op pol 2 Flashcards

1
Q

1.What is the maximum number of members in Lok Sabha? (A) 512 (B) 542 (C) 552 (D) 532

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp:As per provisions under Article-81, Lok Sabha can have maximum of 552 members. Out of 552, 530 shall be elected from constituencies of States and 20 shall represent constituencies of Union Territories. Remaining 2 members can be nominated by President of India from Anglo-Indian community. Presently, there is strength of 545 in Lok Sabha. Out of which, 530 are from States, 13 from Union Territories and 2 belonging to Anglo - Indian community.

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2
Q

2.In Lok Sabha the total number of members from States are (A) 630 (B) 530 (C) 430 (D) 330

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Same as above

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3
Q

3.The maximum number of elected members of Lok Sabha can be- (A) 530 (B) 545 (C) 540 (D) 550

A

(D) (SSC CPO Exam 2007) Exp: There can be maximum of 550 members elected in the Lok Sabha. Out of these, 530 members are to be elected representatives of constituencies from States and 20 are to be elected from Union Territories.

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4
Q

4.How many members of Ang lo-Indian commun ity can be nominated for the Parliament by the President- (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) Depends on President’s will

A

(A) (SSC Stenographer grade D Exam 2005) Exp: As per provisions of Article-331, President of India can nominate maximum 2 members from Anglo-Indian Community in the Lok Sabha, if he/she is of the opinion that they are not adequately represented in the house.

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5
Q

5.How many seats are reserved for representatives of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha? (A) 39 (B) 85 (C) 109 (D) 131

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Provisions under Article-330 provides for reservation of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in House of People i.e Lok Sabha. At present, in Lok Sabha seats reserved for Scheduled Castes is 84 while for Scheduled Tribes it is 47. There is no provision of reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Rajya Sabha.

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6
Q

6.The initial tenure of member of Lok Sabha was 5 years, it was changed by 42nd amendment to- (A) 9 years (B) 7 years (C) 6 years (D) 8 years

A

(C) (SSC Stenographer grade C & D Exam 2014) Exp: Original constitution, under Article-83 envisaged normal tenure of Lok Sabha to be 5 years. But, it was extended to 6 years by 42nd amendment act. 44th amendment act again fixed the original normal tenure of five years.

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7
Q

7.The tenure of the members of Lok Sabha is for how many years? (A) 11 (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 5

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Same as above

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8
Q

8.How many times, the tenure of Lok Sabha was increased for 6 years-(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) Never

A

(A) (SSC CPO Exam 2010) Exp: Same as above

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9
Q

9.Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct control of (A) Ministry of Home Affairs (B) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha (D) President

A

(C) (6 Sep. 2016 (Evening)) Exp: Speaker of Lok Sabha discharges dual responsibility. He/she presides over the proceedings of the house and also supervises the functioning of Lok Sabha Secretariat. Lok Sabha Secretariat is the nodal office which helps in proper functioning of Lok Sabha.

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10
Q

10.Who was the first Speaker of Lok Sabha? (A) G. V. Mavalankar (B) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan (C) M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar (D) Dr. P.V. Cherian

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: G.V. Mavalankar was elected as first Speaker of Lok Sabha. He served as Speaker of Lok Sabha from 1952 to 1956. Whereas M.A. Ayyangar served as second Speaker of Lok Sabha from 1956 to 1962.

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11
Q

11.Which of the following is the first woman speaker of Lok Sabha- (A) Meera Kumar (B) Sonia Gandhi (C) Sushma Swaraj (D) Margret Alva

A

(A) (SSC Stenographer grade c and d Exam 2014) Exp: Meera Kumar was the first woman Speaker of Lok Sabha. She served as Speaker of Lok Sabha from 2009 to 2014. Currently, Sumitra Mahajan (second woman Speaker of Lok Sabha) is the Speaker of Lok Sabha.

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12
Q

12.Speaker of the Lok Sabha serves for a maximum term of _______ years. (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Newly constituted Lok Sabha, from among its members, elects a person as Speaker to preside over the proceedings of the house. A person can serve as Speaker of Lok Sabha till the time he/she is a member of the house, which can be maximum of 5 years.

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13
Q

13.If the Speaker of Lok Sabha wants to resign, whom does he resign- (A) President of India (B) Deputy Speaker (C) Prime Minister (D) Council of Ministers

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2010, SSC Matric Level 2001,02) Exp: As per provisions under Article-94(b), Speaker of Lok Sabha may at any time, by writing a letter addressing to Deputy Speaker, can resign from his/her office. Similarly, Deputy Speaker can also resign by writing a letter addressing to the Speaker of Lok Sabha.

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14
Q

14.The ‘Speaker’s vote’ in the Lok Sabha is called- (A) Casting vote (B) Sound vote (C) Direct vote (D) Indirect vote

A

“(A) (SSC Section Offiece 2008) Exp: The Chairman or Speaker or person acting as such, cannot vote in the Parliament in the first instance. But in case of equality of votes on each side, he/she can vote to resolve the deadlock. This extra vote is called ““Casting vote”” or ““Speaker’s vote””. It can only be exercised when such a deadlock exists.”

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15
Q

15.Who decides the salary and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?(A) President (B) Pay Commission (C) Cabinet (D) Parliament

A

(D) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2006) Exp: Article-97 of the Indian Constitution authorizes the Parliament to fix the salary and allowances payable to the Speaker of Lok Sabha and also to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha. Second Schedule of Constitution contains the provisions relating to salaries and allowances of certain office bearers including Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha.

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16
Q

16.Who was the first Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha? (A) G. V. Mavalankar (B) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan (C) M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar (D) Dr P V Cherian

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Newly elected Lok Sabha elects a Deputy Speaker from among its members to preside over the proceedings of the house in the absence of Speaker. M.A. Ayyangar was the first Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha. He served as Deputy Speaker from 1952 to 1956. Later on, he became the Speaker of Lok Sabha in 1956.

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17
Q

17.Who among the following presides over the Lok Sabha in the absence of Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha? (A) A member appointed by the President. (B) A member nominated by the members of the Parliament present in the House. (C) A person from the panel formed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (D) A senior most member of the House.

A

(C) (SSC Section Officer 2000) Exp: If the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, both are absent from a sitting, one of the members of the house out of a panel of six Chairpersons, whom Speaker nominates from time to time, presides.

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18
Q

18.The function of Protem Speaker is to (A) Conduct the Proceedings of the House in the absence of the Speaker (B) Officiate as Speaker when a Speaker is unlikely to be elected (C) Swearing in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected (D) Check if the election certificates of members are in order

A

(C) (SSC Section Officer 2003) Exp: As soon as the new Lok Sabha is constituted, the President of India from among the newly elected members, appoints the seniormost (seniority in terms of membership of Parliament) member as the Protem Speaker. His functions include administering oath to the Lok Sabha members and presiding over the election of a new Speaker. With the election of Speaker, Protem Speaker ceases to be the presiding officer.

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19
Q

19.First Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha was _____. (A) B. R. Ambedkar (B) A. K. Gopalan (C) S. Radhakrishnan (D) Vallabhbhai Patel

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Leader of opposition is a post in Parliament which is awarded to the leader of the single largest political party in opposition that has got at least 10% seats. It is not awarded to leader of alliance or coalition. A.K. Gopalan was first leader of opposition in Lok Sabha. He/ she enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister.

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20
Q

20.The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha is the Chief of its Secretariat and is: (A) Elected by the Lok Sabha (B) Elected by both Houses of Parliament (C) Appointed by the Speaker (D) Appointed by the President

A

(C) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2005) Exp: Secretary General of Lok Sabha is the administrative head of Lok Sabha Secretariat. He/she is appointed by Speaker of Lok Sabha and functions under overall directions of the Speaker.

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21
Q

21.In which language, Lok Sabha debates are printed? (A) Hindi (B) English (C) Sanskrit (D) Both Hindi & English

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Three versions of Lok Sabha debates are prepared that are Hindi, English and the original version. But only Hindi and English versions are printed. Original version is kept in Parliament Library for record and reference.

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22
Q

22.Which of the following is not correct- (A) Person should have completed age of 30 years to elect as a member of Rajya Sabha (B) Person should have completed age of 25 years to elect as a member of Lok Sabha (C) Person should have completed age of 21 years to elect as member of Legislative Council. (D) Person eligible to vote in panchayat election should have completed age of 18 years

A

(C) (SSC Combined Higher Sec. Level 2011) Exp: Minimum age required to get elected as a member of Legislative Council is 30 years whereas for Legislative Assembly it is 25 years.

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23
Q

23.Which article of the Constitution deals with money bills: (A) Article-130 (B) Article-110 (C) Article-120 (D) Article-100

A

Ans (B) (SSC CAPFs (CPO) SI & ASI DP 2016) Exp: Money bill has been defined under Article-110 of constitution. According to this article, a money bill is a bill which deals with all or any of the subject related to taxation, borrowing of money by government, financial obligation of government or any financial transaction from consolidated fund of India and contingency fund of India.

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24
Q

24.Who approves a bill as money bill in Lok Sabha- (A) President (B) Finance Minister (C) Prime Minister (D) Speaker

A

(D) (SSC Matric Level 2001, SSC CGL 2006,08) Exp: According to the provisions under Article-110(3), Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to approve a bill as money bill. And if there arises any question over the validity of a money bill, the decision of the Speaker of Lok Sabha is final and it cannot be questioned even in the court of law.

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25
Q

25.Which bill cannot originate in Rajya Sabha? (A) Constitutional Amendment Bill (B) Ordinary Bill (C) Fundamental Bill (D) Money Bill

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: As mentioned under Article-109(1), a money bill can not be introduced in Rajya Sabha. It can only be introduced in Lok Sabha with prior recommendation of President.

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26
Q

26.A money bill passed by the Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by the Rajya Sabha also, when no action is taken by the Upper House within: (A) 10 days (B) 14 days (C) 20 days (D) 30 days

A

(B) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2000) Exp: Rajya Sabha has very limited powers with respect to money bills. After being passed by the Lok Sabha, the money bill moves to the Rajya Sabha which has four options:- (a) Pass the bill (b) Reject the bill (c) Take no action for 14 days (d) Send the bill with amendments to Lok Sabha. In case of rejection of bill or inaction for 14 days, the bill shall be deemed to have been passed by Rajya Sabha. And in case of amendments suggested, Lok Sabha has the sole authority to accept or reject it.

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27
Q

27.How many times, a Non-money bill is discussed in every house of the parliament- (A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) One

A

(B) (SSC CPO Exam 2007) Exp: Each house has laid down a procedure for the passage of a non-money bill. According to the procedure, a bill has to pass through three stages commonly known as Readings. In the first Reading the bill is introduced and in second Reading bill is discussed clause by clause. In the third Reading general discussion takes place and if required, the bill is put to vote.

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28
Q

28.By which bill, Government presents a proposal for annual revenue collection? (A) Money bill (B) Finance bill (C) Ordinance (D) None of these

A

(B) (SSC Section Officer Exam 2007) Exp: Finance bill includes taxation proposals for annual revenue collection. It is introduced in Lok Sabha every year with the general Budget. The passing of finance bill legalizes the income side of budget.

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29
Q

29.A Member of Parliament will be suspended from his membership, if he absents the house continuously for- (A) 45 days (B) 60 days (C) 90 days (D) 365 days

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2011) Exp: As per provisions under Article-101(4), if a member of either house of Parliament without permission of the house, remains absent from all meetings for a period of sixty days, he/she can be suspended from the house or house may declare his seat vacant.

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30
Q

30.The persons, who can speak in Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha being a member of Rajya Sabha, are- (A) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha (B) Leader of Rajya Sabha (C) Nominated members of Rajya Sabha (D) The Ministers who are members in Rajya Sabha

A

(D) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2006) Exp: Under the provisions of Article-88, every Minister of Union and Attorney General of India have the right to speak in both the houses of Parliament. In terms of voting rights in Parliament, a Minister can vote only in the house where he/she is a member and Attorney General does not has the right to vote in either house.

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31
Q

31.What is the quorum to transact the business of Lok Sabha- (A) 1/6 (B) 1/8 (C) 1/10 (D) 1/5

A

(C) (SSC Data Entry Operator Exam 2009) Exp: Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the house to carry on the proceedings of the house. According to provisions under Article-100(3), quorum to constitute a meeting of either house of Parliament shall be one-tenth of the total membership of the house. It means, it is 55 in Lok Sabha and 25 in case of Rajya Sabha.

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32
Q

32.Parliament conducts__ sessions each year. (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Parliament of India conducts 3 sessions each year. Every year, it starts with Budget session (February to May) which is followed by Monsoon session (July to September). And at the end of the year, winter session is conducted in the months of November and December. Constitution does make it mandatory to conduct sessions at gap of not more than 6 months.

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33
Q

33.What is the maximum gap period between two sessions of Parliament- (A) 4 months (B) 6 months (C) 8 months (D) 9 months

A

(B) (SSC CGL Exam 2000,2004) Exp: Time gap between two sessions of Parliament is called recess. There can be recess of maximum of 6 months. In this way, it is necessary to conduct minimum two sessions in a year.

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34
Q

“34.What is the meaning of ““Prorogation”” in terms of Parliament- (A) End of session of Parliament (B) Prevention of discussion on any proposal (C) End of daily working of house (D) None of these”

A

(A) (SSC CGL Exam 2012) Exp: A session of Parliament is the time period when the houses meet every day to transact the business till it is prorogued. Prorogation of a session is done by President on the advice of Council of Ministers. It brings a session of the house to an end.

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35
Q

35.Who presides the joint sitting of Parliament- (A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (B) Senior most member of Parliament (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha (D) President of India

A

(C) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2002) Exp: In case of a deadlock between the two houses during the passage of certain categories of bills, there is a provision of joint sitting under Article-108 to resolve the deadlock. It can be summoned by the President and it is presided over by the Speaker of Lok Sabha.

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36
Q

36.Which of the following statements is correct about the President of India? (A) Addresses first session of Parliament after each General Election. (B) Addresses first session of Parliament at the beginning of each year (C) Addresses every session of Parliament (D) Never addresses Parliament

A

(*) (29 Aug. 2016 (Morning) Exp :Normally President of India addresses the Parliament on two occassions. Every year Budget session of Parliament which is the first session of the year, starts with the joint sitting that is addressed by President. And the first sitting of newly constituted Lok Sabha after General Election is in the form of joint sitting and is addressed by President.

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37
Q

37.What is the total number of members for the main opposition party in parliament- (A) 1/3 of total members (B) 1/4 of total members (C) 1/6 of total members (D) 1/10 of total members

A

(D) (SSC CGL Exam 2005) Exp: In order to get the recognition as main opposition party in Parliament, the concerned party must have at least 10% or one-tenth of total strength of the house (55 seats in Lok Sabha). Recognition of main opposition party can only be given to a single political party and not to the coalition or alliance. At present, there is no recognised opposition party in Lok Sabha, since no party qualifies the 10% criteria.

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38
Q

38.Indian Parliament is capable of making any law for any state, if- (A) Emergency is enforced under Article 352 (B) Two or more states request for that (C) President sends a message to the Parliament (D) A and B both

A

(D) (SSC Section Officer Exam 2007) Exp: There are certain circumstances when Parliament can make laws in state list for any state. These are- (1) Under Article-249, if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to such effect in supreme national interest. (2) Under Article-250, during the proclamation of National Emergency as per Article-352. (3) Under Article-252, if two or more states request the union to make a common law. (4) Under Article-253, to fulfill international agreements or treaty signed by Union. (5) During State Emergency or President’s rule under Article-356.

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39
Q

39.Which Article gives the power to the Parliament to make law on subjects of state list- (A) 115 (B) 183 (C) 221 (D) 249

A

(D) (SSC Combined Higher Sec. Level 2012) Exp: Provisions under Article-249 empowers Parliament to make laws on the subjects of state list. According to the provisions under this article, if Rajya Sabha in supreme national interest, initiates a proposal supported by not less than two-third of members present and voting, then Parliament can make laws on the subjects of state list. A resolution passed by Rajya Sabha under Article-249 can remain in force for maximum time period of 1 year.

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40
Q

40.If Parliament has to legislate with respect to a matter in the state list, the proposal for such is to be approved by- (A) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Legislature of related State (B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both (C) Rajya Sabha (D) Lok Sabha

A

(C) (SSC CPO Exam 2015) Exp: Same as above.

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41
Q

“41.In Indian parliamentary functioning, ““Zero Hour”” means- (A) Time before question hour (B) First hour of the session (C) Time immediately following question hour (D) Acceptance of privilege motion”

A

“(C)Exp: Time immediately following the Question Hour is known as Zero Hour. It starts at 12:00 in noon, that is why it is called ““Zero Hour””. It is an Indian innovation in the field of Parliamentary practices. During Zero Hour, members of Parliament with prior permission of presiding officer can raise matters of public importance even if it is not listed in the day’s order paper.”

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42
Q

42.Which of the following procession has not been adopted from the world’s Parliamentary system- (A) Question hour (B) Zero hour (C) Oath (D) Motion of thanks

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2011) Exp: Question Hour is a fix time every day from 11:00 to 12:00hrs to allow members of Parliament to ask questions from the members of Council of Ministers. Whereas Motion of thanks is a motion under which the speech of President at the start of first session every year or session after each general election, is discussed and put to vote. This along with Question Hour and oath has been adopted from world’s Parliamentary system whereas Zero-Hour is an Indian innovation.

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43
Q

“43.Which of the followings are correct about ““noconfidence motion”” in Parliament- 1. It is not mentioned in the constitution 2. The gap between two no-confidence motion should be six months 3. It should be supported by at least 100 members of house 4. It can only be presented in Lok Sabha (A) 2 and 4 (B) 1,2,3 and 4 (C) 1,2 and 4 (D) 1 and 4”

A

(C) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2009) Exp: No confidence motion can be introduced only in Lok Sabha by opposition against the government. Speaker of Lok Sabha can accept no confidence motion only when it is demanded by 50 or more members. Constitution does not directly mention no confidence motion. It can be inferred from the provision of collective responsibility under Article-75, which implies that majority of Lok Sabha MPs must not be agianst Prime Minister and his Cabinet. There must be a gap of at least six months between two no confidence motions.

