about 70 minutes for enough lactose to be cleaved.
e. transcription and translation of b-galactosidase is time dependent, and enough of it needs to build up before it can cleave enough ONPG to produce visible amounts of o-nitrophenol (yellow).

Answer 141

e. transcription and translation of b-galactosidase is time dependent, and enough of it needs to build up before it can cleave enough ONPG to produce visible amounts of o-nitrophenol (yellow).

Question 142

In the b-galactosidase assay, E. coli cell density was determined against
Select one:
a. the blank used was water.
b. the b-galactosidase blank to account for the background absorbance of b-galactosidase in the sample.
c. the Luria broth (LB) blank to account for the background absorbance of LB in the sample.
d. the Luria broth (LB) blank to account for the background absorbance of cells in the sample.
e. the b-galactosidase blank to account for the background absorbance of LB in the sample.

Answer 142

c. the Luria broth (LB) blank to account for the background absorbance of LB in the sample.

Question 143

Starting with one double-stranded DNA, what is the total number of double-stranded DNA after 5 cycles of PCR?
Select one:
a. 32
b. 5
c. 20
d. 64
e. 10

Answer 143

a. 32

Question 144

The function of the Chelex beads in PCR is to
Select one:
a. allow the DNA to form a pellet
b. prevent DNA degradation by binding to DNases
c. prevent DNA degradation by releasing Mg2+
d. prevent DNA degradation by releasing DNases
e. prevent DNA degradation by binding to Mg2+

Answer 144

e. prevent DNA degradation by binding to Mg2+

Question 145

Which of these primer design problems is the most serious for the PCR procedure?
Select one:
a. The sequence has mismatched nucleotides in the center because shifted sequences will amplify mutation affecting protein function.
b. The sequence has an altered melting temperature due to a deficiency of A-T bonds.
c.
The sequence has mismatched nucleotides at the 5’ end because PCR cannot begin correctly from this mismatch.
d. The sequence has mismatched nucleotides at the 3’ end because the replication cannot extend from this mismatch.
e. The sequence is greater than 20 base pairs long

Answer 145

d. The sequence has mismatched nucleotides at the 3’ end because the replication cannot extend from this mismatch.

Question 146

In the “DNA Isolation and Amplification” lab we isolated mitochondrial DNA and treated the cheek cells with Chelex, which binds to Mg2+. Why is this important to the DNA isolation?
Select one:
a. Binding of Mg2+ causes lysis of the cell to occur.
b. Binding of Mg2+is necessary because it prevents RNA synthesis since Mg2+ is necessary for RNA polymerase binding.
c. Binding of Mg2+ activates DNA replication so there will be enough DNA for the PCR.
d. Binding of Mg2+is necessary because Mg2+ is a cofactor for DNases, which degrade DNA.
e. Binding of Mg2+degrades all nuclear DNA so that our sample will only have the desired mitochondrial DNA.

Answer 146

d. Binding of Mg2+is necessary because Mg2+ is a cofactor for DNases, which degrade DNA.

Question 147

When using a spectrophotometer you are primarily checking:
Select one:
a. For the chemical properties of your sample.
b. For what type of substance is within your sample.
c. For the wavelength of the light that emits through your
sample.
d. For the frequency of the light that emits through your sample.
e. For the amount of light absorbed by your sample.

Answer 147

e. For the amount of light absorbed by your sample.

Question 148

Which of the following mutations are you most likely to see in the coding region of DNA?
Select one:
a. Insertion.
b. Missense.
c. Silent.
d. Deletion.
e. Nonsense.

Answer 148

c. Silent.

