Final Flashcards by she ign

The falsificationist procedure is simple method to increase the power of conclusions deduced using the hypothetico-deductive approach. A student in LS 2 walks along the UCLA campus and forms a hypothesis that all squirrels are grey in every part of world. If she applied the falsificationist procedure to her hypothesis, her next step would be

a. Derive a null hypothesis (H0) which states that all squirrels are black regardless of the temperature and location of their habitat and then use inferential statistics to reject her null.
b. Conclude that the UCLA campus possesses only grey squirrels and thus, her hypothesis is proven true and then make an interpretation of the data from the sample of the squirrel population.
c. Derive another hypothesis (H1) of her observations of grey squirrels to determine using quantitative methods if it is statistically beneficial to retain her first hypothesis.
d. Subsequently derive a null hypothesis (H0) which states that all squirrels in the world are not grey and then formulate an experiment so as to retain or reject her null hypothesis.

Subsequently derive a null hypothesis (H0) which states that all squirrels in the world are not grey and then formulate an experiment so as to retain or reject her null hypothesis.

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A researcher postulated: that tomato plants exhibit a higher rate of growth when planted in compost than in soil. Based on this hypothesis, which of the following statements would be the best null hypothesis?

a. There is no difference in growth rates.
b. Tomato plants that are planted in compost rather than in soil will grow to an average height of six feet.
c. Tomato plants exhibit a lower rate of growth when planted in compost than in soil.
d. Tomato plants show no difference in growth rate when planted in compost rather than in soil.
e. A null hypothesis cannot be obtained from the hypothesis provided.

d. Tomato plants show no difference in growth rate when planted in compost rather than in soil.

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Suppose in the Statistics lab, a p-value of 0.01 was obtained after tallying the weights of babies in the experimental and control group, what can we conclude?

a. The p value of 0.01 indicates that one percent of the time, our mean in the experimental group will differ from our mean in the control group.
b. The p value of 0.01 tells us that we fail to reject the null hypothesis and conclude that the two groups are not significantly different. Incorrect
c. The p value of 0.01 leads us to conlude that the two samples (experimental and control) are not from the same population.
d. The p value of 0.01 is the value of our error. This small value means that we conducted the experiment.

The p value of 0.01 leads us to conlude that the two samples (experimental and control) are not from the same population

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In statistics, how does the p-value relate to the observed difference when comparing sample groups?

a. The p-value is the probability that the observed difference is accurate.
b. The p-value is the probability that the observed difference is less than 5%.
c. The p-value is the probability that the observed difference is due to chance.
d. The p-value is the probability that the observed difference can be replicated. Incorrect
e. The p-value is held constant at 0.05 when comparing observed differences between groups.

The p-value is the probability that the observed difference is due to chance..

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The spectrophotometer used during the photosynthesis lab gave:

a. accurate information of the rate of photosynthesis in a sample
b. clear reading of the presence of pigments in a sample by their absorption
c. accurate reading of the sun
d. amount of photons in a sample

clear reading of the presence of pigments in a sample by their absorption

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Which of the following colors has the shortest wavelength?

a. green
b. red
c. orange
d. yellow
e. blue

blue

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Assuming you have a polar stationary phase and a nonpolar mobile phase, a compound with which of the following sets of characteristics will have the largest Rf value?

a. polar, not easily dissolved in the solvent, small size
b. polar, easily dissolved in the solvent, large size
c. nonpolar, easily dissolved in the solvent, small size
d. nonpolar, not easily dissolved in the solvent, large size
e. nonpolar, easily dissolved in the solvent, large size

nonpolar, easily dissolved in the solvent, small size.

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Which of these is true about Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC)?

a. TLC has two phases: a polar mobile phase, and a non-polar stationary phase.
b. You can see the pigment composition of a photosynthetic organism by spectrophotometry, but not TLC.
c. A molecule with an Rf value of 0.86 is more polar than another molecule with an Rf value of 0.34
d. A molecule with an Rf value of 0.98 travels a further distance towards the solvent front on the TLC plate than another molecule with an Rf value of 0.50
e. It is ideal to use a polar solvent mixture when using TLC.

A molecule with an Rf value of 0.98 travels a further distance towards the solvent front on the TLC plate than another molecule with an Rf value of 0.50.

