Final Flashcards
The falsificationist procedure is simple method to increase the power of conclusions deduced using the hypothetico-deductive approach. A student in LS 2 walks along the UCLA campus and forms a hypothesis that all squirrels are grey in every part of world. If she applied the falsificationist procedure to her hypothesis, her next step would be
a. Derive a null hypothesis (H0) which states that all squirrels are black regardless of the temperature and location of their habitat and then use inferential statistics to reject her null.
b. Conclude that the UCLA campus possesses only grey squirrels and thus, her hypothesis is proven true and then make an interpretation of the data from the sample of the squirrel population.
c. Derive another hypothesis (H1) of her observations of grey squirrels to determine using quantitative methods if it is statistically beneficial to retain her first hypothesis.
d. Subsequently derive a null hypothesis (H0) which states that all squirrels in the world are not grey and then formulate an experiment so as to retain or reject her null hypothesis.
Subsequently derive a null hypothesis (H0) which states that all squirrels in the world are not grey and then formulate an experiment so as to retain or reject her null hypothesis.
A researcher postulated: that tomato plants exhibit a higher rate of growth when planted in compost than in soil. Based on this hypothesis, which of the following statements would be the best null hypothesis?
a. There is no difference in growth rates.
b. Tomato plants that are planted in compost rather than in soil will grow to an average height of six feet.
c. Tomato plants exhibit a lower rate of growth when planted in compost than in soil.
d. Tomato plants show no difference in growth rate when planted in compost rather than in soil.
e. A null hypothesis cannot be obtained from the hypothesis provided.
d. Tomato plants show no difference in growth rate when planted in compost rather than in soil.
Suppose in the Statistics lab, a p-value of 0.01 was obtained after tallying the weights of babies in the experimental and control group, what can we conclude?
a. The p value of 0.01 indicates that one percent of the time, our mean in the experimental group will differ from our mean in the control group.
b. The p value of 0.01 tells us that we fail to reject the null hypothesis and conclude that the two groups are not significantly different. Incorrect
c. The p value of 0.01 leads us to conlude that the two samples (experimental and control) are not from the same population.
d. The p value of 0.01 is the value of our error. This small value means that we conducted the experiment.
The p value of 0.01 leads us to conlude that the two samples (experimental and control) are not from the same population
In statistics, how does the p-value relate to the observed difference when comparing sample groups?
a. The p-value is the probability that the observed difference is accurate.
b. The p-value is the probability that the observed difference is less than 5%.
c. The p-value is the probability that the observed difference is due to chance.
d. The p-value is the probability that the observed difference can be replicated. Incorrect
e. The p-value is held constant at 0.05 when comparing observed differences between groups.
The p-value is the probability that the observed difference is due to chance..
The spectrophotometer used during the photosynthesis lab gave:
a. accurate information of the rate of photosynthesis in a sample
b. clear reading of the presence of pigments in a sample by their absorption
c. accurate reading of the sun
d. amount of photons in a sample
clear reading of the presence of pigments in a sample by their absorption
Which of the following colors has the shortest wavelength?
a. green
b. red
c. orange
d. yellow
e. blue
blue
Assuming you have a polar stationary phase and a nonpolar mobile phase, a compound with which of the following sets of characteristics will have the largest Rf value?
a. polar, not easily dissolved in the solvent, small size
b. polar, easily dissolved in the solvent, large size
c. nonpolar, easily dissolved in the solvent, small size
d. nonpolar, not easily dissolved in the solvent, large size
e. nonpolar, easily dissolved in the solvent, large size
nonpolar, easily dissolved in the solvent, small size.
Which of these is true about Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC)?
a. TLC has two phases: a polar mobile phase, and a non-polar stationary phase.
b. You can see the pigment composition of a photosynthetic organism by spectrophotometry, but not TLC.
c. A molecule with an Rf value of 0.86 is more polar than another molecule with an Rf value of 0.34
d. A molecule with an Rf value of 0.98 travels a further distance towards the solvent front on the TLC plate than another molecule with an Rf value of 0.50
e. It is ideal to use a polar solvent mixture when using TLC.