Question 149

Why does DNA move through the agarose gel?
Select one:
a. SDS linearized the DNA creating a uniform negative charge causing the DNA to move towards the positive electrode
b. the negatively charged DNA moves towards the positive electrode
c. the loading dye added to the DNA moves
towards the positive electrode
d. the ethidium bromide has a positive charge that pulls the DNA towards the negative electrode
e. the positively charged DNA moves towards the negative electrode

Answer 149

b. the negatively charged DNA moves towards the positive electrode

Question 150

In which situation would it be necessary to use an SDS-PAGE gel instead of an agarose gel?
Select one:
a. To run a sample horizontally.
b. To run a DNA sample.
c. To run a sample that contains small size differences within the sample.
d. To run a small sample (low kDa value).
e. To run a protein sample.

Answer 150

c. To run a sample that contains small size differences within the sample.

Question 151

If your mother has haplotype B and your father has haplotype J what haplotype are you?
Select one:
a. You are haplotype J because mitochondrial DNA is inherited from your father only.
b. You are haplotype JB because you inherit mitochondrial DNA from both your mother and your father.
c. You are haplotype B because mitochondrial DNA is inherited from your mother only.
d. Your haplotype is not dependent on your parent’s haplotypes. You would need to perform PCR and DNA sequencing on your own DNA to find out your haplotype.
e. You cannot tell if you are J or B without further testing because you are equally likely to inherit mitochondrial DNA from either parent.

Answer 151

c. You are haplotype B because mitochondrial DNA is inherited from your mother only.

Question 152

In lab, which of the following were displayed as an electropherogram?
Select one:
a. Migration of numt DNA from mitochondria to nuclear DNA
b. DNA separated using agarose gel.
c. DNA sequence in four color data from an automated sequencer.
d. Haplogroup lineages determined by mitochondrial DNA
e. Proteins separated using SDS-PAG

Answer 152

c. DNA sequence in four color data from an automated sequencer.

Question 153

Which of the following statements is true regarding visible spectrophotometry?
Select one:
a. It is based on the fact that radiation in the wavelength range of 400-700nm can excite electrons in certain types of chemical bonds, elevating their energy levels away from the ground state.
b. The resulting absorbance of the species in the sample is inversely proportional to its concentration.
c. A pure sample of a photosynthesizing pigment will be characterized by one peak in its
absorbance
spectrum.
d. The primary photosynthetic pigments of all photosynthesizing eukaryotic organisms are chlorophylls, which absorb both red and green light.
e. The absorbance spectrum of a sample that contains more than one photosynthesizing pigment cannot be measured at the same time.

Answer 153

a. It is based on the fact that radiation in the wavelength range of 400-700nm can excite electrons in certain types of chemical bonds, elevating their energy levels away from the ground state.

Question 154

A good experimental group should have \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ variable(s) introduced when compared to the control group.
Select one:
a. 0
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1
e. a maximum of 2.

Answer 154

d. 1

Question 155

After setting up and running an experiment in the metabolism lab, what the false statement regarding what a good experiment should entail?
Select one:
a. More than one variable can be changed and tested in a good concise experiment.
b. It is critical that the proposed hypothesis can be answered definitely.
c. A plausible and testable hypothesis should be considered beforestarting the experiment.
d. The fish tested with the control should be reused and be tested with the experimental environment.
e. there should be a control group and an experimental group.

Answer 155

a. More than one variable can be changed and tested in a good concise experiment.

Question 156

Which of the following terms and statements incorrectly describes a goldfish?
Select one:
a. Catabolic: this allows macromolecules within the goldfish to be broken down
b. Poikiothermic: this allows environmental temperature to affect the metabolism of the goldfish
c. Anabolic: this allows macromolecules within the goldfish to be built up
d. Homeothermic: this allows the consumption of oxygen to be measured in the goldfish
e. Metabolic: this allows chemical energy to be used in the physical processes of the goldfish

Answer 156

d. Homeothermic: this allows the consumption of oxygen to be measured in the goldfish

Question 157

What is the trend for animals regarding the ratio between body volume and body surface area?
Select one:
a. The volume to surface area ratio decreases as volume is increased.
b. The volume to surface area ratio does not change as volume is increased.
c. Surface area is not affected by volume change.
d. The volume to surface area ratio increases as volume is increased.
e. Volume is not affected by surface area change.