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44
Q

44.What is the gap period between first noconfidence motion and second no-confidence motion- (A) 12 months (B) 3 months (C) 6 months (D) 9 months

A

(C) (SSC Stenographer Exam 2010) Exp: Same as above

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45
Q

45.The discussion on any matter of urgent public importance, presented by any member of house is known as- (A) Adjournment motion (B) Confidence motion (C) Censure motion (D) None of these

A

(A) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2007) Exp: Adjournment motion is introduced to draw attention of the house to a specific matter of urgent public importance. It can be introduced only in Lok Sabha and needs the support of 50 members to get admitted.

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46
Q

46.A motion moved by Member of Parliament when he feels a minister has committed a breach of privilege of the House is called (A) No confidence motion (B) Censure motion (C) Privilege motion (D) Cut motion

A

(C) Exp: Privilege motion is concerned with the breach of Parliamentary privileges by a Minister. It is moved by a member when he feels that a Minister has committed a breach of privilege of house or of one or more of its members by withholding facts of a case or by giving wrong or distorted facts.

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47
Q

47.Which of the following is not related to Parliament- (A) Closure (B) Adjournment (C) Censure (D) Suspension

A

(D) (SSC Combined Higher Sec. Level Exam 2011) Exp: Closure, Adjournment and Censure, all are types of motion in Parliament which are introduced to achieve the functions of the house. Closure motion is moved by a member to cut short the debate on a matter before the House. Adjournment motion is moved to draw attention of house on matter of public importance. Whereas censure motion is introduced to seek disapproval of policy of Government. There is no such motion like suspension in the Parliament.

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48
Q

48.In India, no government expenditure can be made without approval of - (A) Parliament (B) Prime Minister (C) President (D) Supreme court

A

(A) (SSC Tax Asst. .Exam 2007) Exp: Appropriation bill under Article-114, is passed during the budgetary process in Parliament. This bill consists of demand for grant of all ministeries and departments. Passage of this bill authorizes expenditure from Consolidated Fund of India. Government will not be in a position to make any expenditure unless Appropriation bill has been passed by Parliament.

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49
Q

49.Who generally presents the Finance Budget in Indian Parliament? (A) RBI Governor (B) Budget Minister (C) Finance Minister (D) Finance Secretary

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Finance Budget is generally presented in Lok Sabha by Finance Minister. It is a statement of estimated receipts and Expenditure of the financial year i.e. 1st April to 31st March.

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50
Q

50.Which of the following motion is related to Union Budget- (A) Adjournment (B) Censure (C) Cut motion (D) None of these

A

(C) (SSC Combined Higher Sec. Level 2012) Exp: Cut motion is a part of budgetary process which can only be introduced in Lok Sabha. It can be moved when the introducer is in disagreement with demand for grant. If a cut motion is adopted by Parliament and the Government does not have the numbers, it is obligated to resign as per rules of Lok Sabha.

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51
Q

51.A motion that seeks to reduce the amount of demand presented by government to Rs. 1/- is known as (A) Disapproval of policy cut (B) Token cut (C) Economy cut (D) Vote on account

A

(A) (11 Sep. 2016 (Afternoon) Exp: Cut motion is classified into 3 categories:- Policy cut, Economy cut and Token cut. Policy cut represents the disapproval of policy underlying demand and it seeks to reduce the amount of demand to Rs.1/-. Whereas Economy cut represents the grievance not against the policy but against the demand for grant and it seeks to reduce the amount of demand by a specific amount. Token cut is introduced to ventilate a specific grievance within the sphere of responsibiliy of Goverment and it is expressed by asking for reducing the amount of demand by Rs.100.

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52
Q

52.Who can initiate the process of removal of the President before the expiry of his term? (A) Lok Sabha (B) Supreme Court (C) Common man (D) Member of Parliament

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: A resolution seeking impeachment of President can be initiated in either house of Parliament i.e. Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. It can be brought only after two preconditions are satisfied. First, a fourteen days prior notice has been served to President and second, onefourth of members of house in which it is proposed to be initiated, have given signed approval.

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53
Q

53.The salaries and allowances payable to the Members of the Parliament are decided by the (A) President (B) Cabinet (C) Parliament (D) Finance Commission

A

(C) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2004) Exp: As per provisions of Article-106, members of either house of Parliament are entitled to receive such salaries and allowances as Parliament may by law determine from time to time.

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54
Q

54.If the Parliament has to appoint a committee for a specific task, it is known as- (A) Standing committee (B) Ad-hoc committee (C) Joint committee (D) Permanent committee

A

(B) (SSC Combined Higher Sec. Level 2012) Exp: Parliamentary Committees consisting of parliamentarians are constituted to assist Parliament in effective discharge of its responsibilities. These Parliamentary Committees are classified as:- Standing committees and Ad-hoc committees. Standing committees are permanent in nature whereas Ad-hoc committees are constituted for specific purposes and they cease to exist after completion of the specific work.

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55
Q

55.Which of the following committee is not a permanent committee of the Parliament- (A) Public accounts committee (B) Estimates committee (C) Committee on public undertaking (D) Advisory committee of finance ministry

A

(D) (SSC Combined Higher Sec. Level 2011) Exp: Presently, Standing committees which are also called permanent committees are 45 in number. These include Departmentally Related Standing Committee, Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee, Committee on Public Undertaking, Business Advisory Committee, Committee on Petitions etc.

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56
Q

56.Which of the followings are the financial committees of Parliament in India- 1. Public Accounts Committee 2. Estimates Committee 3. Committee on Public Undertakings (A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1,2 and 3

A

(D) (SSC CPO Exam 2008) Exp: Financial committees play a very important role as the watch dogs of Parliament. They help Parliament in ensuring financial control over executive. Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee and Committee on Public Undertakings, all are financial committees of Parliament which helps Parliament in functions like auditing of expenditure by Government, budget planning and execution of policies.

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57
Q

57.The committee which Examines the audit report of Comptroller and Auditor General of India, is- (A) Estimates committee (B) Consultative committee (C) Public Accounts Committee (D) None of these

A

(c) (SSC CPO Exam 2009) Exp: Comptroller and Auditor General of India audits all accounts of Government of India and submits a report in this regard to the President, who causes the report to be tabelled in Parliament. This report is then referred to Public Accounts Committee (PAC) which after examining the report, prepares another report. The report prepared by PAC is again placed before Parliament for discussion.

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58
Q

58.The Chairman of Public Accounts Committee of Parliament is appointed by- (A) Speaker of Lok Sabha (B) Prime Minister of India (C) President of India (D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

A

(A)Exp: Public Accounts Committee is the oldest Parliamentary Committee. It helps Parliament in strengthening the financial control over executive. It consists of 22 members, out of which 15 are from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. The chairman of this committee is to be appointed by Speaker of Lok Sabha from among the Lok Sabha members of committee. As a part of healthy parliamentary proceedings, the chairman of this committee is to be appointed from among the senior opposition members.

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59
Q

59.The Chairman of Public Accounts Committee in Indian Parliament is- (A) Leader of opposition(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha (C) Deputy Chairman of Lok Sabha (D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

A

(A) (SSC Stenographer Exam 2010) Exp: Same as above

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60
Q

60.Which Parliamentary Committee in India is normally chaired by a prominent member of the opposition? (A) Committee on Government Assurances (B) Estimates Committee (C) Privileges Committee (D) Public Accounts Committee

A

(d) (30 Aug. 2016 (Evening) Exp: Same as above

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61
Q

61.The largest committee of Parliament of India is (A) Public Accounts Committee (B) Estimates Committee (C) Committee on Public Undertakings (D) Joint Parliamentary Committee

A

(B) (9 Sep. 2016 (Evening) Exp: Estimates Committee is equally important as Public Accounts Committee as far as financial control of Parliament over executive is concerned. Its main function is to help in budget planning. It consists of 30 members, all from Lok Sabha. Public Accounts Committee and Committee on Pubilc Undertakings consist of 22 members each. Whereas Joint Parliamentary Committee is an Ad-hoc Committee which is formed for a specific task and its number of members vary from task to task.

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62
Q

62.Which one of the following Committees is described as the twin sister of the Estimates Committee? (A) Public Accounts Committee (B) Committee on Public Undertakings (C) Departmental Standing Committee (D) Privilege Committee

A

(A) (31 Aug. 2016 Afternoon) Exp: Both Public Accounts Committee and Estimates Committee help in strengthening financial control of Parliament over executive. Estimates Committee has a role in budget planning i.e. it has a role before approval of expenditure from Parliament. Whereas Public Accounts Committee plays its role when actual expenditure has been done i.e. auditing the expenditure. That is why Public Accounts Committee and Estimates Committee are termed as twin sisters.

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63
Q

63.Who is the custodian of Consolidated Fund of India- (A) Executive (B) Judiciary (C) Legislature (D) Civil officers

A

(C) (SSC Tax Asst. .Exam 2006) Exp: As mentioned under Article-266(1), all revenues received by Government of India, all loans raised by that Government by issue of treasury bills and all money received by Government in repayment of loans, together form Consolidated Fund of India. No money can be deposited or withdrawn from this fund without prior approval of Parliament. That is why Parliament which is Union legislature in India, is called custodian of Consolidated Fund of India.

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64
Q

64.Wh ich of the fol lowing parl iamentary constituency is the largest in terms of area- (A) Barmer (Rajasthan) (B) Arunachal West (Arunachal Pradesh) (C) Laddakh (Jammu and Kashmir) (D) Uttaranchal East (Uttaranchal)

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2007, SSC section off Exam 2007) Exp: Laddakh in Jammu and Kashmir is the largest parliamentary constituency in India in terms of area which is followed by Barmer in Rajasthan. Whereas Lakshadweep is the smallest parliamentary constituency in terms of area. In terms of number of electors, Malkajgiri in Andhra Pradesh and Lakshadweep are the largest and smallest Parliamentary constituencies respectively.

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65
Q

65.Which State has the highest Lok Sabha seats in India? (A) Maharashtra (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Bihar

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Uttar Pradesh is the state with highest number of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council seats. In Lok Sabha it has representation of 80 seats.

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66
Q

66.The number of parliamentary seats (Lok Sabha) of Haryana is (A) 10 (B) 26 (C) 28 (D) 48

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: The parliamentary seats in Lok Sabha are allocated to States on the basis of population. It is taken care of that the difference between parliamentary seat or constituency with highest population and that with lowest population should not be more than 10%. Haryana has 10 representatives in Lok Sabha.

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67
Q

67.The number of parliamentary seats (Rajya Sabha) of Tamil Nadu is (A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 31

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Tamil Nadu has representation of 18 seats in Rajya Sabha. Whereas in Lok Sabha it has 39 representatives.

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68
Q

68.The number of parliamentary seats (Rajya Sabha) of Karnataka is _____. (A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 31

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Fourth Schedule provides for allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha to States and Union Territories. Population is the parameter which has been kept in mind while allocating seats. Karnataka has 12 seats in Rajya Sabha.

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69
Q

69.The number of parliamentary seats (Lok Sabha) of Karnataka is (A) 10 (B) 26 (C) 28 (D) 48

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: The number of Lok Sabha seats in Karnataka is 28. U.P. has maximum number of seats in Lok Sabha, which is 80.

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70
Q

70.The number of parliamentary seats (Rajya Sabha) of Uttar Pradesh is (A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 31

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: U.P. has highest number of Parliamentary seats both in Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha. In Rajya Sabha, it has representation of 31 seats whereas in Lok Sabha, its representation is of 80 seats.

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71
Q

71.The number of parliamentary seats (Rajya Sabha) of West Bengal is (A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 31

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: West Bengal has representation of 16 seats in Rajya Sabha. In Lok Sabha, it has 42 seats.

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72
Q

72.The number of parliamentary seats (Lok Sabha) of Andhra Pradesh is _______. (A) 2 (B) 13 (C) 20 (D) 25

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Andhra Pradesh which was formed as first linguistic state in India, has representation of 25 seats in Lok Sabha. In Rajya Sabha, it has representation of 11 seats.

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73
Q

73.The number of parliamentary seats (Lok Sabha) of Goa is _________. (A) 2 (B) 13 (C) 20 (D) 25

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Goa is the smallest state in India in terms of area. There are two Lok Sabha constituencies in Goa. In Rajya Sabha it has representation of only one seat.

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74
Q

74.The number of parliamentary seats (Lok Sabha) of Kerala is _______. (A) 2 (B) 13 (C) 20 (D) 25

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Kerala, the state with highest literacy rate, has 20 parliamentary seats (Lok Sabha). In Rajya Sabha it has representation of 9 seats.

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75
Q

75.The number of parliamentary seats (Lok Sabha) of Punjab is _______. (A) 2 (B) 13 (C) 20 (D) 25

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Punjab has 13 Lok Sabha constituencies. In Rajya Sabha it has representation of 7 seats.

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76
Q

76.The number of parliamentary seats (Lok Sabha) of Gujarat is (A) 10 (B) 26 (C) 28 (D)48

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Gujarat is one of the 9 littoral states in India. It has representation of 26 seats in Lok Sabha. In Rajya Sabha it has 11 seats.

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77
Q

77.The number of parliamentary seats (Lok Sabha) of Maharashtra is (A) 10 (B) 26 (C) 28 (D) 48

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Maharashtra has the second highest representation in Lok Sabha after U.P. with 48 seats. It has a representation of 19 seats in Rajya Sabha.

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78
Q

78.The number of parliamentary seats (Lok Sabha) of Chandigarh is (A) 1 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 15

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Union territory of Chandigarh has representation of 1 seat in Lok Sabha. Other political units with representation of 1 seat in Lok Sabha are Dadra and Nager Haveli, Daman and Diu, Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep, Puducherry, Nagaland, Sikkim and Mizoram. SSC CGL & CPO - 2017

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79
Q

79.Who among the following is not a member of any of the two houses of our country? (A) Prime Minister (B) Finance Minister (C) President (D) Railway Minister

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp:President is not the member of either house of Parliament. PM, Cabinet Minister, State Minister needs to be member of either house of Parliament to hold any constitutional office in Government of India.

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80
Q

80.Which of the following provision needs a special majority in Parliament? (A) Change in Fundamental Rights (B) Creation of New States (C) Abolition of Legislative Councils in State (D) Rules and Procedures in Parliament

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Other provision which needs special majority in Parliament are as follows. (i) Impeachment of President. (ii) Extent of executive power of Union and State (iii) Alterations in jurisdiction of SC and HC. Any change in demarcation of legislative power between Union an States.

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81
Q

81.There are total _________ parliamentary seats (Rajya Sabha constituency) in Punjab. (A) 7 (B) 1 (C) 18 (D) 10

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Punjab has 7 parliamentary seats for Rajya Sabha. Elections to Rajya Sabha are based on proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. The tenure of Rajya Sabha MP’s are 6 years. However 1/3rd of members retire after every two years.

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82
Q

82.There are total _________ parliamentary seats (Rajya Sabha constituency) in Sikkim. (A) 11 (B) 19 (C) 10 (D) 1

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp:There is only 1 parliamentary seat of Rajya Sabha in Sikkim. The total strength of Rajya Sabha is 250. Of all, 12 seats are nominated by President for persons with special knowledge or Expertise in areas of Literature, Social Science, Art etc.

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83
Q

83.There are total _________ parliamentary seats (Rajya Sabha constituency) in Tripura. (A) 7 (B) 1 (C) 18 (D) 10

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp:There are total of 1 parliamentary seat in Rajya Sabha for Tripura. Rajya Sabha seats are allocated to states on basis of population census. Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of Rajya Sabha seats. (Total 31 seats)

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84
Q

84.There are total _________ parliamentary seats (Rajya Sabha constituency) in Maharashtra. (A) 11 (B) 19 (C) 10 (D) 1

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Maharashtra has 19 parliamentary seats for Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha also known as the Council of States & it comprised of indirectly elected and nominated members.

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85
Q

85.There are total _________ parliamentary seats (Lok Sabha constituency) in West Bengal. (A) 42 (B) 2 (C) 14 (D) 40

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: There are total 42 parliamentary seats of Lok Sabha in West Bengal. The normal tenure of Lok Sabha is five years. However, the House can be dissolved on certain grounds. In constitution, strength of Lok Sabha should be not more than 552 - 530 from states and 20 from UT. Two members belonging to Anglo Indian community can be nominated by President.

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86
Q

86.There are total _________ parliamentary seats (Rajya Sabha constituency) in Odisha. (A) 11 (B) 19 (C) 10 (D) 1

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: There are total of 10 parliamentary seats of Rajya Sabha in Odisha. The strength of Rajya Sabha seats varies from state to state and is based on population of a state. Total strength of Rajya Sabha is 250 members. 1/3rd of members retire after every two years.

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87
Q

87._________ can give the Union parliament power to make laws on matters included in the State list. (A) Ministry of Defence (B) Prime Minister’s Office (C) Securities and Exchange Board of India (D) Rajya Sabha

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Article 249 of Indian Constitution provides that if Rajya Sabha passes a resoultion by 2/3rd majority which necessiates that there is a need to make law on any national importance then Parliament can make laws in this regard.

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88
Q

88._________ elects the President and the Vice President and removes judges of Supreme Court and High Court. (A) Ministry of Defence (B) Lok Sabha (C) Prime Minister’s Office (D) Securities and Exchange Board of India

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: President is elected by collegium consist of MP’s of both Houses and MLA’s of all states and Union Territories. Vice President is elected by MP’s of both Houses of Parliament. Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha needs to pass resolution with two-third majority for removal of Judges of Supreme Court and High Court.

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89
Q

89.What is the minimum number of members required to be present in any one of the two houses of Parliament for its functioning? (A) One fifth of total members (B) One sixth of total members (C) One seventh of total members (D) One tenth of total members

A

(D) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: One-tenth of total strength of the house is required to be present for its functioning. It is also termed as ‘Quorum’.