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A good experimental group should have _______ variable(s) introduced when compared to the control group.

a. a maximum of 2.
b. 1
c. 3
d. 2
e. 0

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In the fish lab, which of the following is true?

a. Regardless of which variable was chosen to be tested, the amount of dissolved oxygen should decrease as the fish consume it.
b. The amount of dissolved oxygen should increase after the goldfish have been added.
c. The amount of dissolved carbon dioxide should decrease as the fish consume it.
d. The amount of dissolved oxygen should increase because atmospheric oxygen will the water spontaneously.

Regardless of which variable was chosen to be tested, the amount of dissolved oxygen should decrease as the fish consume it..

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Which of the following statements about ATP is FALSE?

a. Formed only under aerobic conditions
b. Is generated in cells mainly by chemiosmosis
c. Can be formed by substrate level phosphorylation
d. Following hydrolysis to ADP, further hydrolysis of ADP to AMP is an exergonic reaction.
e. Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP is an exergonic reaction

Formed only under aerobic conditions.

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When a poikilotherm like a lizard sits on a rock in the sun, its metabolism:

a. goes down because the animal will lose heat to the rock
b. goes up because there is more O2 on top of the rock than under the rock.
c. goes down because UV rays will break down macromolecules.
d. goes up because the sun will heat the animal.
e. goes down because the animal is no longer moving.

goes up because the sun will heat the animal..

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Which of the following organs is responsible for the detoxification of blood?

liver

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What structure separates the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity?

diaphragm

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In the rat dissection lab, we saw that the ______ is ________ and the ________ is _________ if one is looking at the ventral side of the rat

a. Colon ; posterior, rectum ; anterior
b. Colon ; anterior, rectum ; posterior
c. Rectum ; dorsal, colon ; ventral
d. Colon ; anterior , rectum ; dorsal
e. Rectum ; ventral, colon ; posterior

Colon ; anterior, rectum ; posterior.

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What terms are used to indicate the back and belly side of the rat?

dorsal and ventral

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All are true of a compound light microscope except which of the following:

a. It requires a thin specimen.
b. It produces a mirror image.
c. It contains two lenses.
d. It has discrete increments of magnification.
e. It focuses on light that reflects off the surface of the specimen.

It focuses on light that reflects off the surface of the specimen.

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A distinguishing feature lung tissue is that there are alveoli that are lined with _______ cells. The _______ tissue, unlike that of the lungs, contains cells compacted together to allow for the function of white blood cell differentiation.

a. epithelial, lymph node
b. epithelial, thymus
c. endothelial, lymph node
d. epithelial, thymus
e. endothelial, thymus

epithelial, thymus

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In the histology lab, various tissues were seen using the microscope. The trachea can be distinguished from the others by seeing _______________, while the skeletal muscle can be distinguished by seeing _________.

a. cilia, nuclei
b. striations, nuclei
c. cilia, striations
d. axons, striations
e. nuclei, striations

cilia, striations

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How do you release the excess solution that remains at the pipette tip after expelling?

a. Adjust the volume adjustment ring to a volume less than currently displayed
b. Adjust the volume adjustment ring to a volume more than currently displayed
c. Press the push button down to the second stop to complete expulsion
d. Release the push button from the 1st stop and press it down to the 1st stop once more
e. Tap the tip to the wall of the container

Press the push button down to the second stop to complete expulsion.

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Which pipettes can be used to obtain 13 microliters and what would be the pipette windows read from top to bottom?

a. p200 – 013
b. p1000 – 130
c. p200 –130
d. p20 – 013
e. p20 – 130

The correct answer is: p20 – 130

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What is the purpose of having to press the pushbutton of a pipetter to the second stop?

a. to make sure the solution is mixed well
b. to assure a larger absorbance reading
c. to expel any remaining liquid
d. to aspirate any remaining liquid
e. to eject the pipette tip

to expel any remaining liquid.