A molecule with an Rf value of 0.98 travels a further distance towards the solvent front on the TLC plate than another molecule with an Rf value of 0.50.
A good experimental group should have _______ variable(s) introduced when compared to the control group.
a. a maximum of 2.
b. 1
c. 3
d. 2
e. 0
1
In the fish lab, which of the following is true?
a. Regardless of which variable was chosen to be tested, the amount of dissolved oxygen should decrease as the fish consume it.
b. The amount of dissolved oxygen should increase after the goldfish have been added.
c. The amount of dissolved carbon dioxide should decrease as the fish consume it.
d. The amount of dissolved oxygen should increase because atmospheric oxygen will the water spontaneously.
Regardless of which variable was chosen to be tested, the amount of dissolved oxygen should decrease as the fish consume it..
Which of the following statements about ATP is FALSE?
a. Formed only under aerobic conditions
b. Is generated in cells mainly by chemiosmosis
c. Can be formed by substrate level phosphorylation
d. Following hydrolysis to ADP, further hydrolysis of ADP to AMP is an exergonic reaction.
e. Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP is an exergonic reaction
Formed only under aerobic conditions.
When a poikilotherm like a lizard sits on a rock in the sun, its metabolism:
a. goes down because the animal will lose heat to the rock
b. goes up because there is more O2 on top of the rock than under the rock.
c. goes down because UV rays will break down macromolecules.
d. goes up because the sun will heat the animal.
e. goes down because the animal is no longer moving.
goes up because the sun will heat the animal..
Which of the following organs is responsible for the detoxification of blood?
liver
What structure separates the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity?
diaphragm
In the rat dissection lab, we saw that the ______ is ________ and the ________ is _________ if one is looking at the ventral side of the rat
a. Colon ; posterior, rectum ; anterior
b. Colon ; anterior, rectum ; posterior
c. Rectum ; dorsal, colon ; ventral
d. Colon ; anterior , rectum ; dorsal
e. Rectum ; ventral, colon ; posterior
Colon ; anterior, rectum ; posterior.
What terms are used to indicate the back and belly side of the rat?
dorsal and ventral
All are true of a compound light microscope except which of the following:
a. It requires a thin specimen.
b. It produces a mirror image.
c. It contains two lenses.
d. It has discrete increments of magnification.
e. It focuses on light that reflects off the surface of the specimen.
It focuses on light that reflects off the surface of the specimen.
A distinguishing feature lung tissue is that there are alveoli that are lined with _______ cells. The _______ tissue, unlike that of the lungs, contains cells compacted together to allow for the function of white blood cell differentiation.
a. epithelial, lymph node
b. epithelial, thymus
c. endothelial, lymph node
d. epithelial, thymus
e. endothelial, thymus
epithelial, thymus
In the histology lab, various tissues were seen using the microscope. The trachea can be distinguished from the others by seeing _______________, while the skeletal muscle can be distinguished by seeing _________.
a. cilia, nuclei
b. striations, nuclei
c. cilia, striations
d. axons, striations
e. nuclei, striations
cilia, striations
How do you release the excess solution that remains at the pipette tip after expelling?
a. Adjust the volume adjustment ring to a volume less than currently displayed
b. Adjust the volume adjustment ring to a volume more than currently displayed
c. Press the push button down to the second stop to complete expulsion
d. Release the push button from the 1st stop and press it down to the 1st stop once more
e. Tap the tip to the wall of the container
Press the push button down to the second stop to complete expulsion.
Which pipettes can be used to obtain 13 microliters and what would be the pipette windows read from top to bottom?
a. p200 – 013
b. p1000 – 130
c. p200 –130
d. p20 – 013
e. p20 – 130
The correct answer is: p20 – 130
What is the purpose of having to press the pushbutton of a pipetter to the second stop?
a. to make sure the solution is mixed well
b. to assure a larger absorbance reading
c. to expel any remaining liquid
d. to aspirate any remaining liquid
e. to eject the pipette tip
to expel any remaining liquid.