Answer 157

d. The volume to surface area ratio increases as volume is increased.

Question 158

What is one of the functions of the spleen you learned during the rat dissection?
Select one:
a. It is a vestigial organ, thus its function is irrelevant
b. It takes over liver function when in total hepatic failure.
c. It helps to store blood in case of an accident, thus its intense red color.
d. It is the site of destruction of old red blood cells.
e. It secretes digestive enzymes due to its proximity to the stomach and the intestines.

Answer 158

d. It is the site of destruction of old red blood cells.

Question 159

In the rat, what is the function of the spleen?
Select one:
a. Filtration of nitrogenous waste from blood
b. Energy storage
c. Removes worn-out blood cells and bacteria from the blood
d. Storage organ for ingested food
e. Produces digestive enzymes that are released into the duodenum

Answer 159

c. Removes worn-out blood cells and bacteria from the blood

Question 160

Name the the sections of the small intestines in order from the beginning to the end.
Select one:
a. ileum, duodenum, jejunum
b. duodenum, ileum, jejunum
c. duodenum, jejunum, ileum
d. jejunum, ileum, duodenum
e. ileum, jejunum, duodenum

Answer 160

c. duodenum, jejunum, ileum

Question 161

What was the maximum magnification possible with the compound microscope you used in the histology lab?
Select one:
a. 40X
b. 50X
c. 400X
d. 4000X
e. 10X

Answer 161

c. 400X

Question 162

When looking at bone tissue under the microscope, one often notices that it looks like Swiss cheese with rings around it, similar to a tree trunk. What kind of cells would you expect to see in the ‘holes’ and what kind of cells would you expect to see in the rings?
Select
one:
a. Both regions would have osteogenes because osteogenes are the dominant cells in bone
b. Both regions would have osteoclasts because osteoclasts are the dominant cells in bone
c. Both regions would have osteoblasts because osteoblasts are the dominant cells in bone
d. Osteoblasts in the hole because they destroy bones and osteoclasts in the rings because they make bones
e. Osteoclasts in the hole because they destroy bones and osteoblasts in the rings because they make bones

Answer 162

e. Osteoclasts in the hole because they destroy bones and osteoblasts in the rings because they make bones

Question 163

What does blood look like under 4x magnification with a compound light microscope?
Select one:
a. individual cells with various functions, nucleated
b. individual cells with no nuclei
c. tightly associated with canals,
d. forming air spaces
e. curved shape with cilia on edges

Answer 163

b. individual cells with no nuclei

Question 164

If a scientist observed that rabbits who eat excessive amounts of yellow carrots are more likely to be white, in order to test this observation he must first:
Select one:
a. Set up a control group with rabbits who eat an excess of yellow carrots
b. Set up an experimental group with rabbits who eat celery
c. Set up a control group with hamsters
d. Set up a control group with rabbits who are black
e. Set up an experimental group with rabbits who eat an excess of yellow carrots

Answer 164

b. Set up an experimental group with rabbits who eat celery

Question 165

The t-value obtained in a t-test calculation is given as a ratio of:
Select
one:
a. the normal distribution/the standard distribution
b. the variance of the group/ the standard error of the difference between the means
c. the variance of the group/ the standard deviation
d. the difference between the means of the group/ the standard deviation
e. the
difference between the means of the groups/ the standard error of the difference between the means

Answer 165

e. the

difference between the means of the groups/ the standard error of the difference between the means

Question 166

The MIT database gives a t-test value of 2.581, which correspond to a p-value of 0.01 for your null hypothesis. According to the hypothetico-deductive approach, what is the next step you should take?
Select one:
a. Retain your null hypothesis.
b. Reject your null hypothesis.
c. Calculate the standard deviation of the populations.
d. Make new observations about your populations.
e. Use inferential statistics to compare the populations.

Answer 166

b. Reject your null hypothesis.