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90
Q

90.Which Lok Sabha speaker has authored the book ‘Matoshree’? (A) Sumitra Mahajan (B) Meira Kumar (C) Somnath Chatterjee (D) Manohar Joshi

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Lok Sabha Speaker Sumitra Mahajan has authored the book ‘Matoshree’. It is based on the life and contributions made by Ahilya Bai Holkar. Ahilya Bhai Holkal was the Holker Queen of Maratha ruled Malwa Kingdon. She demonstrated her valour in protecting her kingdom from plundering invaders.

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91
Q

91.Who among the following issues a notification for prorogation of legislative session? (A) Speaker (B) Chairman (C) President (D) Prime Minister

A

(C)Exp: President orders for prorogation of legislative session. Prorogation means continuation of parliament from one session to another. On the contrary adjournment is continuation of session from day to day.

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92
Q

92.Who among the following is a part of political executive? (A) District Magistrate (B) Secretary of Ministry of defence (C) Finance Minister (D) Superintendent of Police

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Only Finance Minister is a political executive, others are executives or bureaucrats.

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93
Q

93.Indian Parliament is _____. (A) Unicameral (B) Bicameral (C) Tricameral (D) None of these

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Indian Parliament is bicameral. It consist of 2 houses - Lok Sabha (House of people) and Rajya sabha (Council of States). The bicameralism feature of Parliament was introduced in India for the first time in GOI Act, 1919.

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94
Q

1.Which of the following statement is not correct about Governor. (A) A person can be appointed as Governor for two or more states. (B) Governor can be tranferred from one state to another during their tenure (C) President appoints Governor by warrant, under his hand and seal. (D) Minimum age required for a person to become Governor of a state is 30 years.

A

(D) (SSC C.G.L 2009) Exp: Article-157 provides for qualification for appointment as Governor. According to provision under this article, minimum age required to become Governor of a state is 35 years. After 7th Consitutional Amendment of 1956, a provision was added into Article-153 that a person can be appointed as Governor for two or more states. President appoints Governor and he can also transfer a Governor from one state to another during his/her tenure.

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95
Q

2.Governor is sworn by- (A) Chief Justice of High Court (B) President (C) Speaker of assembly (D) Chief Justice of India

A

(A) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2015) Exp: Article-153 establishes the office of Governor for each state. Governor of state is appointed by President and sworn by Chief Justice of concerned High Court. In the absence of Chief Justice, the senior most judge of that High Court will administer the oath of Governor.

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96
Q

3.The constitution does not have the provision to impeach- (A) Chief Justice of Supreme Court (B) Chief Justice of Any High Court (C) Governor (D) President

A

(C) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2009) Exp: Constitution of India defines provision to impeach President, Chief Justice of Supreme Court and Chief Justice of High Court under Articles-61,124(4) and 217 respectively. But it does not have provision to impeach Governor, rather under Article-156, it says that Governor hold the office till the pleasure of President which means he can be removed any time by the President

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97
Q

4.The money bill can be presented in the state assembly with prior authorization of- (A) Governor of the State (B) Chief Minister of the State (C) Speaker of the Assembly (D) Finance Minister of the State

A

(A) (SSC CPO Exam 2007) Exp: Any bill which consists of provisions of taxation, borrowing of money by government or any financial obligation of government, any transaction from consolidated fund of state or contingency fund of state is termed as money bill under state legislature. It can be introduced only in state legislative assembly with prior approval of Governor of that state.

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98
Q

5.Who was the f irst woman governor in Independent India- (A) Sarojini Naidu (B) Sucheta Kriplani (C) Indira Gandhi (D) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

A

(A) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2011) Exp: Sarojini Naidu who is also called ‘Nightangle’ of India, served as first woman Governor in Independent India. She was Governor of Uttar Pradesh. She was also the second woman and first Indian woman to become President of Indian National Congress in 1925. Whereas Sucheta Kriplani, Indira Gandhi and Vijayalaxmi Pandit were first women - Chief Minister, Prime Minister of India and President of U.N. General Assembly respectively.

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99
Q

6.The Chief Minister is appointed by- (A) Governor (B) President (C) Chief Justice of Supreme Court (D) Chief Justice of High Court

A

(A) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2008, SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2011) Exp: Article-163 establishes that there shall be a Council of Ministers with Chief Minister as head to aid and advice the Governor in exercise of his functions. And according to Article-164, Chief Minister shall be appointed by Governor of the concerned state.

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100
Q

7.Who uses the real Executionary Powers of State- (A) Chief Minister (B) Council of Ministers (C) Governor (D) Chief Justice of High Court

A

(A) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2012) Exp: Governor is executive head of state. But his powers are nominal. The real repository of all executive powers in a state is Chief Minister who is the head of government of that state.

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101
Q

8.In which of the following matters, Governor can make recommendations to President- 1. Dismissal of Council of Ministers 2. Suspension of Judges of High Court 3. Dissolution of State Assembly4. Declaration of failure of Constitutional Machinery in State (A) 2,3 and 4 (B) 1,2 and 4 (C) 1,2 and 3 (D) 1,3 and 4

A

(D) (SSC CPO Exam 2015) Exp: Every fortnight Governor has to send a report to the President regarding affairs of administration in the state. This report can be even a ground for imposition of president’s rule in the state under Article-356, if it consists of declaration of failure of constitutional Machinery in state. In this case he can also recommend President to dismiss Council of Ministers or dissolve state assembly.

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102
Q

9.How many member of Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated by Governor in State Assembly- (A) 01 (B) 02 (C) 12 (D) 06

A

(A) (SSC FCI Exam 2012) Exp: As per provisions of Article-333, Governor of a state can nominate one member belonging to Anglo Indian Community in state legislative assembly, if he is of the opinion that they are not adequately represented.

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103
Q

10.The discretionary powers of a Governor is limited in (A) Appointment of Chief Minister (B) Dismissal of the Ministry (C) Dissolution of the Legislative Assembly (D) Assent to Bills

A

(D) Exp: Under the provisions of Article-163 of Constitution, Governor in state have to exercise their executive powers either on advice of Council of Ministers or in their discretion. In the appointment of Chief Minister, dismissal of ministry or government and in dissolution of Legislative Assembly, Governor enjoys full discretion. But while giving assent to the bills he has limited discretion as he cannot withhold assent to the reconsidered bill.

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104
Q

11.In which State does the Governor nominate woman to the Assembly? (A) Jammu & Kashmir (B) Sikkim (C) Manipur (D) Nagaland

A

(A) Exp: Governor of Jammu and Kashmir has been conferred with the power to appoint two women as members of legislative assembly by Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir, if he is of opinion that women are not adequately represented in house.

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105
Q

12.Who served for the longest period of time as the Chief Minister of a state- (A) Pratap Singh Kairon (B) Bhairon Singh Shekhavat (C) Jyoti Basu (D) Devi Lal

A

(C) (SSC Stenographer grade c and d Exam 2014) Exp: Jyoti Basu served for the longest period of time as the Chief Minister of a State. He was Chief Minister of West Bengal for 23 years.

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106
Q

13.Which of the following state had never a Lady Chief Minister- (A) Tamilnadu (B) Rajasthan (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Maharashtra

A

(D) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2014) Exp: Maharashtra never had a lady Chief Minister. Whereas Tamilnadu has been served by two women Chief Ministers-Janaki Ramchandran and J. Jayalalitha. Vasundhra Raje is serving as Chief Minister of Rajasthan. Uttar Pradesh had Sucheta Kriplani and Mayawati as Chief Ministers.

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107
Q

14.State Highways are maintained by- (A) Centre and state governments jointly (B) Private companies preferred by state government (C) Individual state (D) Central government

A

(C) (SSC Stenographer grade C and D Exam 2012) Exp: State Highways in India are laid and maintained by the respective state governments. Whereas National Highways are maintained by National Highways Authority of India (NHAI).

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108
Q

15.Who works as the chairman of State Planning Board- (A) Governor (B) Chief Minister (C) Leader of Opposition (D) Speaker

A

(B) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2011) Exp: Chief Minister works as the chairman of State Planning Board. It is an advisory body which assists state government in formulating a development plan based on a scientific assessment of the resources available to state.

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109
Q

16.The maximum time a person can continue to be the minister of the State Government without being a member the state legislature_ (A) One year (B) Three months (C) Six months (D) No time limit

A

(C) Exp: Any minister of state government can continue to be a minister without being a member of state legislature for maximum of six months. After the expiration of six months, he or she will cease to be a minister.

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110
Q

17.Who among the following is the first woman Chief minister of Punjab? (A) Sucheta Kriplani (B) Mehbooba Mufti (C) Draupadi Murmu (D) Rajinder Kaur Bhattal

A

(D) Exp: Rajinder Kaur Bhattal served as first woman Chief Minister of Punjab. Whereas Sucheta Kriplani was first woman Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh. Mehbooba Mufti is first woman Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir and Draupadi Murmu is first woman Governor of Jharkhand.

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111
Q

18.Name the first woman Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir? (A) Sakina Itoo (B) Mehbooba Mufti (C) Asiya Naqash (D) Hina ShafiBhat

A

(B) Exp: Same as above19. The ordinance by the Governor are subject to approval of- (A) President (B) State Legislature (C) Council of Ministers of State (D) Parliament (B) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2014) Exp: Article-213 confers power to Governor to promulgate ordinances anytime except when Legislative Assembly or where there is Legislative Council, both the houses, are in session. Ordinance issued by Governor is subject to approval of state legislature and it must be approved by state legislature within 6 weeks of its reassembly, otherwise it will cease to operate.

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112
Q

19.The ordinance by Governor will be valid in case of non-approval in State Legislature for a period of - (A) Six months (B) Six weeks (C) One year (D) One week

A

(B) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2013) Exp: Same as above

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113
Q

“20.Article 173 of the Indian Constitution ““Qualification for membership of the State Legislature”” deals with? (A) The Directive Principles of State Policy (B) The State Government (C) The Union Government (D) The fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen”

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-173 under Part- VI of constitution deals with subject matters of state government or machinery. It mentions qualification required for membership of State Legislature. Any person who is citizen of India and has completed the age of 25 years in case of Legislative Assembly and 30 years in case of Legislative Council is qualified to be a member of State Legislature.

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114
Q

“21.Artic le-211 of the Indian Constitution ““Restriction on discussion in the Legislature”” deals with? (A) The Directive Principles of State Policy (B) The Union Government (C) The fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen (D) The State Government”

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-211 of constit-ution, which is related to the chapter of state legislature under Part-VI of constitution, deals with subject matters of state government or machinery. The provisions of this article restricts the legislature of a state to discuss conduct of any judge of Supreme Court or of a High Court in discharge of his duties.

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115
Q

22.What is maximum determined numbers for the members of the State Legislative Assemblies- (A) 350 (B) 600 (C) 500 (D) 750

A

(C) (SSC CGL Exam 2011) Exp: Article-170 talks about composition of Legislative Assemblies. And according to it, any Legislative Assembly can have maximum of 500 members. Whereas, minimum strength prescribed for Legislative Assembly is 60. But President through special notification can fix-up strength lower than 60.

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116
Q

23.Which state assembly has the maximum number of members- (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Maharashtra (C) West Bengal (D) Andhra Pradesh

A

(A) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level2015) Exp :Uttar Pradesh has highest number of state legislative assembly seats, which are 403 in number. Lowest number of legislative assembly seats are in Pondicherry which has 30 seats, but it is an Union Territory. Among states, Sikkim has lowest number of legislative assembly seats with total of 32 seats.

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117
Q

24.How many legislative assembly seats are in Delhi- (A) 60 (B) 70 (C) 40 (D) 50

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2014) Exp: Since 1992, Union Territory of Delhi has been provided with a Legislative Assembly and a Council of Ministers headed by a Chief Minister. The strength of assembly has been fixed at 70 members, directly elected by people.

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118
Q

25.What is the full form of MLA in the Indian Constitution? (A) Member of Legislative Assembly (B) Master of Legislative Assembly (C) Member of Left Assembly (D) Master of Left Assembly

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Member of Legislative Assembly i.e. M.L.A. is a representative elected by voters of a constituency under state legislative assembly. Similarly the representatives in legislative council are called Member of Legislative Council i.e. M.L.C.

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119
Q

26.The Jammu and Kashmir State Legislative Assembly has a tenure ______. (A) Six years (B) Five years (C) Four years (D) Seven years

A

(A) (31 Aug. 2016 (Afternoon)) Exp: All State Legislative Assemblies in India have a tenure of 5 years except the Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir which has 6 years as tenure.

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120
Q

27.In case no party enjoys absolute majority in the Legislative Assembly of a state, the Governor will go by: (A) The advice of former Chief Minister (B) The advice of the Prime Minister (C) The advice of the President of India (D) His own discretion

A

(D)Exp: In appointment of Chief Minister, when no party enjoys absolute majority after assembly elections, Governor will go by his own discretion to explore the formation of a stable government.

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121
Q

28.Which of the following state has a legislative council- (A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Tamilnadu (C) Kerala (D) Andhra Pradesh

A

(D) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2014) Exp: State Legislative Council is a permanent house and upper house of state legislature. According to Article-168, there are seven states where there is legislative council. These are Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Jammu and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

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122
Q

29.According to which article, state council can be formed or dissolved - (A) Article167 (B) Article168 (C) Article170 (D) Article169

A

(D) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2015) Exp: Process for creation and abolition of state legislative council is given under Article - 169. According to this article, Parliament through law can create and abolish legislative council. Parliament will take up such resolution only when concerned state legislative assembly has put forward a demand by passing it through a special majority.

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123
Q

30.The Legislative Council in a State in India may be created or abolished by the (A) President on the recommendation of the Governor (B) Parliament (C) Parliament after the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect. (D) Governor on a recommendation by the State Cabinet

A

(C) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2014) Exp: Same as above

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124
Q

31.The minimum age limit for the membership of the Vidhan Parishad is_______. (A) 21 years (B) 25 years (C) 30 years (D) 35 years

A

(C) (9 Sep. 2016 (Morning)) Exp: Minimum age limit for membership of Vidhan Parishad or Legislative Council is 30 years. They have a fixed tenure of 6 years. And 1/3rd of its member retire every 2nd year like in case of Rajya Sabha. Minimum age limit for membership of Vidhan Sabha or Legislative Assembly is 25 years.

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125
Q

32.An Ordinary bill passed by the State Assembly can be delayed by the Legislative Council for maximum period of (A) 1 month (B) 6 months (C) 3 months (D) 4 months

A

(D) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2005) Exp: State Legislative Council has very limited powers in the passage of bills. Only the ordinary bill can be introduced in legislative council. And any ordinary bill which is introduced in Legislative Assembly will move to Legislative Council after passage, Legislative Council then can pass the bill, amend the bill or can delay the bill for maximum period of 4 months.

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126
Q

33.How many members of the State Legislative Council are elected by the Assembly? (A) 1/6 of the members (B) 1/3 of the members (C) 1/12 of the members (D) 5/6 of the members

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2008) Exp: Article-171 provides for composition of Legislative Council in states. According to it, 1/3rd members are elected by members of concerned Legislative Assembly, whereas 1/ 3rd members will be elected by members of local bodies. Among remaining members, 1/6th are nominated by Governor, 1/12th are elected by graduates of state and 1/ 12th will be elected by teachers within the state.

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127
Q

34.What can be the maximum strength of state legislative council? (A) Half of concerned legislative assembly (B) 1 rd 3 of concerned legislative assembly (C) 1 th 4 of concerned legislative assembly (D) 500

A

(B) Exp: Article-171 also provides for maximum strength of any Legislative Council. According to it, the maximum strength of legislative council should not exceed 1/3rd of total members in concerned Legislative Assembly. It also says that total number of members in Legislative Council shall in no case be less than forty.

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128
Q

35.How many members are nominated by Governor in legislative council? (A) 12 (B) 6 (C) 1 th 6 of total strength of house (D) 1 th 12 of total strength of house.

A

(C) Exp: Governor of state can nominate 1 th 6 members of total strength in Legislative Council. Governor can nominate an individual if he has special knowledge and practical experience in any of five fields namely Art, Science, Literature, Social service and Co-operative movements.

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129
Q

“36.Article 187 of the Indian constitution ““Secretariat of State Legislature”” deals with? (A) The State Government (B) The Directive Principles of State Policy (C) The Union Government (D) The fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen”

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-187 of constitution, which is related to chapter of state legislature under Part-VI, deals with subject matters of state government or machinery. As per the provision of this article, each house of legislature of state shall have a seperate secretarial staff.

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130
Q

37.Which Article of the Indian constitution defines the duties of the Chief Minister? (A) Article 166 (B) Article 163 (C) Article 167 (D) Article 164

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-167 of Indian constitution defines the duties of the Chief Minister. Under this they are obligated to communicate to Governor of state, all decisions of Council of Ministers related to administrative affairs and proposed legislation of state. SSC CGL & CPO 2017

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131
Q

38.Who appoints Governor of a state in India? (A) Prime Minister of India (B) Council of Minister (C) Judge of Supreme Court (D) President of India

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: President of India appoints Governor of State in India for a term of 5 years. Governors are the constitutional head of state. Governor act on advice of Council of Ministers headed by Chief Minister.

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132
Q

39.What is the minimum age for becoming a Governor of state in India? (A) 30 years (B) 25 years (C) 35 years (D) 45 years

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Minimum age to become Governor of state is 35 years. Other eligibility criteria for Governor includes Indian citizenship and he/she must not hold any other office of profit. Governor do not need to be member of any house of state.

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133
Q

1.Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court of India? (A) President (B) Chief Justice (C) Prime Minister (D) Council of Ministers

A

(A) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2014) Exp: According to Article-124 (2), judges of Supreme Court are appointed by President after consultation with such number of judges of Supreme Court and of High Courts as President may deem necessary and shall hold office till the age of 65 years. In appointment of a Judge other than Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of India shall always be consulted.

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134
Q

2.What is the retirement age of the judge of Supreme Court? (A) 60 years (B) 62 years (C) 64 years (D) 65 years

A

(D) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2008, SSC CPO Exam 2015, SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2015) Exp: Same as above

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135
Q

3.Who was the first Woman Judge of the supreme court? (A) Sujata Manohar (B) Ruma Pal (C) M.S.Fathima Beevi (D) None of these

A

(C) (SSC Stenographer grade d Exam 2005) Exp: Justice Fathima Beevi was first female judge to be appointed to Supreme Court of India in 1989. She was also the first Muslim woman to be appointed to any higher judiciary.