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What do the numbers 1, 4, 6 in succession going down the volume indicator convert to if using the P20?

a. 146 microliters
b. 14.6 mililiters
c. 0.146 mililiters
d. 14.6 microliters
e. 1.46 microliters

14.6 microliters

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When proteins are separated with SDS-PAGE, the ______ subunits migrate the _______ from the ______ electrode to the ______ electrode on each side of the polyacrylamide gel.

a. most negatively charged, slowest, negative, positive
b. smallest, slowest, positive, negative
c. smallest, fastest, negative, positive
d. most negatively charged, slowest, positive, negative
e. most negatively charged, fastest, negative, positive

smallest, fastest, negative, positive

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What is the purpose of the reducing agent in the gel loading buffer?

Breaks disulfide linkages..

What is a conclusion that can be gained from the lab on beta-galactosidase? (Which of the following is completely true?) a. beta-galactosidase synthesis does not require lactose and is not time dependent. b. beta-galactosidase synthesis does not require glucose and is time dependent. c. beta-galactosidase synthesis requires lactose and is not time dependent. d. beta-galactosidase synthesis requires glucose and is time dependent. e. beta-galactosidase synthesis requires glucose and is not time dependent.

beta-galactosidase synthesis does not require glucose and is time dependent..

What does the Z gene on the Lac operon code for?

Beta Galactosidase

You are performing a biochemical assay of b-galactosidase activity. Test Tube A contains 4.0 ml of Luria Broth (LB). Test Tube B contains 3.6 ml of LB and 400 ul of 4% lactose. You pipette 400 ul of E. coli bacteria into each test tube, mix them, and incubate them for 20 minutes. After this incubation period, you retrieve two microcentrifuge tubes and the provided b-gal blank. You add 600 ul of Z buffer mix to each microcentrifuge tube and to your blank. You remove 200 ul from Test Tubes A and B and add it to their respective microcentrifuge tubes that contain the Z buffer mix. Later in the assay, you will measure the optical densities of these mixtures at 420nm after adding the appropriate substances (chloroform, ONPG, and Na2CO3) and closely following the procedures. Which volume would you use in your calculation of units of enzyme activity? a. 400 ul b. 1.0 ml c. 800 ul d. 600 ul e. 200 ul

200 ul

In the b-galactosidase assay lab, the readings of each sample at 420nm using the spectrophotometer measures the amount of a. RNA polymerase in sample. b. E. coli cells in sample. c. b-galactosidase in sample. d. o-nitrophenol in sample. e. glucose in sample.

o-nitrophenol in sample..

Which of the following is false? a. The D-loop region is a good choice because it is a control region and can thus accumulate more mutations without affecting function. b. A good primer will hybridize to highly conserved areas of this region. c. In PCR amplification, changes in temperature are used for DNA denaturation and hybridization to primers.* d. Mitochondrial DNA sequence can be used to probe our maternal lineage. e. In PCR, RNA polymerase is used to make copies of the region between the primers.

In PCR, RNA polymerase is used to make copies of the region between the primers..

Which of the following is true about PCR? a. PCR is simply an in vivo DNA synthesis reaction repeated many times. b. PCR is used to amplify the region we want to sequence. c. PCR stands for polypeptide chain reaction. d. PCR used double stranded DNAs, usually 20-35 bases long, called primers.

PCR is used to amplify the region we want to sequence

Which one of the following is a requirement for a good primer? a. Primers should be short (under 15 base pairs) b. Guanine and Cytosine should make up less than half of the total base pairs c. Melting temperatures of primer should be between 55-80 degree Celsius d. Contains many long runs with four or more of the same base in a row e. Primers should end in the 5' end

Melting temperatures of primer should be between 55-80 degree Celsius.

In the DNA Isolation and Amplification lab, when blasting, which of the following best tells us that the sequence is a good match? a. The program, Blast, does not tell us whether a sequence is a good match or not. b. Blast shows that the match has a high Score and a high E-value. c. Blast shows that the match has a high Score and a low E-value. d. Blast shows that the match has the same value for Score as for E-value. e. Blast shows that the match has a low Score and a low E-value.

Blast shows that the match has a high Score and a low E-value..

What does an agarose gel electrophoresis NOT confirm? a. Presence of DNA. b. Relative intensity of DNA. c. DNA size based on standard curve. d. Concentration of DNA. e. DNA composed of primer-dimer.

Concentration of DNA.