What do the numbers 1, 4, 6 in succession going down the volume indicator convert to if using the P20?
a. 146 microliters
b. 14.6 mililiters
c. 0.146 mililiters
d. 14.6 microliters
e. 1.46 microliters
14.6 microliters
When proteins are separated with SDS-PAGE, the ______ subunits migrate the _______ from the ______ electrode to the ______ electrode on each side of the polyacrylamide gel.
a. most negatively charged, slowest, negative, positive
b. smallest, slowest, positive, negative
c. smallest, fastest, negative, positive
d. most negatively charged, slowest, positive, negative
e. most negatively charged, fastest, negative, positive
smallest, fastest, negative, positive
What is the purpose of the reducing agent in the gel loading buffer?
Breaks disulfide linkages..
What is a conclusion that can be gained from the lab on beta-galactosidase? (Which of the following is completely true?)
a. beta-galactosidase synthesis does not require lactose and is not time dependent.
b. beta-galactosidase synthesis does not require glucose and is time dependent.
c. beta-galactosidase synthesis requires lactose and is not time dependent.
d. beta-galactosidase synthesis requires glucose and is time dependent.
e. beta-galactosidase synthesis requires glucose and is not time dependent.
beta-galactosidase synthesis does not require glucose and is time dependent..
What does the Z gene on the Lac operon code for?
Beta Galactosidase
You are performing a biochemical assay of b-galactosidase activity. Test Tube A contains 4.0 ml of Luria Broth (LB). Test Tube B contains 3.6 ml of LB and 400 ul of 4% lactose. You pipette 400 ul of E. coli bacteria into each test tube, mix them, and incubate them for 20 minutes. After this incubation period, you retrieve two microcentrifuge tubes and the provided b-gal blank. You add 600 ul of Z buffer mix to each microcentrifuge tube and to your blank. You remove 200 ul from Test Tubes A and B and add it to their respective microcentrifuge tubes that contain the Z buffer mix. Later in the assay, you will measure the optical densities of these mixtures at 420nm after adding the appropriate substances (chloroform, ONPG, and Na2CO3) and closely following the procedures. Which volume would you use in your calculation of units of enzyme activity?
a. 400 ul
b. 1.0 ml
c. 800 ul
d. 600 ul
e. 200 ul
200 ul
In the b-galactosidase assay lab, the readings of each sample at 420nm using the spectrophotometer measures the amount of
a. RNA polymerase in sample.
b. E. coli cells in sample.
c. b-galactosidase in sample.
d. o-nitrophenol in sample.
e. glucose in sample.
o-nitrophenol in sample..
Which of the following is false?
a. The D-loop region is a good choice because it is a control region and can thus accumulate more mutations without affecting function.
b. A good primer will hybridize to highly conserved areas of this region.
c. In PCR amplification, changes in temperature are used for DNA denaturation and hybridization to primers.*
d. Mitochondrial DNA sequence can be used to probe our maternal lineage.
e. In PCR, RNA polymerase is used to make copies of the region between the primers.
In PCR, RNA polymerase is used to make copies of the region between the primers..
Which of the following is true about PCR?
a. PCR is simply an in vivo DNA synthesis reaction repeated many times.
b. PCR is used to amplify the region we want to sequence.
c. PCR stands for polypeptide chain reaction.
d. PCR used double stranded DNAs, usually 20-35 bases long, called primers.
PCR is used to amplify the region we want to sequence
Which one of the following is a requirement for a good primer?
a. Primers should be short (under 15 base pairs)
b. Guanine and Cytosine should make up less than half of the total base pairs
c. Melting temperatures of primer should be between 55-80 degree Celsius
d. Contains many long runs with four or more of the same base in a row
e. Primers should end in the 5’ end
Melting temperatures of primer should be between 55-80 degree Celsius.