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136
Q

4.The salary and allowances of judges of Supreme Court are charged on- (A) Reserve Bank of India (B) Contingency Fund of India (C) Consolidated Fund of India (D) Finance Commission

A

(C) (SSC CPO Exam 2015) Exp: As per provisions of Article-125, the salary and allowances of judges of Supreme Court are charged on Consolidated Fund of India with prior approval of Parliament. Article-266 defines Consolidated Fund of India as a fund which consists of all revenues received by Government of India, all loans raised by Government by issue of treasury bills and all money received by Government in repayment of lo

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137
Q

5.Which of the following is not an eligibility of the judge of Supreme Court in India? (A) Citizen of India (B) Age should be 35 years (C) Should have practiced at least 10 years in any High court (D) Should be a jurist

A

(B) (SSC CPO Exam 2010) Exp: Article-124(3) mentions eligibility for judge of Supreme Court. According to it, any person who is citizen of India and has served as a judge in High Court for at least 5 years or as an advocate in High Court or Supreme Court for at least 10 years or is a distinguished jurist, can become judge of Supreme Court. There is no mention of minimum age under this article.

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138
Q

6.What should be the experience of advocacy in any High Court for being a judge of Supreme court? (A) 10 years (B) 5 years (C) 15 years (D) 20 years

A

(A) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2015, SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2015) Exp: Same as above

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139
Q

7.The retired judges of Supreme court are restricted to practice advocacy in- (A) Any court except Supreme Court (B) Any court of India (C) Any court below High Court (D) Any civil Court

A

(B) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2006) Exp: There are certain safeguards for impartiality to the judges of Supreme Court. A judge of Supreme Court cannot hold any office of profit under Government of India or State Governments after retirement. Article-124 (7) also dictates that a retired judge of Supreme Court cannot practice in any court in India.

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140
Q

8.How many judges are in Supreme Court? (A) 25 (B) 26 (C) 30 (D) 31

A

(D) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2014) Exp: Article-124 (1) established Supreme Court with Chief Justice of India and 7 other judges in the beginning. Parliament has been conferred with the power to increase the number of judges. At present, there are 31 judges including 1 Chief Justice and 30 others judges in Supreme Court of India.

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141
Q

9.Judge of the Superme Court and High Court can be removed by- (A) The President (B) Parliament(C) Union Council of Minister (D) Chief Justice of the Supreme court

A

(A) Exp: Article-124(4) and 217 provide for removal of a judge of Supreme Court and High Court respectively. According to the provision, a judge of Supreme Court or High Court can be removed by an order of President passed after an address by both the houses of Parliament with a special majority similar to Article-368.

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142
Q

10.Of the following who held the offices of Judge of the Supreme Court and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha? (A) M. Hidayatullah (B) K.S. Hegde (C) Subba Rao (D) P.N. Bhagwati

A

(B) Exp: K.S. Hegde held the office of judge of Supreme Court(1967-73) as well as Speaker of Lok Sabha(1977-80).

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143
Q

11.Which of the following Chief Justice of India had the opportunity to act as President of India? (A) Justice Mehar Chand Mahajan (B) Justice P.B.Gajendra Gadkar (C) Justice M.Hidayatulla (D) Justice P.N.Bhagawati

A

(C) Exp: M. Hidayatullah was 11th Chief Justice of India (1968-70) and 6th Vice-President of India (1979-84). He also served as acting President of India in 1969.

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144
Q

12.Who was the first woman Chief Justice of a High Court of a state in India? (A) Sunanda Bhandare (B) Fathima Beevi (C) Leila Seth (D) Anna Chandy

A

(C) Exp: Leila Seth was first woman to become Chief Justice of High Court in India. She became Chief Justice of Himachal Pradesh High Court in 1991.

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145
Q

13.The High Court which has the distinction of having the first woman Chief Justice is: (A) Guwahati High Court (B) Allahabad High Court (C) Delhi High Court (D) Himanchal Pradesh High Court

A

(D) Exp: Same as above

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146
Q

14.The Supreme Court of India was set up: (A) By the Constitution (B) By the law of parliament (C) By a Presidential Order (D) By the Act of 1947

A

(A) Exp: Supreme Court of India was set-up in 1950 by the Constitution under the provisions of Article-124(1) consisting of Chief Justice of India and 7 other judges in the beginning.

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147
Q

15.Which one of the following statements about the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is not correct? (A) He appoints the Chief Justice of all High Courts. (B) The CJI administers the oath of office to the President (C) When both the office of the President and Vice-President fall vacant simultaneously, the CJI discharges the duties of the President. (D) The CJI can hold his office till he attains the age of 65 years.

A

(A) Exp: Chief Justice of India does not appoint Chief Justice of High Court. Rather, Chief Justice of High Court is appointed by President of India in consultation with Chief Justice of India and Governer of the concerned state.

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148
Q

16.The Indian Judiciary is headed by- (A) The President (B) The Prime Minister (C) The Supreme Court (D) The Parliament

A

(C) Exp: Judicial system in India is unified and integrated. This unified system of courts was legacy of British rule introduced by Government of India Act, 1935. In this setup Supreme Court heads the Indian Judiciary as it is highest court of appeal in all cases and final interpreter of constitution.

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149
Q

17.Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is appointed by the (A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (B) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (C) Prime Minister (D) President

A

(D) Exp: Though there is no seperate provision in constitution for appointing Chief Justice of India, who, as a result, is appointed like other judges conventionally and the outgoing CJI recommends the name of seniormost judge of Supreme Court for appointment by President of India, as his successor.

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150
Q

18.Article 134A of the Indian Constitution ‘‘Certificate for appeal to the Supreme Court’’ deals with? (A) the State Government (B) the Union Government (C) the fundamental rights of the Indian citizen (D) the Directive Principles of State Policy

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-134(A) which is related to the chapter of Union Judiciary under Part-V of constitution deals with subject matters of Union Government or machinery. This article contains provisions with respect to certificate for appeal to Supreme Court by High Court under appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court.

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151
Q

19.Who can send a matter to Supreme Court for consultation under Article 143? (A) President of India (B) Governor (C) Deputy governor (D) President and governor

A

(A) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2006) Exp: Article-143 provides for Advisory jurisdiction of Supreme Court. According to it, President of India can send a matter of fact or law which is of public importance to Supreme Court for advice. Supreme Court is not duty bound to advice. But if the reference is related to an international agreement which was entered into before commencement of constitution, then Supreme Court is duty bound to advice.

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152
Q

20.Which one of the following is related to Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (A) Speaker of the Parliament seeking opinion from the Supreme Court (B) Election Commission seeking opinion from the Supreme Court (C) State seeking opinion from the Supreme Court (D) President of the India seeks opinion on law or facts

A

(D) Exp: Same as above

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153
Q

21.The interpreter of Indian constitution is- (A) Central Cabinet (B) President (C) High Court (D) Supreme Court

A

(D) (SSC F.C.I. Exam 2012) Exp: Supreme Court is custodian and final interpreter of constitution. It has the authority to interpret and elucidate the meaning and spirit of provisions under constitution in case of any ambiguity. This authority of Supreme Court can be derived from Article-132 and 133.

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154
Q

22.The Supreme Court of India has- (A) Original Jurisdiction (B) Consultative Jurisdiction (C) Appellate and Consultative Jurisdiction (D) Original, Appellate and Consultative Jurisdiction

A

(D) (SSC Section Officer Exam 2007) Exp: Supreme Court of India has all the three i.e. Original, Appellate and Consultative or Advisory Jurisdiction. Dispute between Centre and States and between two or more States fall under Original Jurisdiction whereas under Appellate Jurisdiction Supreme Court enjoys final appeal in all cases including Court Marshall cases. Consultative Jurisdiction authorizes it to advice on any matter referred to it by President.

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155
Q

23.The power of mitigation of dispute between centre and state falls in _______ of the supreme court of India- (A) Original Jurisdiction (B) Constitutional Jurisdiction (C) Consulting Jurisdiction (D) Appellate Jurisdiction

A

(A) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2015) Exp: Power to settle the dispute between Centre and states or dispute between two or more states falls under Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court. Article-131 provides for Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court. Original Jurisdiction of a court is power to hear the case for the first time and no other lower court can consider such cases.

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156
Q

24.The Supreme Court is empowered to settle election disputes of President and VicePresident. This is its (A) Original Jurisdiction (B) Appellate Jurisdiction (C) Advisory Jurisdiction (D) Miscellaneous Jurisdiction

A

(A) Exp: Supreme Court under Original Jurisdiction has been empowered to settle election disputes of President and Vice-President. No lower court can take such case. And any dispute regarding election of President and VicePresident can only be filed after the completion of election process and not in between the process.

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157
Q

25.Who has the power to decide on an election petition for any state- (A) Parliament (B) Supreme Court (C) High Court (D) Election Commission

A

(C) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2014) Exp: Any election petition regarding election may be presented on one or more grounds mentioned under Section 100 and 101 of Representation of People Act 1951, to the High Court. It can be filed by any candidate or elector within forty-five days from the date of election.

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158
Q

26.What is the main function of judiciary- (A) To make law (B) Execution of law (C) Adjudication of law (D) To apply law

A

(C) (SSC CPO Exam 2005) Exp: The main function of judiciary is adjudication of law. Adjudication means pronouncing judgement on any issue by examining and listening to the arguments of two or more conflicting parties.

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159
Q

27.The law framed by Judiciary is called- (A) Ordinary law (B) Case law (C) Rule of law (D) Administrative law

A

(B) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2010) Exp: The law framed by Judiciary is called case law. It is a law which has been established by the outcome of former cases.

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160
Q

“28.What is the meaning of ““Judicial Review”” of Supreme Court- (A) Review of its own verdict (B) Review of the functioning of judiciary in country (C) Review of constitutional validity of laws (D) Timely review of constitution”

A

“(C)Exp: ““Judicial Review”” is power of judiciary to review the constitutional validity of any law made by legislature or act done by executive. It is also power of judiciary to declare a law invalid if it is inconsistent with constitutional provisions.”

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161
Q

“29.”“Judicial Review”” in Indian constitution is based on- (A) On the rule of law (B) Due process of law (C) On the procedure established by law (D) On former decisions and conventions”

A

(C) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2011) Exp: Judicial Review in Indian Constitution is based on several foundations. According to Indian constitution it was primarly based on Article-13 which says that Judiciary has exclusive right to stuck down unconstitutional law and executive order based on Procedure Established by Law. But with successive judgements Due Process of Law was also taken into consideration.

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162
Q

30.Which is the last appellate court- (A) High court (B) District court (C) Civil court (D) Supreme court

A

(D) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2015) Exp: Under Article -132, Supreme Court of India enjoys the status of final appellate Court. It enjoy final appeal in all cases including Court Marshall cases. All cases certified by High Court can be appealed in Supreme Court. Even if High Court refuses to certify, Supreme Court can still take it up under Special Leave Petition.

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163
Q

31.The Supreme Court of India acts as a Federel Court when it deals with (A) Civil cases (B) Inter-state disputes (C) Appeals from lower courts (D) Election petitions

A

(B) Exp: Supreme Court has exclusive Original Jurisdiction over any dispute between Centre and States, or between two or more states i.e. inter-state disputes. In this capacity, it acts as a Federal Court.

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164
Q

32.The Superme Court at Calcutta was established by: (A) Regulating Act of 1773 (B) Pitts India Act of 1784 (C) Charter Act of 1793 (D) Charter Act of 1813

A

(A) Exp: The Supreme Court was established by Regulating Act of 1773 at Fort William (Calcutta) as apex Court in 1774 with one Chief Justice and three other judges. Sir Elijah Imphey was first Chief Justice of this Supreme Court.

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165
Q

33.Which of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme Court? (A) Disputes between the states inter se (B) Protection against the violation of the Constitution (C) Protection of Fundamental Rights (D) Disputes between centre and the State

A

(C) Exp: Both Supreme Court and High Courts are conferred with power to protect the fundamental rights. Supreme Court under Article-32 and High Courts under Article-226 can issue writs in case of violation of fundamental rights.

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166
Q

34.The pension of the judge of High Court is charged on- (A) Public account of State (B) Consolidated Fund of India (C) Public Accounts of India (D) Consolidated Fund of State

A

(B) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2015) Exp: Article-112(3) mentions the expenditure that shall be charged on Consolidated Fund of India. Charged expenditure under this article includes salary and allowances of President, Chairman and deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha, Speaker and deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, salaries and pensions of judges of Supreme Court, pensions of Judges of High Court and salary and pension of CAG. Whereas salary of Judges of High Court is charged upon Consolidated Fund of State.

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167
Q

35.Who can displace the Judge of High Court- (A) President on a proposal passed by majority in parliament (B) President (C) Chief Minister in consultation with Governor (D) President in consultation with Chief Justice of India

A

(A) (SSC Multi Tasking Exam 2013) Exp: A judge of High Court can be removed from his office only by President after an address by both the houses with special majority of not less than two third of members present and voting and absolute majority of the house for proved misbehavior or incapacity.

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168
Q

36.Who on recommendations made by both houses of parliament can oust the judges of high court before completion of their tenure on the basis of misconduct or incapability? (A) Chief Justice of India (B) Chief Justice of High Court (C) President on recommendations made by both houses of Parliament (D) Special majority in both houses of Parliament

A

(C) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2012) Exp: Same as above

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169
Q

37.The retired judge of High Court is not permitted to practice as a lawyer in- (A) Supreme Court (B) Any court in India (C) High Courts (D) The High Court where he retired from

A

(D) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2012) Exp: As per provisions of Article-220, after retirement a Judge of High Court can practice as a lawyer in Supreme Court or in a High Court where he or she was not a judge. He or she is not permitted to practice in High Court where he retired from.

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170
Q

“38.Article-222 of the Indian Constitution ““Transfer of a Judge from one High Court to another”” deals with? (A) The Directive Principles of State Policy (B) The Union Government (C) The State Government (D) The fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen”

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-222 deals with Part-VI of constitution which is related to subject matters of state government or machinery. As per provisions of Article-222, President may, after consultation with Chief Justice of India, transfer a judge from one High Court to any other Hight Court.

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171
Q

39.Who is empowered to transfer a Judge from one High Court to another High Court? (A) Chief Justice of India (B) President of India (C) Law Minister of India (D) The Union Cabinet

A

(B) Exp: Same as above

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172
Q

40.Where the High Courts in India first set up? (A) Delhi and Calcutta (B) Bombay Madras Calcutta (C) Bombay Delhi Calcutta (D) Madras and Bombay

A

(B) Exp: Madras High Court in Chennai, Bombay High Court in Mumbai, Calcutta High Court in Kolkata and Allahabad High Court in Allahabad are the oldest four High Courts in India. Among these Calcutta High Court is oldest which was established on 2nd July 1862 through Indian High Courts Act,1861.

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173
Q

41.The Judge of the High Court hold office (A) During the pleasure of the Chief Justice of India (B) Till they have attained 62 years of age (C) Till they have attained 65 years of age (D) As long as they desire

A

(B) Exp: The judge of High Court hold office till they have attained the age of 62 years. Originally the retirement age of judges of High Courts was fixed at 60 but it was raised to 62 in 1963 after 15th amendment of the Constitution.

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174
Q

42.Which amendment act raised the age of retirement for judges of High Court to 62 from 60? (A) 12th (B) 15th (C) 10th (D) 252nd

A

(B) Exp: Same as above

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175
Q

“43.Article-231 of the Indian Constitution ““Establishment of a common High Court for two or more States”” deals with? (A) The State Government (B) The Directive Principles of State Policy (C) The Union Government (D) The fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen”

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-231 of the Indian constitution which is related to the chapter of High Courts in states under Part-VI of constitution, deals with subject matters of State Government or machinery. As per provisions under this article parliament may by law establish a common High Court for two or more states. For example- Punjab and Haryana has a common High Court.

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176
Q

44.The states which have a common High Court are (A) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh (B) Gujarat and Orissa (C) Maharashtra and Goa (D) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan

A

(C) Exp: Currently there are 24 High Courts in India. For Maharashtra and Goa there is a common High Court with the name of Bombay High Court. Punjab and Haryana also have a joint High Court in the name of Punjab and Haryana High Court.

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177
Q

45.Which two states have a common High Court? (A) Himachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh (B) Haryana and Punjab (C) Gujarat and Maharashtra (D) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

A

(B) Exp: Same as above

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178
Q

46.The Judges of High Court are administered oath of office by (A) The Chief Justice of High Court (B) The President of India (C) The Chief Justice of India (D) Governor of the State

A

(D) Exp: Article-219 provides for oath of Judges of High Court. According to this article, every person appointed to be judge of High Court has to subscribe to an oath administered by Governor of the said state or any other person appointed in that capacity to do by him.

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179
Q

47.To become a Judge of the High Court one must be a practicing advocate of the High Court for at least: (A) 20 years (B) 5 years (C) 10 years (D) 15 years

A

(C) Exp: Article-217(2) mentions the required qualification to become a Judge of High Court. According to this Article, any person who is citizen of India and has for at least ten years held a judical office in territory of India or has for at least ten years been an advocate of a High Court or two or more such Courts in succession.

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180
Q

“48.Article-228 of the Indian Constitution ““Transfer of certain cases to High Court”” deals with? (A) The Directive Principles of State Policy (B) The State Government (C) The Union Government (D) The fundamental rights of the Indian Citizen”

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-228 of Indian constitution, which is related to the chapter of High Courts in states under Part-VI of constitution, deals with subject matters of State Government or machinery. This article contains provisions with respect to transfer of certain cases to High Court.

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181
Q

49.A proceeding under Article 226 in case of detention of a person is a (A) Civil proceeding (B) Criminal proceeding (C) Judicial proceeding (D) Statutory proceeding

A

(B) (SSC Combined Matric 1999) Exp: Article-226 of Indian constitution gives the authority to High Courts to issue writs in case of violation of Fundamental Rights and other legal rights. In case of illegal detention of a person, court issues Habeas corpus writ which is part of criminal proceeding.