When the nucleic acid absorption ratio of 260nm/280nm is less than _____ than it indicates that your nucleic acid is ______? a. 1.8 and impure b. 2.8 and unstable c. 1.8 and pure d. 2.8 and stable e. 1.8 and stable

1.8 and impure

Why does DNA move through the agarose gel? a. the positively charged DNA moves towards the negative electrode b. the loading dye added to the DNA moves towards the positive electrode c. the negatively charged DNA moves towards the positive electrode d. SDS linearized the DNA creating a uniform negative charge causing the DNA to move towards the positive electrode e. the ethidium bromide has a positive charge that pulls the DNA towards the negative electrode

the negatively charged DNA moves towards the positive electrode.

Ethidium bromide is to DNA as a. restriction site is to plasmid. b. Taq polymerase is to DNA. c. ONPG is to lacZ gene. d. FITC is to polypeptide. e. primers to control regions.

FITC is to polypeptide..

What hypothesis is widely accepted as to the origin of humans in the world? a. All humans came from Mitochondria b. All humans came from a single female in Yeravan c. Two of these d. Human life always existed and it is not know exactly how e. All human life originated from African continent

All human life originated from African continent.

Which human evolutionary theory is supported by analysis of maternal inheritance through analyzing mitochondrial DNA? a. Early-ancestor Mesopotamian origin theory b. Multi-regional evolution theory c. Neanderthal multiregional evolution theory d. Hominian-Eve evolutionary theory e. Recent African origin theory

Recent African origin theory.

If you are asked to pipet 240ul of colored water, what pitetter would you use and what is the proper setting in each volumeter window? (top, middle, bottom)

p1000 (0,2,4)

The bacteria grown in Luria broth with only lactose were expected to:

Show marked B-galactosidase activity

SDS denatures protein by all of the following means EXCEPT:

Disrupting disulfide bonds

Which of the following does the reducing agent (e.g. B-mercaptoethanol) disrupt between subunits of proteins?

disulfide bonds

Dideoxynucleotides are essential for:

DNA sequencing

Forward primer: 5'-AGTCTACTCGTAACCGGTTACC-3' Reverse primer: 5'-TAAGGCATCATGGTAACCGGTT-3' The two primers above have the melting temperatures between 55?C-80?C. What is the reason that these two primers will not bind effectively to the region of DNA that we want to amplify?

The 3'-end of the reverse primer (3'-TTGGCCAATGG---5') is complementary to the forward primer (5'---AACCGGTTACC-3') and thus reduces the ability of the primers to bind to the targeted DNA sequence

A student has obtained an unknown tertiary protein. Which of the following can the student do to determine both the molecular weight of the native protein and the total number of subunits in the protein?

Perform gel filtration and run a SDS-PAGE after mixing the protein with b-mercaptoethanol

When compared to an adenine-thymine base pair, a cytosine-guanine base pair has a _____ melting temperature due to the ______ hydrogen bonds in the cytosine-guanine base pair which results in _______ binding of the primer to the DNA

higher, three, stronger

in BLAST which of the following signify the best sequence homology?

high score; low e-value

T/F: in regards to SDS-PAge and agarose gel, The fluorescent tag, FITC, is covalently bound to proteins to visualize them in agarose gel.

false

During the dissection of the rat in lab, which part of the brain was observed?

pons

If thin layer chromatography were performed twice on the same pigment but a different solvent were used for the second thin layer chromatography plate, what results would you expect?

The relative position of the bands will be different.

The Student's T-Test is used to:

determine the significance of the difference between two sample groups.

The importance of having three groups collaborate on the same variable during the Fish Metabolism lab is:

larger sample size so that the p-value was more accurate

Which of the following fresh whole organs appeared dark red in color?

liver and spleen

What is the correct measure of a RF value?

distance traveled in each pigment divided by total distance traveled

Both SDS-PAGE and DNA agarose gel migrate toward

the positive pole based on size

SDS-PAGE creates ______ resolution than agarose gel

higher

T/F: Brightness, as a result of SDS-PAGE, might not be even however, brightness, as a result of agarose gel, is an indication of DNA molecule size

true

SDS-PAGE and Agarose gel are used for

both proteins and DNA

Which of the following statements is not true regarding SDS-PAGE and agarose gel?