In the DNA Isolation and Amplification lab, when blasting, which of the following best tells us that the sequence is a good match?
a. The program, Blast, does not tell us whether a sequence is a good match or not.
b. Blast shows that the match has a high Score and a high E-value.
c. Blast shows that the match has a high Score and a low E-value.
d. Blast shows that the match has the same value for Score as for E-value.
e. Blast shows that the match has a low Score and a low E-value.
Blast shows that the match has a high Score and a low E-value..
What does an agarose gel electrophoresis NOT confirm?
a. Presence of DNA.
b. Relative intensity of DNA.
c. DNA size based on standard curve.
d. Concentration of DNA.
e. DNA composed of primer-dimer.
Concentration of DNA.
When the nucleic acid absorption ratio of 260nm/280nm is less than _____ than it indicates that your nucleic acid is ______?
a. 1.8 and impure
b. 2.8 and unstable
c. 1.8 and pure
d. 2.8 and stable
e. 1.8 and stable
1.8 and impure
Why does DNA move through the agarose gel?
a. the positively charged DNA moves towards the negative electrode
b. the loading dye added to the DNA moves towards the positive electrode
c. the negatively charged DNA moves towards the positive electrode
d. SDS linearized the DNA creating a uniform negative charge causing the DNA to move towards the positive electrode
e. the ethidium bromide has a positive charge that pulls the DNA towards the negative electrode
the negatively charged DNA moves towards the positive electrode.
Ethidium bromide is to DNA as
a. restriction site is to plasmid.
b. Taq polymerase is to DNA.
c. ONPG is to lacZ gene.
d. FITC is to polypeptide.
e. primers to control regions.
FITC is to polypeptide..
What hypothesis is widely accepted as to the origin of humans in the world?
a. All humans came from Mitochondria
b. All humans came from a single female in Yeravan
c. Two of these
d. Human life always existed and it is not know exactly how
e. All human life originated from African continent
All human life originated from African continent.
Which human evolutionary theory is supported by analysis of maternal inheritance through analyzing mitochondrial DNA?
a. Early-ancestor Mesopotamian origin theory
b. Multi-regional evolution theory
c. Neanderthal multiregional evolution theory
d. Hominian-Eve evolutionary theory
e. Recent African origin theory
Recent African origin theory.
If you are asked to pipet 240ul of colored water, what pitetter would you use and what is the proper setting in each volumeter window? (top, middle, bottom)
p1000 (0,2,4)
The bacteria grown in Luria broth with only lactose were expected to:
Show marked B-galactosidase activity
SDS denatures protein by all of the following means EXCEPT:
Disrupting disulfide bonds
Which of the following does the reducing agent (e.g. B-mercaptoethanol) disrupt between subunits of proteins?
disulfide bonds
Dideoxynucleotides are essential for:
DNA sequencing
Forward primer: 5’-AGTCTACTCGTAACCGGTTACC-3’
Reverse primer: 5’-TAAGGCATCATGGTAACCGGTT-3’
The two primers above have the melting temperatures between 55?C-80?C. What is the reason that these two primers will not bind effectively to the region of DNA that we want to amplify?
The 3’-end of the reverse primer (3’-TTGGCCAATGG—5’) is complementary to the forward primer (5’—AACCGGTTACC-3’) and thus reduces the ability of the primers to bind to the targeted DNA sequence
A student has obtained an unknown tertiary protein. Which of the following can the student do to determine both the molecular weight of the native protein and the total number of subunits in the protein?
Perform gel filtration and run a SDS-PAGE after mixing the protein with b-mercaptoethanol
When compared to an adenine-thymine base pair, a cytosine-guanine base pair has a _____ melting temperature due to the ______ hydrogen bonds in the cytosine-guanine base pair which results in _______ binding of the primer to the DNA
higher, three, stronger
in BLAST which of the following signify the best sequence homology?
high score; low e-value
T/F: in regards to SDS-PAge and agarose gel, The fluorescent tag, FITC, is covalently bound to proteins to visualize them in agarose gel.
false