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182
Q

50.The principal bench of High Court of Madhya Pradesh is located in- (A) Bhopal (B) Jabalpur (C) Gwalior (D) Indore

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2012) Exp: High Court of Madhya Pradesh has its principal bench located at Jabalpur. It has two other benches located at Gwalior and Indore. State of Madhya Pradesh falls under territorial jurisdiction of this High Court.

183
Q

“51.Which of the following High Court declared 1st that ““Shutdown”” is Unconstitutional- (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Kerala (D) Odissa”

A

“(C) (SSC Multi Tasking Exam 2011) Exp: Kerala High Court for the first time in Bharat Kumar vs. State of Kerala Case, 1997 declared ““Bandhs or shut down”” as unconstitutional because of misuse of it. Court declared that apart from being a huge blow to economy, it throw normal life out of gear.”

184
Q

52.Match the followingsUnion Territory Jurisdiction (High Court) A. Puducherry 1. Kerala B. Andaman and 2. Mumbai Nicobar Islands C. Lakshadweep 3. Madras D. Daman and Diu 4. Calcutta A B C D (A) 3 4 1 2 (B) 1 3 4 2 (C) 1 2 3 4 (D) 1 4 3 2

A

(A) (SSC Tax Assist. Exam 2009) Exp: Delhi is the only Union Territory which has an independent High Court as Delhi High Court. Apart from this, Puducherry falls under jurisdiction of Madras High Court, Andaman and Nicobar under Calcutta High Court, Lakshadweep under Kerala High Court, Dadra and Nagar Haveli along with Daman and Diu under Bombay High Court, and Union Territory of Chandigarh under Punjab and Haryana High Court.

185
Q

53.An appeal to the High Court lies in case the Session Court has awarded the punishment of (A) One year or more (B) Two years or more (C) Three years or more (D) Four years or more

A

(D) Exp: Under appellate jurisdiction of High Court, an appeal to the High Court lies in case a Session Court has awarded the punishment of four years or more. Besides this, all cases involving capital punishment awarded by Session Court come to High Court as appeal.

186
Q

54.All of the following are the aims of Lok Adalat, except (A) Secure justice to the weaker sections (B) Mass disposal of the cases (C) Give the power to rule in the hands of the common man (D) Minimize cost and delay

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Lok Adalats are important as an alternative mode of dispute settlement, where disputes pending in Court of law are settled. It is organised by state or district authorities under Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987. A case goes to Lok Adalat if two parties make a joint statement to compromise. Its major aims include securing justice to weaker sections and mass disposal of cases to reduce cost and delay. It does not give power to rule to common man.

187
Q

“55.What is the meaning of ““Public Interest Litigation””? (A) Anything of public interest (B) A case brought by victim to court, involving public interest.(C) A case brought by anyone to court involving public interest. (D) A directive issued by Supreme Court involving public interest”

A

(C) (28 Aug. 2016 (Morning) Exp: There are millions of people who are illiterate, poor and not able to move to Supreme Court to protect their rights. That is why by late 1980’s Supreme Court came up with the idea of Public Interest Litigation (PIL). It is a tool through which anyone who is public spirited can approach to Supreme Court or High Court in public interest on behalf of those whose rights are violated. Justice P.N. Bhagwati and Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer are called pioneers of PIL.

188
Q

56.Who appoints the judges of district courts- (A) Governor (B) Chief Minister (C) Law Minister (D) President

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2013) Exp: As per provisions of Article-233 appointment, posting and promotion of District Judges shall be made by Governor of concerned State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such state.

189
Q

57.District Judge is under the control of (A) State Government (B) High Court (C) Supreme Court (D) Governor

A

(B) Exp: According to provision under Article-235, District Judge, who is responsible for justice at district level through sub-ordinate courts, are under administrative control of High Court of the concerned state. SSC CGL & CPO - 2017

190
Q

58.______________ means that the Supreme Court will reconsider the case and the legal issues involved in it. (A) Original Jurisdiction (B) Writ Jurisdiction (C) Appellate Jurisdiction (D) Advisory Jurisdiction

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: In Appellate Jurisdiction, Supreme Court can reconsider the case, whose verdict is pronounced by subordinate court. Appellate jurisdiction covers criminal, civil and constitutional matters. Appellate Jurisdiction of Supreme Court can be extended by Parliament.

191
Q

59._____________ means cases that can be directly considered by the Supreme Court without going to the lower courts before that. (A) Original Jurisdiction (B) Writ Jurisdiction (C) Appellate Jurisdiction (D) Advisory Jurisdiction

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court means the concerned parties can directly move to the Supreme Court without approaching the lower courts. Supreme Court original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of India and any state or states on one side and one or more states on other or between two or more states.

192
Q

60.Under which of the following jurisdiction can any individual, whose fundamental right has been violated, can directly move the Supreme Court for remedy? (A) Original Jurisdiction (B) Writ Jurisdiction (C) Appellate Jurisdiction (D) Advisory Jurisdiction

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Writ jurisdiction enables an individual or entity to move Supreme Court in case his or her fundamental rights have been violated. There are five major types of writs- Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo warrantor, Certiorari.

193
Q

61.________ means that the President of India can refer any matter that is of public importance or that which invo lves interpretation of Constitution to Supreme Court for advice. (A) Original Jurisdiction (B) Writ Jurisdiction (C) Appellate Jurisdiction (D) Advisory Jurisdiction

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp: Article-143 of Constitution bestows upon Supreme Court advisory jurisdiction. According to the article, the President of India can seek the opinion of Supreme Court on critical laws and facts of public importance.

194
Q

62.High Court of Andaman and Nicobar Islands is located in which state of India? (A) Tamil Nadu (B) West Bengal (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Karnataka

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Andaman and Nicobar Islands come under the legal jurisdiction of Kolkata High Court. There are only 24 High Courts for States and 1 Union Territories. Sometimes more than one state and UT comes within jurisdiction of single High Court.

195
Q

63.Lakshadweep’s High Court is located in which state of India? (A) Tamil Nadu (B) Kerala (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Karnataka

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: High court for Lakshadweep is located in Kerala in name of Ernakulam High Court.

196
Q

1.Which of the following is not a matter of Local Government? (A) Public health (B) Cleanliness (C) Law and order (D) Public utility services

A

(C) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2011) Exp: Local government includes Panchayati Raj Institution and Urban Local Bodies in India. 73rd and 74th Constitutional amendment has accorded some functional matters to Panchayats and Urban Local Bodies respectively. These functional items include Fisheries, Public health, Cleanliness, Public utility services, Cultural activities, Minor forest produce etc. Law and order is a subject under state list which is being managed by state government and not by local government.

197
Q

2.Which of the following is exercised by Local Government in relation with state government? (A) Delegated Authority (B) Higher Authority (C) Independent Authority (D) Equivalent Authority

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2014) Exp: Delegated Authority means assignment of any responsibility or authority to another person or institution to carry out specific activities. In India, State government and legislature may endow the local government with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as institution of self-government.

198
Q

3.Democratic Decentralization means- (A) Union Government (B) Parliamentary Government (C) Democratic Government (D) Local Government

A

(D) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2012) Exp: The term Domocratic Decentralization itself carries the concepts of Democracy which is active participation of people in decision-making and Decentralization which is transfer of power or authority to grassroot level i.e. central to local government. Thus democratic decentralization signifies that people at grossroot level are at the core of decision making through local government.

199
Q

4.Which of the following state had implemented the provision of removal of the elected members of local self-governance institutions- (A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Kerala (C) Haryana (D) Bihar

A

(A) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2015) Exp: Removal of elected members by the people for ineffective administration and incapacity is called Right to Recall. Madhya Pradesh along with Chhatisgarh and Punjab has implemented this provision in local goverance institutions.

200
Q

“5.The ““Recall Provision”” to remove the elected office bearers from the Local Self Government institution has been executed in: (A) Bihar (B) Kerala (C) Haryana (D) Madhya Pradesh”

A

(D) Exp: Same as above

201
Q

6.Which of the following is related with the Panchayati Raj- (A) Shah Commission (B) Nanavati Commission (C) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (D) Librahan Commission

A

(C) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2012) Exp: Balwant Rai Mehta committee which was constituted in 1957 is related with Panchayati Raj in India. Other important committees related to Panchayati Raj are Ashok Mehta Committee (1977), G.V.K. Rao Committee (1985) and L.M. Singhvi Committee (1986).

202
Q

7.The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was associated with— (A) Industrial Policy (B) Banking Reforms (C) Panchayati Raj (D) Centre-State relations

A

(C) Exp: Balwant Rai Mehta committee which is associated with Panchayati Raj was constituted in 1957 to examine the working of Community Development Program (1952) and National Extension Service (1953). This committee proposed for three tier of Panchayati Raj system which included Zila Parishad at district level, Panchayat Samiti at block level and Gram Panchayat at village level.

203
Q

8.Who had proposed the idea of three Tier Panchayati Raj system- (A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (B) Ashok Mehta Committee (C) Royal Commission (D) None of these

A

(A) (SSC CPO Exam 2011) Exp: Same as above

204
Q

9.The Committee appointed in 1977 to review working of the Panchayati Raj was chaired by: (A) Balwant Rai Mehta (B) Ashok Mehta (C) K.N. Katju (D) Jagjivan Ram

A

(B) Exp: In December 1977, the Janata Party Government appointed a committee to review working of Panchayati Raj under Chairmanship of Ashok Mehta. It proposed for two tier Panchayati Raj System which included Zila Parishad at district level and Mandal Panchayat (villages with population of 15000-20,000).

205
Q

10.By which of the following Amendment act of the Indian Constitution, the Panchayati Raj System got the constitutional status - (A) 71st (B) 72nd (C) 73rd (D) 74th

A

(C) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2014) Exp: 73rd Constitutional Amendment, 1992 established and accorded constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institution in India. This act has also added new PartIX and Eleventh Schedule to Constitution. Article-243 to 243(O) contains provisions with respect to Panchayats in India.

206
Q

11.73rd Constitutional amendment is related to- (A) Panchayati Raj (B) Currency Exchange (C) Finance Commission (D) RBI

A

(A) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2015) Exp: Same as above

207
Q

12.By which of the following articles, the Panchayati Raj system was started in India- (A) 32 (B) 40 (C) 45 (D) 51

A

(B) (SSC Stenographer Exam 2010) Exp: Directive provided under Article-40 of constitution which deals with Directive Principles of State Policy, laid the foundation of Panchayati Raj in India. Article-40 states that state shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority which is necessary to enable them to function as units of self government.

208
Q

“13.The term ““Gram Sabha”” denotes- (A) Senior citizens of a Village (B) Population of a Village (C) Electoral college for Panchayat (D) Elected members of Panchayat”

A

(C) (SSC Stenographer Exam 2011, SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2010) Exp: 73rd Amendment of constitution also provides for Gram Sabha at village level as foundation stone of the whole system of governance. It is a village assembly consisting of all registered voters in the area of Panchayat which constitute electoral college for Panchayat.

209
Q

14.Three Tier Panchayati Raj System includes- (A) Village Level Panchayat, Zone Level Panchayat and Panchayat committee (B) District Panchayat, Sub-District Panchayat and Zone Level Panchayat (C) Village Level Panchayat, Block Level Panchayat and District Level Panchayat (D) Village Level Panchayat, Panchayat Committee and District Council

A

(C) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2009) Exp: 73rd Constitutional Amendment provided for three tier Panchayati Raj system. That is Panchayats at village, intermediate(Block) and district level. This act brings about uniformity in structure of Panchayats throughout the country. However, condition to constitute panchayats at intermediate level is exempted for states with population less than 20 lakhs.

210
Q

15.Which of the following is not a Panchayati Raj Institution? (A) Gram Sabha (B) Gram Panchayat (C) Gram Cooperative society (D) Nyaya Panchayat

A

(C) Exp: Gram Sabha(Village Council) which is village assembly consisting of all registered voters, Gram Panchayat(Village Panchayat) which is an institution of local self government at village level and Nyaya Panchayat(Judicial Panchayat) which is a system of dispute resolution at village level in India are part of Panchayati Raj Institution. Gram(Village) co-operative society is not a Panchayati Raj Institution.

211
Q

16.Which of the following is not a Panchayati raj institution- (a) Village Council (b) Village Panchayat (C) Village Co-Operative Society (D) Judicial Panchayat

A

(C) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2009) Exp: Same as above

212
Q

17.Wh ich of the two states had f irst ly implemented Panchayati Raj System- (A) Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan (B) Assam and Bihar (C) Arunachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh (D) Punjab and Chandigarh

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2013) Exp: Prime Minister Jawahar Lal Nehru inaugurated three Tier Panchayati Raj System on 2nd October 1959 in Nagaur district of Rajasthan. Andhra Pradesh became the second state to implement it in November 1959.

213
Q

18.Rajasthan is the first state which- (A) Implemented Local Self-Governance (B) Started Mandal System (C) Started direct election of chairperson (D) Started indirect election of chairperson

A

(A) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2012) Exp: Same as above

214
Q

19.Which of the following Indian States first adopted the 3-tier Panchayati Raj system? (A) Bihar (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Rajasthan (D) Madhya Pradesh

A

(C) Exp: Same as above

215
Q

20.The Panchayati Raj was first adopted by which of the following states? (A) Haryana (B) Rajasthan (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Karnataka

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Same as above

216
Q

21.Which of the following ensures grassroot democracy in India- (A) Panchayati raj (B) Inter-state council (C) President (D) CAG

A

(A) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2012) Exp: The term Panchayati Raj in India signifies the system of rural local self government. It has been established in all states of India by Acts of State Legislatures to build democracy at grassroot level.

217
Q

22.The 3-tier of the Panchayati Raj System consists of (A) Gram Sabha, Anchal Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti (B) Janapad Panchayat, Taluka Panchayat, Anchal Panchayat (C) Gram Panchayat,Block and Panchayat Samiti, Zilla Parishad (D) Gram Sabha, Panchayat Samiti, Zilla Parishad

A

(C) Exp: India has adopted for 3-Tier Panchayati Raj System. These are Gram Panchayat at village level, Block Panchayat or Panchayat Samiti at intermediate or block level, Zilla Parishad at district level.

218
Q

23.What is the system of Local Self Government in the Panchayati Raj set up? (A) Four tier system at the village, block, district and State level (B) Three tier structure at village, block and district level (C) Two tier system at village and block level (D) Single tier set up at village level

A

(B) Exp: Same as above

219
Q

24.Panchayati Raj system has an Intermediate tier known as _________. (A) Gram Panchayat (B) Zila Parishad (C) Sarpanch Panchayat (D) Panchayat Samiti

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Same as above

220
Q

25.Panchayati Raj system is based on the principle of (A) Centralisation (B) Decentralisation (C) Both of these (D) None of these

A

“(B) Exp: Panchayati Raj system is based on principle of decentralisation of power i.e. transfer of power or authority to grassroot level. Lord Mayo’s resolution (1870) initiated the process of decentralization in India. Whereas Lord Rippon’s resolution (1882) who is also called ““Father of Local Self Government”” laid foundations of local self government in India.”

221
Q

26.Which is an example of direct democracy in India? (A) Zila Panchayat (B) Nagar Panchayat (C) Gram Sabha (D) Kshetra Panchayat

A

(C) Exp: Direct democracy is when people directly participate in decision making or policy initiatives. Gram Sabha which is village assembly consisting of all registered voters in area of Panchayat, as foundation stone of whole system of Panchayati Raj, through Village Panchayats or local government ensures that decision making power is with people i.e. direct democracy.

222
Q

27.What is the structure of panchayati Raj? (A) Zilla Panchayat Block Panchayat Gram Panchayat Gram Sabha (B) Khap Panchayat Zilla Panchayat Block Panchayat Gram Panchayat Gram Sabha (C) Khap Panchayat Zilla Panchayat Block Panchayat Gram Panchayat (D) Nagar Panchayat Zilla Panchayat Block Panchayat Gram Panchayat Gram Sabha

A

(A) Exp: Through three tier structure of Panchayats, India provided for democratic decentralization and grassroot democracy. Three tier includes Zila Panchayat at district level, Block Panchayat or Panchayat Samiti at block or intermediate level and Gram Panchayat at village level. Though Gram Sabha is not a tier of Panchayati Raj System, at village level it works as foundation stone of whole system of Panchayati Raj. It works as recommending body only.

223
Q

28.Which of the following is not an administrative function of a Village Panchayat? (A) Providing sanitation and drainage (B) Providing burial and cremation grounds (C) Providing college education (D) Maintenance of road

A

(C) Exp: Under Article-243(G) Panchayats in India has been conferred with 29 functional items to work at. These include providing sanitation and drainage, providing burial and cremation grounds, maintenance of roads, welfare of weaker sections, rural housing, fisheries etc. It also includes adult and non-formal education but does not include college education.

224
Q

29.Wh ich of the fol low ing const itutional Amendments gave a constitutional status to Urban Bodies- (A) 73rd (B) 74th (C) 71st (D) 72nd

A

(B) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2014) Exp: 74th Constitutional Amendment Act gave constitutional status to Urban Local Bodies in India. This also added Part-IX(A) and Twelfth Schedule in the constitution. Act provides for three types of Municipalities in every state - (i) Nagar Panchayat for a transitional area (ii) Municipal Council for smaller urban area. (iii) Municipal Corporation for larger Urban Area.

225
Q

30.The State Election Commission conducts, controls and supervises Municipal elections under (A) Article 240 (1) (B) Article 243 (ZA) (C) Article 243 (K) (D) Article 245 (D)

A

(B) Exp: Article-243(K) provides for elections to Panchayats. This article establishes the State Election Commission for superintendence, direction and control of elections to Panchayats. Whereas Article-243(ZA) deals with election to municipalities which is to be conducted under superintendence, direction and control of State Election Commission. SSC CGL & CPO 2017

226
Q

31.Who is the head of Municipal Corporation? (A) Prime Minister (B) Sarpanch (C) Governor (D) Mayor

A

(D) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: The head of Municipal Corporation is Mayor. Municipal corporation and urban local bodies came into effect after 74th amendment in the constitution. Municipal corporation are autonomous bodies aimed to provide civic services like drinking water, sanitation, sewerage etc.