The fluorescent tag, FITC, is covalently bound to proteins to visualize them in agarose gel.

inherited only from the mother. Your specific mitochondrial sequence is called your haplotype gains variation through mutations

Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA)

clusters of haplotypes defined by significant sequence changes

haplogroups

- contains one origin of replication and two promoters | - accumulates a high number of mutations since it does not encode proteins

The mitochondrial control region (mtDNA)

prevents DNA degradation | - recruit Mg2+ that would otherwise serve as an essential cofactor of DNases

chelex solution

atria

receives blood

ventricles

pumps blood out of the heart; differ in thickness because the left side pumps blood to the entire body and the right side pumps blood to the lungs

If you have already run your untreated sample of PCR product through an agarose gel, what can you do to visualize the sample

Ethidium Bromide intercalates between DNA base pairs.

A standard curve is constructed using

fragments of known size and known migration distances.

What are the ingredients necessary for the Sanger Method of DNA sequencing?

dNTPs, DNA template, DNA polymerase, ddNTPs, primer

The most important factor for separation of proteins in SDS-PAGE is

mass

The rat uterus is divided into two complete uteri, each of which is referred to as a/an

horn

grow is an example of -- pathway

anabolic

What does a cross-section of the thymus look like and why

It has cells with lots of nuclei for its function in the immune system

In humans, the thoracic cavity is __________ to the abdominal cavity.

superior

Which of the following is a characteristic of SDS-PAGE but not Agarose?

Acrylamide in SDS-PAGE is a neurotoxin while agarose is not harmful at all

Does the mitochondrial DNA sequence amplified in the experiment code for functional proteins?

No. The sequence is located in the control region, which does not code for functional proteins

In DNA sequencing, how does the addition of dideoxynucleoside triphosphates (ddNTPs) terminate the synthesis of new DNA

The ddNTPs have a hydrogen instead of a hydroxyl group at the 3' end, which prevents the addition of nucleotides.

In the Analysis of Protein Size and Subunit Composition lab, which of the following techniques was/were used to determine the size and number of individual subunits in a protein?

SDS-PAGE

SDS-Page alone breaks __________ bonds; B-mercaptoethanol, a reducing agent, breaks _________

noncovalent, disulfide

In the absence of lactose, the lac repressor can bind to the _________ and can prevent the transcription of the _________

Operator; Lac Z, Y, & A

The t-test takes into account

the difference between the means and standard error of the two samples

the storage organ for ingested food, bacterial fermentation of cellulose, and absorbs water and minerals

cecum

essential to maintaining balance and are located at the anterior end of the rat to aid forward movement

rat vibrissae

Which of the following choices is INCORRECT regarding the blood circulation pathway? a. the right ventricle pumps blood through the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary artery b. the left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood out to the body via the aorta c. oxygenated blood returns to the left atria via the pulmonary vein d. deoxygenated blood moves from the right atria into the left ventricle e. deoxygenated blood enters the right atria via the vena cava

d. deoxygenated blood moves from the right atria into the left ventricle

What does blood look like under 4x magnification with a compound light microscope

individual cells with no nuclei

Polypeptides with greater mass migrate more slowly through the gel matrix in SDS-PAGE because

they have the same charge: mass ratio as smaller polypeptides, and consequently, their migration is hindered only by their larger size

What is the importance of constructing a phylogenetic tree of human mitochondrial DNA

It shows the evolutionary history of female mitochondrial DNA from its origin in Africa

Which of the following is a characteristic that the gel used in SDS-PAGE, polyacrylamide, and agarose DO NOT have in common

It can be used to resolve things with small mass differences.

During PCR, the sequencing primer is

not needed for the PCR process to proceed

In the DNA isolation and Amplification lab, if a student wants to conduct PCR for a region of DNA known to have 90% GC content at the site of Primer hybridization, what experimental settings should she set and what materials must she add in order to have optimal results?

High annealing temperature; Reverse and Forward Primers, Thermophillus Aquaticus (Taq) DNA Polymerase and dNTPs.