227
Q

32.Programme for capacity building of Elected Women Representatives (EWRs) of panchayats has been launched at _____. (A) Nagaur, Rajasthan (B) Ranchi, Jharkhand (C) Patna, Bihar (D) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Programme for capacity building of elected women representatives of panchayat has been launched at Ranchi, Jharkand. The programme was launched by Ministry of Women & Child Development in collaboration with Ministry of Panchayati Raj. The programme aimed for empowerment and emancipation of women.

228
Q

1.How many types of emergency is provisioned in the constitution- (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

A

“(C) (SSC Data Entry Operator Exam 2008, SSC Section Officer Exam 2007) Exp: Constitution has empowered President to proclaim three types of Emergency. The expression, ““Proclamation of Emergency”” as used in Article-352 refers to emergency of first type i.e. National Emergency. Second type of emergency is mentioned under Article-356 as State Emergency or President’s rule. And the third type of emergency is referred as ““Financial Emergency”” under Article-360”

229
Q

2.The President of India enjoys emergency powers of (A) four types (B) two types (C) five types (D) three types

A

(D) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: Same as above

230
Q

3.According to the Indian Constitution, who has the power to declare emergency? (A) Prime Minister (B) President (C) Chief Justice (D) Parliament

A

(B) (10 Sep. 2016 (Afternoon)) Exp: Same as above

231
Q

4.Wh ich of the sets of Artic les dea l with ‘Emergency Provision’? (A) Articles 32 and 226 (B) Articles 350 and 351 (C) Articles 352, 356 and 360 (D) Articles 335, 336 and 337

A

(C) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp:Article-352, 356 and 360 deal with emergency provisions. Article-352 talks about National Emergency whereas Article-356 deals with State Emergency or President’s rule and Article-360 defines provisions for Financial Emergency.

232
Q

5.Under wh ich artic le of constitution, proc lamation of Nationa l Emergency is declared- (A) Article 352 (B) Article 356 (C) Article 360 (D) Article 361

A

(A) (SSC Matric Level Exam2006) Exp: National emergency in India can be declared under the provisions of Article-352. As per provisions of this article, if the country is threatened by war or external aggression or internal armed rebellion, National Emergency can be imposed by President for 6 months at a time. It can be declared for whole of country or part of it.

233
Q

6.Under which Article of the constitution can an Emergency be declared in India on account of war or external aggression? (A) Article 356 (B) Article 352 (C) Article 353 (D) Article 354

A

(B) (SSC Sect. Offi. Audit 2003) Exp: Same as above

234
Q

7.The National Emergency in India can be declared by the President of India due to the external aggression or armed revolt through (A) Article-352 (B) Article-356 (C) Article-360 (D) Article-368

A

(A) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002)) Exp: Same as above

235
Q

8.If the President declares emergency then this proclamation must be approved by the Parliament within _____. (A) 1 year (B) 6 months (C) 3 months (D) one month

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Proclamation of imposition of National Emergency by President should be laid before both the houses of parliament and must be approved by them within one month after the proclamation is made. It is enforced for 6 months from the date of approval by parliament.

236
Q

9.A proclamation of emergency, under Article 352, on account of war or aggression requires approval of the parliament within (A) One month (B) Two months (C) Four months (D) Six months

A

(A) (SSC Tax Ass., Income Tax & Central Excise) 2007) Exp: Same as above

237
Q

10.What is the period with in wh ich a proclamation of national emergency made by the President is to be placed before each house of the Parliament for approv-al? (A) Within one month (B) Within two months(C) Within four months (D) Within six months

A

(A) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: Same as above

238
Q

11.The Pre sident o f Ind ia can issue a proclamation of National Emergency only on the written recommendation of (A) The Prime Minister (B) The Cabinet consisting of only Cabinet Ministers of the Union (C) The Council of Ministers of the Union (D) Parliament

A

(B) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp:44th Amendment of constitution established that President can issue a proclamation of National Emergency only when the decision of Union Cabinet (i.e. Cabinet consisting of Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank appointed under Article-75) is conveyed to him in writing.

239
Q

12.How many times have the President declared National emergency- (A) Once (B) Twice (C) Thrice (D) Never

A

(C) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2006) Exp: There have been three proclamations of National Emergency by President in India. In October 1962, at the time of Chinese aggression, it was proclaimed for the first time. Second time, in the wake of war with Pakistan, it was declared in December 1971. In June 1975, during the Prime-Ministership of Indira Gandhi, it was proclaimed for the third time for internal disturbance.

240
Q

13.In India, which kind of emergency has been imposed only once- (A) Internal disturbance emergency (B) President’s rule (C) External situation emergency (D) Financial emergency

A

“(A) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2011) Exp: While the proclamations of National Emergency in 1962 and 1971 were made on the ground of ““External aggression””, the third proclamation of emergency was made on the ground of ““Internal disturbance”” in 1975. Financial Emergency has never been imposed whereas President’s rule has been imposed more than a hundred times.”

241
Q

14.Which period below depicts internal emergency in India under article 352? (A) 26th June, 1974 to 23rd March, 1976 (B) 25th June, 1975 to 21st March, 1977 (C) 20th June, 1975 to 20th March, 1977 (D) 21st June, 1976 to 21st March, 1974

A

(B) (SSC CPO SI, ASI 2016) Exp: Under the provisions of Article-352, National Emergency was declared for internal disturbance from the period of 25th June, 1975 to 21st March, 1977 by the then President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad during the PrimeMinistership of Indira Gandhi.

242
Q

15.Under which Article was Emergency in India declared in 1975? (A) Article 1 (B) Article 152 (C) Article 286 (D) Article 352

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Same as above

243
Q

16.At the time of emergency in 1975, who was serving as the President of India? (A) Morarji Desai (B) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed (C) V P Singh (D) Indira Gandhi

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Same as above

244
Q

17.Which year did President declare National emergency on internal dispute- (A) 1962 (B) 1965 (C) 1971 (D) 1975

A

“(D) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2011) Exp: President of India has declared National Emergency thrice. First two proclamations of emergency were made on ground of ““External aggression”” in 1962 and 1975 respectively. Third proclamation of National Emergency was made on ground of ““internal dispute”” in 1975.”

245
Q

18.During emergency imposed under Article-352, which of the following constitutional provisions stands suspended? (A) Directive Principles of State Policy (B) Amendment Procedures (C) Fundamental Rights (D) Judicial Review

A

(C) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp:During the proclamation of National Emergency under Article-352, Fundamental rights of citizens can be suspended. Article-19 is automatically suspended in case of emergency on grounds of war or external aggression whereas all other Fundamental Rights except rights under Article-20 and 21 can be suspended by President through a separate proclamation.

246
Q

19.During an emergency all of the following fundamental rights are suspended, except (A) Freedom of association (B) Freedom of speech and Expression (C) Personal liberty (D) Freedom of assembly without arms

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: During the proclamation of emergency under Article- 352, all fundamental rights except rights under Article- 20 and 21 which deal with protection while conviction for offences and right to life and personal liberty respectively, are suspended.

247
Q

20.A law can be enacted, or executive order issued, even contrary to Article-19, during proclamation of emergency. (A) Casued by war or external aggression (B) Caused by internal armed rebellion (C) Casued by constitutional breakdown (D) Caused by financial crisis

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 2011) Exp: As per provisions of Article-358, during National Emergency imposed due to war or external aggression, rights under Article-19 will be automatically suspended. This means any law can be enacted or executive order issued, even contrary to Article-19 during proclamation of emergency.

248
Q

21.Wh ich of the fo llowing pa ir is correct ly matched- (A) Indra Sawhney case - rights of women at work place (B) ADM Jabalpur - rights of citizens in emergency (C) Kartar singh case - rights of minorities (D) Vishakha case - centre-state relation

A

(B) (SSC CPO Exam 2015) Exp: Indra Sawhney vs. Union of India case is related to reservation to other backward classes in India. Vishakha case is related to rights of women at work place. Kartar Singh case is related to prevention of unlawful activities. Whereas ADM Jablapur case, also known as Habeas corpus case, is related to rights of citizens during emergency.

249
Q

22.Which among the following Article of the Ind ian Constitution provide s for State emergency and suspend s constitutiona l arrangement in a State? (A) Article-352 (B) Article-356 (C) Article-389 (D) Article- 392

A

(B) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: As per provisions under Article-356, if President, on receipt of report from Governor of State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which Government of state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, he may issue a proclamation of State Emergency. By proclamation, President can dismiss State Government. State Legislative Assembly can be suspended or dissolved.

250
Q

23.Under which of the following articles, president can make the proclamation of emergency in failure of constitutional machinery in any state- (A) 352 (B) 356 (C) 360 (D) 350

A

(B) (SSC CPO Exam 2011) Exp: Same as above

251
Q

24.Which article specif ies Imposition of President’s Rule in States? (A) Article 356 (B) Article 343 (C) Article 51A (D) Article 80

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-356 of constitution of India refers to imposition of President’s rule or State Emergency. As per provisions of this article, if President feels that State Government is not functioning in accordance to provisions of Constitution, State Government can be dismissed and State Legislative Assembly can be suspended or dissolved.

252
Q

25.The President’s Rule is imposed on a State in India, when (A) The State Cabinet of Ministers resigns (B) The Governor of the State dies (C) The elections are announced (D) There is a Constitutional breakdown

A

(D) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: Same as above

253
Q

26.What is the maximum period upto which a proclamation issued by the President under Article 356 of the Constitution and approved/ extended by the Parliament may, normally, remain in force? (A) Six months (B) One year (C) Two years (D) Untill it is repealed by the Parliament

A

(A) (SSC Sect. Offic. Audit 2003) Exp: State Emergency declared under the provision of Article-356 by President must be approved by Parliament within two months. After approval by parliament, it may remain in operation for not more than 6 months from the date of proclamation unless after 6 months parliament extends it. Parliament can extend it by approval after every six months. It can be withdrawn anytime by President.

254
Q

27.In case State emergency is declared, it needs Parliamentary approval after every _____. (A) 6 months (B) 1 year (C) 2 years (D) 3 years

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Same as above

255
Q

28.A Financial Emergency can be declared by applying (A) Article-360 (B) Article 361 (C) Artilce 370 (D) Article 371

A

(A) (SSC Tax Assi., Income Tax Central Excise 2008) Exp: President of India can impose Financial Emergency by applying Article-360 if he or she is satisfied that there is an economic situation in which financial stability or credit of India or any part of it, is threatened. A proclamation under this article must be approved by Parliament within two months with simple majority. Once approved, it will remain in force till the President revokes it

256
Q

29.Under which Article of the constitution, the President of India can declare the financial emergency- (A) Article 360 (B) Article 356 (C) Article 364 (D) Article352

A

(A) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2013, SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2008) Exp: Same as above

257
Q

30.Which type of emergency has not been declared so far in India? (A) Internal emergency caused due to internal disturbances (B) External emergency caused due to external threat (C) State emergency, caused due to failure of constitutional machinery in the state (D) Financial Emergency

A

(D) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: Financial Emergency under Article-360 has never been imposed in India so far. Whereas Internal and External emergency which are part of National Emergency have been imposed once and twice respectively. State Emergency has been declared more than a hundred times.

258
Q

31.In India, how many times has the President declared financial emergency- (A) Never (B) Two times (C) Three times (D) Once

A

(A) (SSC CPO Exam 2015, SSC Matric Level 2002) Exp: Same as above

259
Q

32.During Financial Emergency all money bills passed by the state legislature are to be reserved for the consideration of the A) Governor (B) Prime Minister (C) Parliament (D) President

A

(D) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: During the proclamation of Financial Emergency, there is a provision that all money bills or financial bills passed by state legislature are to be reserved for consideration of President. And also salaries and allowances of all or any class of person serving under State or Union can be reduced or curtailed.

260
Q

33.Indian Constitution can be amended according to the procedure laid down in the following Article (A) Article 368 (B) Article 345 (C) Article 351 (D) Article 333

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 20160) Exp: Constitution of India under Article-368 confers power to Parliament to amend the constitution and provides for its procedure. Amendment of constitution means addition, variation or repealing of any provision of this constitution.

261
Q

34.Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with (A) Emergency Provisions (B) Right to primary Education (C) Right to Information (D) Amending Procedure

A

(D) (SSC Steno. Grade C & D 2016) Exp: Same as above

262
Q

35.An amendment of the constitution may be initiated (A) By introduction by the President of India. (B) By introduction of a Bill in Rajya Sabha. (C) By the Governors of States. (D) By the introduction of a bill in either House of Parliament.

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: An amendment of constitution may be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either house of parliament. It can be introduced by a minister or a private member. It is to be noted that constitutional amendment bill can only be introduced in Parliament and not in State Legislature.

263
Q

36.The majority of the provisions of the Indian Constitution can be amended (A) By the State Legislatures acting together (B) By the Parliament alone (C) With the joint approval of the Parliament and State Legislatures (D) Only on ratification by half of the States

A

(B) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: Though there are some provisions of constitution which can be amended only after an address by both the houses of parliament and ratification by half of the states. But majority of provisions of constitution can be amended by Parliament alone by passing the bill with special majority.

264
Q

37.The first General Election in India and first Amendment to the Constitution was held in: (A) 1949 (B) 1950 (C) 1951 (D) 1952

A

(C) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: First General Election in India and first Constitutional Amendment, both were held in 1951. First amendment to the constitution added Ninth Schedule in the constitution.

265
Q

38.In which year did the first amendment of Indian Constitution take place? (A) 1951 (B) 1950 (C)1948 (D) 1949

A

(A) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: Same as above

266
Q

“39.Wh ich of the fol low ing const itutional Amendment is known as ““Mini constitution””- (A) 7th Constitutional Amendment Act 1956 (B) 24th Constitutional Amendment Act 1971 (C) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976 (D) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act 1978”

A

(C) (SSC CHSL Exam 2013) Exp: 42nd Amendment Act which was passed in 1976 during the Prime-Minstership of Indira-Gandhi is also known as Mini Constitution. It was the most comprehensive amendment carried out so far and made fundamental changes in the constitutional structure. It made changes in Preamble, incorporated Fundamental Duties, asserted primacy of Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights, provided for administrative tribunal etc.

267
Q

40.By which Amendment were ‘Fundamental Duties’ added to the Constitution? (A) 40th Amendment (B) 42nd Amendment (C) 44th Amendment (D) 45th Amendment

A

(B) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: Fundamental Duties were added into constitution by 42nd Amendment of constitution. This amendment act added 10 fundamental duties into constitution. 11th fundamental duty of parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child was added by 86th Amendment Act of 2002.

268
Q

41.By which Constitutional Amendment Bill, did the Parliament lower the voting age from 21 to 18 years? (A) 42nd (B) 44th (C) 61st (D) 73rd

A

(C) (SSC C.G.L Pre. 2002) Exp: 61st Amendment Act, 1989 reduced the voting age form 21 to 18 years for the Lok Sabha as well as for Assembly elections.

269
Q

42.Which of the following constitutional Amendment Act, deals with the Elementary Education as a Fundamental Right? (A) 84th Amendment Act (B) 85th Amendment Act (C) 86th Amendment Act (D) 87th Amendment Act

A

(C) (1 Sep. 2016 (Morning)) Exp:86th Amendment Act, 2002 provided fundamental right to Elementary Education. This amendment added Article-21(A) under Part-III of constitution. This article provides for right of free and compulsory education to all children between the age of 6 to 14 years.

270
Q

43.Which Constitutional Amendment Act deals with the disqualification of MPs and MLAs? (A) 42nd Amendment act (B) 52nd Amendment Act (C) 62nd Amendment Act (D) 32nd Amendment Act

A

(B) (7 Sep. 2016 (Afternoon)) Exp: 52nd Amendment Act introduced Anti-Defection law which deals with disqualification of MPs and MLAs in case of defection. This amendment also added 10th Schedule to the constitution.

271
Q

44.Which of the following feature of the Indian constitution cannot be amended under article 368. (A) Sovereignty, Territorial integrity, Federal system, Judicial review (B) Sovereignty, Territorial integrity, Parliamentary form of government (C) Judicial review, and Federal system (D) Sovereignty, Territorial integrity, Federal system, Judicial review, and Parliamentary form

A

(D) Exp: Parliament has the power to amend the constitution subject to the basic structure of constitution. Sovereignty, Territorial integrity, Federal system, Judicial review and Parliamentary form of government all are elements of foundation of Republic of India which form basic feature of constitution and cannot be amended.

272
Q

45.Which of the following amendment act is related to goods and services tax (GST)? (A) 101st (B) 118th (C) 257th (D) 94th

A

(A) Exp: 101st Amendment Act and 122nd Constitutional Amendment Bill provided for Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India. It is an indirect tax which replaced multiple cascading taxes levied by Central and State Governments. It is applicable throughout the India. SSC CGL & CPO 2017

273
Q

46.Which article of Indian constitution has the provision for National Emergency? (A) Article 350 (B) Article 352 (C) Article 312 (D) Article 280

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp:Article-352 of constitutional deals with National Emergency. President can promulgate on emergency in case of war, external aggression or armed rebellion. Proclamation of National Emergency needs to be approved by Parliament within one month.

274
Q

47.Under which article, President of India can proclaim constitutional emergency? (A) Article 32 (B) Article 349 (C) Article 356 (D) Article 360

A

(C)Exp: Under Article-356 of the constitution, President if satisfied that state government is not carried out in accordance with the law, can declare constitutional emergency in state. The article was first time used in Punjab in 1954.

275
Q

48.__________ amends the Constitution. (A) Ministry of Defence (B) Prime Minister’s Office (C) Parliament (D) Securities and Exchange Board of India

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2017) Exp:Only Parliament has the mandate to amend the Constitution of India. However, there are certain provisions which can be amended only after obtaining two-third majority of strength of both the Houses and ratification of half the number of states. Eg. Any modification in Election of President and Vice President, Tax structures (Like GST).

276
Q

49.Which among the following can be amended only by special majority in India? (A) Admission of New State (B) Salaries and allowances of Member of Parliament (C) Allowances of the President (D) Amendment of the Constitution via article 368

A

(D) (SSC CP0 2017) Exp: Amendment of constitution requires special majority which includes two-third of the majority of total strength of house. The constitutional amendment bill can be initiated in either house of Parliament.

277
Q

50.Which of the following can be amended by special majority? (A) Directive Principles of State Policy (B) Rules of Procedure in Parliament (C) Admission of new state (D) Use of English language in Parliament

A

(A) (SSC CP0 2017) Exp: Directive Principles of State Policy contained in PartIV of the constitution and can only be amended by special majority. DPSP are borrowed from Ireland. DPSP are used as a yard stick to measure the performance of govt Unlike Fundamental Rights, DPSP are not enforceable in court.

278
Q

51.For how much time Financial Emergency can be proclaimed? (A) 6 months (B) 12 months (C) 24 months (D) No maximum period

A

(D) (SSC CP0 2017) Exp: Financial emergency under Article 360 can remain operational for indefinite period of time until revoked by President. However, President declaration on Financial Emergency need to be approved by Parliament within two months. So far it has not been declared in India.

279
Q

1.In which of the following state matter, centre can formulate any law with prior discussion with the state- (A) Assam (B) Rajasthan (C) Jammu and Kashmir (D) Kerala

A

(C) (SSC FCI Exam 2012) Exp: Under Article-370, the Central government can formulate any law for the state of Jammu and Kashmir only after prior discussion with the government of the State. In case of Jammu and Kashmir, the power of Parliament to make laws for state are limited. While appointing the Governor, President should consult with the State. Article-352 can be partially applicable to Jammu and Kashmir. Preventive detention has no automatic extension to Jammu and Kashmir and Residuary powers lies with the States and not with the Centre.

280
Q

2.Article-370 of constitution is applicable on which state- (A) Nagaland (B) Mizoram (C) Manipur (D) Jammu and Kashmir

A

(D) (SSC CPO Exam 2005) Exp: Article-370 contains temporary and special provisions with respect to the state of Jammu and Kashmir. Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution.

281
Q

“3.What kind of right is ““Right to vote””- (A) Human right (B) Civil right (C) Natural right (D) Political right”

A

(D) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level Exam 2013) Exp: Constitution of India provides for right to vote under Article-326. According to this article, a person above the age of 18 years has the right to vote in elections in India. This right to vote is political in nature.

282
Q

4.Which of the following is a Political right- (a) Right to work (B) Right to education (C) Right to expression (D) Right to vote

A

(D) (SSC Multi Tasking Exam 2013) Exp: Political rights enable people to participate in establishment or administration of government. Right to vote, through which people participate in establishment of government, is a part of political right.

283
Q

5.According to Indian constitution, which of the following is a Constitutional Body- (A) Finance Commission (B) National Development Council (C) Planning Commission (D) None of these

A

(A) (SSC Multi Tasking CPO 2004, 13) Exp: Article-280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a Quasi-Judicial body. It is constituted by the President of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary.

284
Q

6.How many years after a Finance Commission is constituted by the President- (A) 4 years (B) 5 years (C) 6 years (D) None of these

A

(B) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2012) Exp: Same as above

285
Q

7.Who constitutes the Finance Commission- (A) Finance Minister (B) Prime Minister (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha (D) President

A

(D) (SSC F.C.I. Exam, SSC Matric Level Exam 1999) Exp: Same as above

286
Q

8.The First Finance Commission was constituted in- (A) 1950 (B) 1951 (C) 1952 (D) 1954

A

(B) (SSC Matric Level Exam 2008) Exp: The first Finance Commission was constituted in 1951. K.C. Neogi was Chairman of this commission which consisted of four other members.

287
Q

9.President constitutes which of the following bodies for the distribution of resources between Centre and States- (A) Finance Commission (B) Planning Commission (C) Taxation Commission (D) Tariff Commission

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam, 2014) Exp: As per provisions under Article-280(3), Finance Commission has the duty to make recommendations to President regarding distribution of taxes or resources between Centre and States. It also has the duty to recommend President, the principles that should govern the Grant-in-Aid to States by Center.

288
Q

10.Who does the financial distribution of the resources between Centre and States- (A) Planning Commission (B) Interstate Council (C) Finance Commission (D) Finance Minister

A

(C) (SSC Stenographer Exam 2005) Exp: Same as above

289
Q

11.On the recommendations of which of the followings, the Grants-in-aid is provided to States by Centre- (A) Planning Commission (B) Finance Minister (C) Finance Commission (D) National Development Council

A

(C) (SSC CPO Exam 2012) Exp: Same as above

290
Q

12.Who appoints the members of Union Public Service Commission- (A) Law Minister (B) President (C) Prime Minister (D) Chief Justice

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2014) Exp: Under the provisions of Article-316, the Chairman and other members of a Public Service Commission shall be appointed, in the case of the Union Commission or a Joint Commission, by the President, and in the case of a State Commission, by the Governor of the State.

291
Q

13.Who are included in National Development Council- (A) All members of Central Cabinet (B) Chief Minister of all States (C) All members of Cabinet of States and Centre (D) Members of Estimates Committee

A

(*) (SSC FCI Exam 2012) Exp: National Development Council was set up in 1952. Prime Minister is the Chairman of NDC. Members of Planning Commission, all Central Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of States are its members. It was created with an aim to strengthen and mobilize effort and resources of nation for balanced and rapid development of country. It is an extra constitutional and non-statutory body.

292
Q

14.Who is the Chairman of National Integration Council- (A) Prime Minister (B) Finance Minister (C) Home Minister (D) President of India

A

(A) (SSC Multi Tasking Exam 2011) Exp: NIC was set up in 1961 by the then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to fight against Racism, Communalism and Regionalism. The Prime Minister is the Chairman of NIC.

293
Q

15.Under which of the following Article of Indian constitution, the verdict of Central Administrative Tribunal can be challenged in Supreme Court- (A) 323 A (B) 329 (C) 343 C (D) 343 K

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2013) Exp: Article-323(A) of the Constitution provides for the establishment of administrative tribunals which can be created by an act of Parliament for the adjudication of disputes relating to the recruitment and conditions of service of government servants. Any verdict of this tribunal can be challenged in Supreme Court.

294
Q

16.The National Green Tribunal looks after the cases related with- (A) Criminal Cases (B) Cases related to conservation and security of historical sites (C) Civil Cases (D) Environment and Forest Conservation

A

(D) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2015) Exp: National Green Tribunal was established in 2010 by an act of Parliament. It looks after the matters related with environment and forest conservation. Whereas criminal matters are looked after by Criminal or Session Courts and civil matters by Civil Courts.

295
Q

17.Which of the following body was not set up by constitutional provisions- (A) Finance Commission (B) Planning Commission (C) Union Public Service Commission (D) Election Commission

A

(B) (SSC Tax Asst. .Exam 2007) Exp: Planning Commission was not set up by constitutional provisions. It was set up on 15 March 1950 by an executive order. It was a non-constitutional body and supreme organ of planning for social and economic development. It has been replaced by NITI Ayog in 2015.

296
Q

18.Planning Commission of India was- (A) A Constitutional Body (B) A Free and Autonomous Body (C) A Statutory Body (D) A Non-Constitutional Body

A

(D) (SSC SO, 2006) Exp: Same as above

297
Q

19.When was the Planning Commission set up- (A) 1950 (B) 1951 (C) 1952 (D) 1949

A

(A) (SSC Matric Level, CGL Tier 1 2008, 13) Exp: Same as above

298
Q

20.The term of members of Union Public Service Commission is- (A) 3 years or upto the age of 58 (B) 5 years or upto the age of 60 (C) 6 years or upto the age of 65 (D) 6 years

A

(C) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2007) Exp: As per the provisions of Article-316, the term of members of UPSC is 6 years or upto the age of 65 years whichever is earlier. A person who holds office as member of public service commission, on expiration of his term of office, is ineligible for re-appointment to that office.

299
Q

21.Which of the following is a feature of civil services India- (A) Neutrality and unbiasedness (B) Temporary political executive relations(C) Partiality (D) All of these

A

(A) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2015) Exp: Civil services in India strengthen the executive organ of State. Neutrality and unbiasedness are the important feature of this.

300
Q

22.Any member of Union Public Service Commission can be removed by- (A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Chief Justice of Supreme Court (D) Chairman of UPSC

A

(A) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2006) Exp: As per provisions under Article-317, President can remove the Chairman or members of UPSC from the office if he is adjudged an insolvent, engaged in any paid employment outside his office and unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.

301
Q

23.Bureaucarcy performs- (A) Only Administrative Acts (B) Only Judicial Acts (C) Only Legislative Acts (D) Administrative, Quasi-Judicial and QuasiLegislative Acts

A

(D) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2006) Exp: A bureaucracy is an administrative body of government officals, assigned with the task to implement the government policies at all levels. It is also assigned of Quasi-Judicial and Quasi-Legislative acts due to growing complexities.

302
Q

24.How can a new All India Service be introduced- (A) By doing Amendment in the Constitution (B) By Legislative Command (C) By passing a Resolution under Article 312 (D) By Law

A

(C) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2011) Exp: Under the provisions of Article-312 of the Constitution, any resolution for creation or abolition of an All India Service can only be introduced in Rajya Sabha first. All India Services comprises IAS, IFS and IPS. A common feature is that members are recruited by Centre, but placed under administrative control of State.

303
Q

25.Union public service commission ________ employees of All India Services- (A) Suspends (B) Elects (C) Selects (D) Appoints

A

(C) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2013) Exp: UPSC selects all the personnels of All India Services. It does not has the power to appoint or suspend the personnels of All India Services. They are appointed by President and can be suspended by the respective State Governments.

304
Q

26.Which of the following committee had recommended a report for forming the institution of Lokpal and Lokayukta- (A) First Administrative Reform Commission (B) Gorwala Report (C) Ashok Mehta Committee (D) The Appleby Report

A

(A) (SSC CPO Exam 2015) Exp: The report of first Administrative Reform Commission had recommended the formation of Lokpal and Lokayukta. This commission was established in January 1966. It was presided over by Morarji Desai. Later on, K.Hanumanthaiah became its chairman after Morarji Desai became the Deputy Prime Minister of India.

305
Q

27.On which principle, the General Indian Election is based on- (A) Proportional Representation (B) Regional Representation (C) Executive Representation (D) General Representation

A

(B) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2013) Exp: Article-325 of Indian Constitution provides for the general electoral roll for every territorial constituency for election to the Parliament and the State Legislatures. Members elected through General Election represents a constituency which symbolizes regional representation.

306
Q

28.Under which of the following article the Election Commission was established- (A) Article 355 (B) Article 256 (C) Article 324 (D) Article 320

A

(C) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary 2014) Exp: Article-324 established the office of Election Commission in India. According to this article, power of superintendence, direction and control of elections of Parliament, State Legislatures, the office of President and that of Vice-President of India shall be vested in the Election Commission. Election Commission consists of one Chief Election Commissioner and such other number of Election Commissioners as decided by the President from time to time.

307
Q

29.In which year, the Anti-Defection Law was passed by Indian parliament-(A) 1984 (B) 1985 (C) 1986 (D) 1988

A

(B) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Exam 2012) Exp: 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985 provided for provisions related to anti-defection in India. It laid down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection. All decisions related to disqualification for defection are being taken by the presiding officer of the concerned house, whose decision is final. However, the decision of presiding officer is subject to Judicial Review.

308
Q

30.What is the meaning of ‘Right to Vote’- (A) To pass such laws which can punish people (B) Right to vote to elect a representative in election (C) Right to vote rich (D) Right to vote poor only

A

(B)Exp: Right to vote means to vote for electing a representative for democratic governance system. Initially the age to vote in elections in India was 21 years. But after 61st amendment of constitution, it was reduced to 18 years(enforced on 29 March 1989) as mentioned under Article-326.

309
Q

31.The National Political Party is one which has attained 6% of total vote in- (A) Two or more states (B) Capital (C) Four or more states (D) All states

A

(C) (SSC section off Exam 2007) Exp: As mentioned under Representation of People Act, 1951, any party can be recognized as a National Party if it secures six percent of total valid votes polled in four or more States at a General Election to the Lok Sabha or to the Legislative Assembly and in addition, it wins four seats in the Lok Sabha from any State or States. National Parties are entitled to use a symbol for its candidates across the country.

310
Q

32.How many percent votes should a party get to be registered as a National Party- (A) 1% (B) 3% (C) 6% (D) 7%

A

(C) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2011) Exp: Same as above

311
Q

33.The money of candidates for Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly is forfeited- (A) When he loses the election (B) When he could not secure 1/4 votes (C) When he could not secure 1/5 votes (D) When he could not secure 1/6 votes

A

(D) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2007) Exp: If a candidate secures less than one-sixth of total valid votes in election of Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly, his/her money which is submitted to the Returning Officer as a security while filing nomination, will be forfeited.

312
Q

34.The ‘Right to Vote’ in elections of the parliament is a- (A) Fundamental Right (B) Constitutional Right (C) Legal Right (D) Natural Right

A

(C) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2006) Exp: Right to vote is a legal right. It is an universal adult suffrage which means every person who has attained the age of 18 years and is not barred by any law, has the right to caste his/her vote.

313
Q

35.Constitutional Majestic means- (A) Constitution defined by the king (B) Drafting of constitution by the king (C) Election of king by the people (D) Use of power by king under the ambit of constitution

A

(D) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2015) Exp: Constitutional Majestic means a government in which the King is the head of the constitutional State e.g.- United Kingdom.

314
Q

36.Who was the second Chief Election Commissioner of India- (A) Sukumar Sen (B) S.P.Sen Verma (C) K.V.K.Sundaram (D) T.Swaminathan

A

(C) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2013) Exp: K.V.K.Sundaram was the second Chief Election Commissioner of India. His term was from 1958 to 1967.

315
Q

37.The Model Code of Conduct, issued by the Election Commission of India for conduct of political parties and candidates during elections, is- (A) A command by the Supreme Court of India (B) Agreement between all registered political parties (C) Stipulated in Constitution (D) Specified in the Representation of the People Act, 1951

A

(B) (SSC CPO Exam 2012) Exp: Election Commission of India’s Model Code of Conduct is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India for conduct of political parties and candidates during elections mainly with respect of speech, polling day, polling booths, election manifestos, processions and general conduct. All parties after agreement have given consent to the Election Commission to take disciplinary action against a candidate or party in case of violation of Model Code of Conduct.

316
Q

38.Which of the following does not fall under the juridiction of Election Commission- (A) Election of Prime Minister of India (B) Election of the President (C) Recognition to political parties (D) Allocation of signs to political parties

A

(A) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2011) Exp: As mentioned under Article-324, election of President is the responsibility of Election Commission. Recognition to political parties and allocation of signs to political parties fall under the jurisdiction of Election Commission under Representation of People Act, 1951. Election of Prime Minister does not fall under jurisdiction of election commission rather Prime Minister is nominated by the members of political party having majority in Lok Sabha.

317
Q

39.Which was the first state in India to conduct the Election during delimitation- (A) Tamilnadu (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Kerala (D) Karnataka

A

(D) (SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level 2014) Exp: Karnataka held the election in 2008 during the delimitation. Delimitation implies demarcation of electoral constituencies based on population census.

318
Q

“40.Who said that ““I don’t accept a politics without religion””- (A) Jawahar Lal Nehru (B) Gandhi(C) Vinoba Bhave (D) Jaiprakash Narayan”

A

“(B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2014) Exp: According to Gandhiji, without religion the idea of polity is quite unimaginable. In this context, he believed that religion should continue to remain a method and medium of our work. The word religion does not refer to extremist ideologies. It only means faith in particular moral system. That is why, Mahatma Gandhi said that ““I don’t accept politics without religion”””

319
Q

“41.To whom, ““The Union Public Service Commission presents its report””- (A) President (B) Parliament (C) Lok Sabha (D) Rajya Sabha”

A

(A) (SSC CHSL Exam 201(D) Exp: According to provisions under Article-323, it shall be the duty of UPSC to present a report of the work done by the commission to President annually. Thereafter, President shall cause the report to be tabelled in Parliament.

320
Q

42.When was National Commission for Minorities established- (A) 1980 (B) 1989 (C) 1990 (D) 1992

A

(D) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2012) Exp: The Union Government set up the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. National Minority Commission was set up to safeguard the interest of minorities, identified on basis of language or religion. The Commission consists of Chairperson, Vice Chairman and 5 other members to be nominated by President.

321
Q

43.Who was the President of Chinese Communist Party at the time of freedom of China- (A) Zhou enlai (B) Den Xiaoping (C) Mao Zedong (D) Liu Shaoqi

A

(C) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2013) Exp: The Communist Party was instrumental in establishing the People’s Republic of China on 1st October, 1949. Mao Zedong who was the President of Chinese Communist Party at the time of freedom of China, is also known as the founding father of People’s Republic of China.

322
Q

44.Which of the following law is in favour of the betterment of women- (A) Equal pay act (B) Protection of civil rights act (C) Human trafficking (prevention) act (D) None of these

A

(C) (SSC FCI Exam 2012) Exp: The Government of India prohibits trafficking for commercial sexual exploitation of women through the Immoral Trafficking Prevention Act (ITPA). Prescribed penalty under the ITPA, ranging from seven years to life imprisonment are sufficiently stringent and commensurate with those for other grave crimes.

323
Q

45.Which of the following recommended three language formula- (A) Raj Committee (B) Rajamannar Committee (C) Dutta Committee (D) Kothari Commission

A

“(D) (SSC CPO Exam 2015) Exp: Indian Education Commission (1964-1966), popularly known as Kothari Commission, was an ad-hoc commission set up by the Government of India to examine all aspects of the educational sector in India. It was formed on 14 July 1964 under the Chairmanship of Daulat Singh Kothari. This commission recommended ““three language formula”” in 1968 under National Policy Resolution.”

324
Q

46.The President of USA appoints the judges of Supreme Court, how- (A) Approval of Senate (B) At his discretion (C) Approval of House of Representatives (D) None of these

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2014) Exp: In USA, President appoints the judges of Supreme Court with the approval of Senate. These judicial officers are appointed for a life term.