Which of the following were displayed as an electropherogram

DNA sequence in four color data from an automatic sequencer

Which of the following is FALSE regarding Electrophoresis? a. When the unknown DNA is compared with markers of known molecular weights and quantity, the relative intensity of unknown DNA to the marker DNA can be estimated. b. Gel Electrophoresis can determine whether the amplified DNA is the correct size or composed primarily of primer-dimer. c. In an agarose gel, EtBr intercalates between DNA base pairs and fluoresces under UV light. d. Electrophoresis confirms the presence of purified DNA visually and confirms the DNA purity. e. The polyacrylamide gel is used in the DNA analysis lab.

e. The polyacrylamide gel is used in the DNA analysis lab.

structure in the male reproductive system in which sperm are fully matured and are stored

epididymus

the only organs in the abdominal cavity that are not suspended in mesentery

kidney

tube on the male rat that carries sperm and waste to the penis is the

vas deferens

The female reproductive system in the dissected rats consists of

small ovaries, located near the kidneys, connected to the rather large and long ovarian tubes

You obtain a nucleotide sequence and run BLAST to identify the origin of the sequence. One of the hits has a Score of 764 and an E-value of e-97. Which of the following is true about the hit compared to your sequence?

There is an e-97 chance that a match between the two sequences is random.

What kind of overview does Electrophoresis give of the DNA purity

Qualitative

A high 260nm/280nm spectrophotometer absorption ratio indicates

Good nucleic acid purity

We needed to determine the concentration of the DNA sample which we were analyzing. By what method were we able to measure this DNA concentration

Spectrophotometry

Which statement is TRUE about SDS-PAGE gel electrophoresis?

Smaller isolated protein subunits travel through the gel faster than the larger subunits

RNA polymerase

is highly conserved, has a fairly slow mutationr ate, and all organisms have it

What is the limitation of using spectrophotometry alone to check the DNA quality at the end of the plasmid purification procedure if you skip running a gel?

It does not tell you if the DNA is degraded into smaller fragments

Following statements describe PCR (Polymerize Chain Reaction). Choose one that is true.

In the case of PCR, the synthesis of new DNA strands is not the same as DNA sequencing reaction where the new strands are terminated prematurely

When working with the BLAST program results, what does the E (Expect) Value of a hit represent?

the number of hits one can expect to see by chance when comparing a sample to a database of a particular size

Spectrophotometry relies on the fact that

electrons in chemical bonds can be excited

What color is the pancreas of the Rat

pink

Muscle tissue

multinucleate and purple

The four-lobed organ found in the thoracic cavity is most likely the

right lung

order of the rat digestive system is as follows

esophogus-stomach-small intestine-caecum

Is Taq polymerase used in Sanger sequencing

What is the purpose of Sodium Dodecyl Sulfate when used in the SDS-PAGE technique

Disrupt the non-covalent interactions between subunits of proteins; is an anionic detergent; breaks down dipole-dipole bonds

In one step of PCR the temperature is lowered to about 50-60 C, what is the point of this?

allows annealing of primers

Which of the following is the correct order of organs in the digestive track from the anterior to the posterior of the rate's body?

stomach, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, caecum, colon

Pulmonary veins enter the

left atrium

In the rat dissection lab, the initial incision to reveal the digestive system is made in the _____ portion of the specimen.

ventral

Tracheal Tissue

Tracheal Tissue ciliated epithelium borders, open spaces

The olfactory lobe is _______ to the pineal gland of the brain

T/F: The E value indicates the similarity between your sequence and the sequences in the database, the higher the E value the better the match

false

The following description is for PCR. Choose one that is not correct. a. The Taq polymerase is used because it is resistant to denaturation. b. PCR is used to make more copies of DNA for sequencing. c. For the first step of PCR, DNA parental strands are denatured at 94?C. d. PCR is an in vivo DNA synthesis reaction. e. PCR is Polymerase Chain Reaction 

(d.) PCR is an in vivo DNA synthesis reaction.

Which of the following lies most dorsal in the abdominal cavity?

kidney

The first step in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is

Denaturation of double stranded DNA.

When considering spectrophotometry methods to measure DNA concentration, we know that nucleic acid absorbs light mostly at ________ wavelength, while protein does so at _______ wavelength. We want this ratio to be above ____, which indicates good nucleuc acid purity.

260 nm, 280 nm, 1.8

When observing the rat's brain, what two parts of the brain are visible without cutting it open?

pons and medulla oblongata which are located at the posterior region of the brain

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