325
Q

47.In which of the following system, few rules over all- (A) Plutocracy (B) Oligarchy (C) Autocracy (D) Democracy

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2015) Exp: Oligarchy is a form of power structure in which power effectively rests with a small number of people. These people might be distinguished by royalty, wealth, family, education, corporate, religious or military control.

326
Q

48.Who has been assigned with the responsibility of world peace and security by the member of United Nation Organization- (A) General Council (B) Economic and Social Council (C) Security Council (D) International Court of Justice

A

(C) (SSC CPO Exam 2011) Exp: The Security Council is the United Nations’ most powerful body, with primary responsibility for the maintenance of International peace and security. Five powerful countries sit as permanent members along with 10 non-permanent members elected for 2 year term.

327
Q

49.What is the term of non-permanent members of United Nations Security Council- (A) 1 year (B) 2 year (C) 3 year (D) 6 months

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2013) Exp: Same as above

328
Q

50.The five permanent members of United Nations Security Council are-(A) China, Germany, Russia, UK, USA (B) China, Germany, USA, UK, Canada (C) China, France, Russia, UK, USA (D) China, Canada, France, USA, Germany

A

(C) SSC CHSL 2011, SSC CPO Exam 2012, SSC CGL Exam 2000) Exp: The five permanent members of United Nations Security Council are- China, France, Russia, UK, USA.

329
Q

51.How many members are in United Nation general assembly- (A) 190 (B) 191 (C) 192 (D) 193

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2014) Exp: All 193 member States of the United Nation are members of its General Assembly.

330
Q

52.The total number of judges in International Court of Justice are- (A) 11 (B) 15 (C) 18 (D) 7

A

(B) (SSC Stenographer 2011) Exp: The I.C.J. is composed of fifteen judges elected for nine-year term by the U.N. General Assembly. It is headquartered in Hague, Netherlands.

331
Q

53.Which of the following had signed with President Ayub Khan on Tashkent agreement- (A) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (C) Lal Bahadur Shashtri (D) Indira Gandhi

A

(C) (SSC Stenographer 2005) Exp: The Tashkent Declaration which was signed on 10 January 1966, was a peace agreement between India and Pakistan following the Indo-Pakistan War of 1965. This agreement was signed by India’s the then Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri (who died the next day) and Pakistan’s President Ayub Khan, ending the 17-day war.

332
Q

54.Who was in favour of a democracy without parties- (A) Jay Prakash Narayan (B) Bhupendra Nath Dutta (C) M.N.Roy (D) Jawaharlal Nehru

A

(A) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2007) Exp: Nonpartisan Democracy (also known as no-party Democracy) is a system of representative government or organization in such a way that universal and periodic elections take place without reference to political parties. It was supported by Jay Prakash Naryan.

333
Q

55.Which of the country has single-party system- (A) Mongolia (B) Spain (C) Chile (D) China

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2011) Exp: The Communist Party of China (CPC) is the founding, ruling and only political party of the People’s Republic of China (PRC).

334
Q

56.The concept of Lokpal has been taken from- (A) Britain (B) America (C) Scandinavian countries (D) France

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2011) Exp: The concept of an Lokpal has been borrowed from Sweden. The Lokpal in India has jurisdiction over all Members of Parliament and Central Government employees in cases of corruption. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was passed in 2013 by Parliament, following the Jan Lokpal movement led by Anna Hazare.

335
Q

57.Which of the following resist Liberty and Freedom- (A) Centralization (B) Decentralization (C) Privatization (D) Nationalization

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2011) Exp: The centralization of resources is a hurdle in Freedom and Liberty.

336
Q

58.The success of Democracy depends on- (A) The right to oppose (B) Right to unity (C) Right to individual liberty (D) Right to property

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2011) Exp: The success of democracy depends on the right to criticize and oppose. For a successful democracy, it is necessary that there should always be pressure of citizens, society, press and media on government.

337
Q

59.The states of India are demanding more autonomy than centre in the areas of- (A) Legislative (B) Administrative (C) Financial (D) All of these

A

(D) (SSC FCI Exam 2012) Exp: Indian states are demanding more legislative, administrative and financial autonomy from Centre. Sarkaria commission also suggested measures to grant more autonomy to states.

338
Q

“60.Which of the following language was given the status of ““Classical language”” by the central government- (A) Guajarati (B) Tamil (C) Marathi (D) Malayalam”

A

(B) (SSC Stenographer Exam 2011) Exp: Currently Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Odiya and Malayalam are the classical languages. Classical language is the official status accorded by Governement of India. The onus to designate classical status rest upon the Ministry of Culture.

339
Q

61.When did Sri Lanka gained its independence? (A) 4 February,1948 (B) 16 March,1962 (C) 26 March,1972 (D) 15 February,1938

A

(A)Exp: Sri Lanka gained its independence on February 4, 1948. Like India, Sri Lanka also remained under control of Britain for a long period of time. During colonial regime, it was named Ceylon.

340
Q

62.In which form of government the rulers are elected by the people? (A) Autocratic (B) Democratic (C) Martial law (D) Aristocratic

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: In democracy, rulers are elected by people through voting rights. However elected representatives are not considered as the rulers but public servants working on behalf of public.

341
Q

63._____ is an institutional mechanism to accommodate two sets of polities - one at the regional level and the other at the national level. (A) Feudalism (B) Democracy (C) Federalism (D) Aristocracy

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Federalism ensures government entities at different level. One at centre, other at state and local government at lowest tier. Federalism delineates the power of government at all levels. The subjects of all three form of government are enumerated in centre list, state list and concurrent list.

342
Q

64.In which of the following American President had visited to China in 1972 to strengthen diplomatic relations- (A) Richard Nixon (B) George Bush (senior) (C) D.Eisenhower (D) J.F. Kennady

A

(A) (SSC MTS 2013) Exp: Richard Nixon was the President of America from 1969 to 1974. He visited China in 1972 to strengthen diplomatic relations.

343
Q

65.The decision on procedural matters in United Nations will be taken by _____ positive votes- (A) 11 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 9

A

(D) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2005) Exp: The decision on procedural matters in United Nations will be taken by 9 positive votes.

344
Q

66.According to United Nations, which is not a right under Child Rights- (A) Clean drinking water (B) Better life style (C) Education (D) Marriage

A

(D) (SSC CGL Exam 2008) Exp: Marriage is not a child right according to United Nations.

345
Q

67.Which was the first non-communist country to recognize communist China in 1950? (A) Pakistan (B) India (C) Sri Lanka (D) Nepal

A

(B) (SSC CGL 2006) Exp: India was the first non communist country to recognize communist China in 1950 and established its diplomatic relations with People’s Republic of China (PRC).

346
Q

68.Who is the father of Idealism- (A) Plato (B) Hegal (C) Berkeley (D) Grein

A

“(A) (SSC CGL Exam 2006) Exp: Greek philosopher, Plato is known as the father of Idealism. He depicted an ““Ideal state”” in his famous book ““Republic””.”

347
Q

69.Which of the following is permanent organization - (A) Family (B) Political party (C) Red cross (D) Plato

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2011) Exp: Family is a permanent organization. It refers to all descendants of a common ancestor. It is a group of related people who generally live together.

348
Q

“70.”“Man is a social animal”” whose statement is this- (A) Plato (B) Aristotle (C) Rousseau (D) Laski”

A

“(B) (SSC CHSL 2013) Exp: Statement, ““Man is a social animal”” was given by Aristotle. Aristotle expressed that man is social by nature. He cannot live without society, if he does so, he is either a beast or God.”

349
Q

“71.Who said political science as ““Metrology””- (A) Blunashi (B) Bryce (C) Bodin (D) Bachil”

A

(B) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2013) Exp: Bryce depicted political science as Metrology.

350
Q

“72.”“Person, who do not live in any state is either a Saint or an Animal”” whose statement is this- (A) Montesquieu (B) Angles (C) Sophists (D) Aristotle”

A

“(D) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2013) Exp: Aristotle said that ““Person, who do not live in any state is either a Saint or an Animal””.”

351
Q

“73.”“Liberty consists in obedience to the general will”” whose statement is this- (A) Hobbs (B) Rousseau (C) Green (D) Laski”

A

“(B) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2013) Exp: Rousseau said ““Liberty consists in obedience to the general will””. Liberty means according to one’s wishes. It means not being subject to the will of other person.”

352
Q

“74.Whose statement is this ““Man is born free but always in shackles”” (A) Locke (B) Rousseau (C) Bentham (D) Robert mill”

A

“(B)Exp: Rousseau said ““Man is born free but always in shackles””. He intended to say that people deserve to be free but they are chained by societies in which they live. A society may legitimately coerce its people only when they agree to be ruled by that society.”

353
Q

“75.”“The soul of India lives in villages”” whose statement is this- (A) Vinobha Bhave (B) Jay Prakash Narayan (C) Jawahr Lal Nehru (D) Mahatma Gandhi”

A

“(D) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2011) Exp: More than 68% of population lives in villages and depends mostly on agriculture and small scale industries which contributes significantly in economy and moreover Gandhi was supporter of decentralization. That is why Gandhi said ““The soul of India lives in villages””.”

354
Q

“76.”“Oh! Disrespectable democracy! I love you”” whose statement is this- (A) G.B.Shaw (B) Carpentar (C) Lord Bryce (D) Appa Dorai”

A

“(B) (SSC CPO Exam 2011) Exp: Oh! Disrespectable democracy! I love you”” this statement was made by Carpentar in his book ““Towards Democracy””.”

355
Q

“77.Who said this ““Good citizen makes good state and bad citizen makes bad state””- (A) Plato (B) Rousseau (C) Aristotle (D) Laski”

A

“(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2011) Exp: Plato said ““Good citizen makes good state and bad citizen makes bad state”””

356
Q

78.In which country, there is federal government- (A) China (B) USA (C) Cuba (D) Belgium

A

(B) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2008) Exp: In America, there is federal form of government. Federalism separates power between governments at different levels.

357
Q

79.Which Country has the first woman Prime Minister in the world- (A) India (B) Sri Lanka (C) Israel (D) Pakistan

A

(B) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2011) Exp: Sirima Ratwatte Dias Bandaranaike, commonly known as Sirimavo Bandaranaike, was a Sri Lankan stateswoman and politician and the modern world’s first female head of government.

358
Q

80.Which of the following countries is governed by a King- (A) Afghanistan (B) Iran (C) Iraq (D) Saudi Arabia

A

(D) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2007) Exp: Saudi Arabia is a Monarchy. It is a system of government in which one person reigns, usually a King or Queen.

359
Q

81.CTBT denotes- (A) Arms control measures (B) Drug control measures (C) Financial control measures (D) Trade control and regulation

A

(A) (SSC Tax Asst. Exam 2007) Exp: The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) is a multilateral treaty by which countries agree to ban all nuclear explosions in all environment, for military or civilian purposes. It was adopted by the United Nation General Assembly on 10 September 1996.

360
Q

“82.Who supported the concept of ““Public desire””- (A) Hume (B) Hegal (C) Kant (D) Rousseau”

A

“(D) (SSC Section Off.Exam 2006) Exp: The concept of ““Public desire”” was supported by Rousseau. In his book ““Social contract””, he said that the rule is in the hands of desire of public.”

361
Q

83.The new official language of United Nations is- (A) Chinese (B) Spanish (C) Russian (D) Arabic

A

(D) (SSC CGL 2012, SSC MTS 2013) Exp: In 1973, Arabic became the official language of UN by proposal number 3190(28). Other official languages of UN are English, French, Chinese, Spanish and Russian.

362
Q

84.In which of the following, there is possibility of Arbitrary Rule- (A) Single-party system (B) Two-party system (C) Multi-party system (D) Two and multi-party system

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2010) Exp: The rule of law is the legal principle that law should govern a nation, as opposed to being governed by arbitrary decisions of individual government officials. In Single party system, due to absence of opposition, there are many possiblities of misuse of power through arbitrary rule.

363
Q

85.Which are the two forms of Democracy- (A) Parliamentary and Presidential (B) Direct and Indirect (C) Monarchical and Republican (D) Parliamentary and King

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2010) Exp: Democracy is of two types - direct and indirect. In direct democracy people participate directly in policy initiatives and decision making. Whereas in indirect democracy decision making is done by the representatives elected by people.

364
Q

86.What is the Example of Direct Democracy in India- (A) District Panchayat (B) Nagar Panchayat(C) Gram Sabha (D) Kshetra Panchayat

A

(C) (SSC Multi-Tasking Exam 2013) Exp: Gram Sabha is an example of direct democracy. It is a village assembly consisting of all the registered voters of that village.

365
Q

87.Which of the following is necessary for the development of Democratic Institutions- (A) Agricultural Economy (B) Single-Party System (C) Armed Forces (D) Respect to Individual Rights

A

“(D) (SSC CHSL 2015) Exp: Respect to Individual rights is very necessary for the development of Democratic Institutions. Abraham Lincoln said ““democracy is the government of the people, by the people and for the people.”””

366
Q

88.When was the Lokpal bill passed in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha with more strict provisions- (A) 2012 (B) 2013 (C) 2009 (D) 2011

A

(B) (SSC MTS 2014) Exp: The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, commonly known as The Lokpal Act, is an Anti-Corruption Act of Indian Parliament which seeks to provide for the establishment of the institution of Lokpal to inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public officials and for matters connecting to them.

367
Q

89.What is the meaning of ordinary law- (A) Law made by High Court (B) Law made by common people (C) Law made by Supreme Court (D) Law made and enforced by government

A

(D) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2015) Exp: Ordinary law means a law made and enforced by the government.

368
Q

90.Which of the following is not correctly matched- (A) Hindu marriage Act: 1955 (B) Medical termination of Pregnancy Act: 1971 (C) Domestic violence on Women Act: 1990 (D) Violence against Women Act: 1995

A

(C) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2012) Exp: The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act 2005 is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted to protect women from domestic violence.

369
Q

91.Which of the following sections of Indian penal code is related with lesbian gay bisexual community (LGBT)- (A) 377 (B) 376 (C) 370 (D) None of these

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2014) Exp: Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code dating back to 1860, introduced during the British rule in India, criminalises sexual activities against the order of nature, arguably including homosexual acts

370
Q

92.Which of the following High Court had legalized the homosexual relations in India in 2009. (A) Mizoram (B) Goa (C) Delhi (D) Chandigarh

A

(C) (SSC muliti-tasking Exam 2014) Exp: Section 377 which deals with sexual activities against the order of nature, arguably including homosexual acts, was decriminalized by the High Court of Delhi on July 2009. That judgement was overturned by the Supreme Court of India on 12 December 2013, with the Court holding that amending or repealing Section 377 should be a matter left to Parliament, not to the judiciary.

371
Q

93.The main cause of growth of communalism in India is- (A) Economic and Educational backwardness of minority groups (B) Political awareness (C) Social inequalities (D) Ban on communalistic organizations

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2012) Exp: The main cause behind the growth of communalism in India is the backwardness of minorities in the field of education and economy.

372
Q

94.To which the Mandal commission report is related- (A) Other backward classes (B) Scheduled tribes (C) Minority (D) Scheduled castes

A

(A) (SSC MTS 2014) Exp: The Mandal Commission was established in India in 1979 by the Janata Party government during PrimeMinistership of Morarji Desai with a mandate to identify the socially or educationally backward classes. It was headed by Indian parliamentarian B.P. Mandal to consider the questions of reservation of seats in legislature and quota for the people to reduce caste discrimination.

373
Q

95.In which state, the Bodoland territorial council,an autonomous governing body was established- (A) Assam (B) Mizoram (C) Nagaland (D) Meghalaya

A

(A) (SSC Stenographer 2012) Exp: The Bodoland Territorial Council is a territorial council established in Assam as per the Memorandum of Settlement of February 10, 2003.

374
Q

96.In which year, there was dominance of one party in India-(A) 1971 (B) 1977 (C) 1962 (D) 1967

A

(B) (SSC Stenographer 2012) Exp: Indian National Congress dominated the nation from 1951-52 to 1977. It was badly defeated in the elections of 1977.

375
Q

“97.”“Shimla Pact”” between India and Pakistan is in- (A) 1972 (B) 2001 (C) 1965 (D) 1971”

A

(A) (SSC Stenographer 2012) Exp: The Shimla Agreement was signed between India and Pakistan on July 2, 1972 in Shimla. It was signed by the then Prime Minister of India, Indira Gandhi and her counter-part Zulfikar Ali Bhutto, President of Pakistan in a bid to reverse the consequences of 1971 war (i.e. to bring about withdrawl of troops and an exchange of Prisoners of wars).

376
Q

98.Who was the leader of Russia at the time of signing of The Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation- (A) Nikita Khrushchev (B) Leonid Brezhnev (C) Yuri Andropov (D) Mikhail gorbachev

A

(B) (SSC CPO Exam 2012) Exp: The Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Co-operation was a treaty signed between India and the Soviet Union in August 1971 that specified mutual strategic co-operation. The treaty was a significant deviation from India’s previous position of non-alignment in the Cold War.

377
Q

“99.Who has propounded term ““Rainbow Coalition”” originated from politics and policies- (A) Pranav Mukharji (B) Barack Obama (C) Mitt Romney (D) A.B.Vajpayee”

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2013) Exp: A Rainbow coalition is a political alliance of several different groups, representing social, ethnic and other minorities. It was propounded by Barack Obama.

378
Q

100.The ballot papers were used firstly in- (A) Ancient Greece (B) England (C) Australia (D) USA

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2012) Exp: Ballot papers were first used in ancient Rome in 139 BC, but citizens of Greece had used it earlier in the form of broken pieces of clay pots.

379
Q

101.What is multiple voting system- (A) Every citizen votes three different votes (B) Only high officials vote for more than once (C) Candidates vote more than one (D) Registered voter votes once and other special eligible voters vote more than once

A

(D) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2015) Exp: Plural voting is the practice whereby one person might be able to vote multiple times in an election. In Belgium, plural voting was introduced in 1893 and applied for elections from 1894 to 1919 as a way to limit the impact of universal suffrage. Every male citizen over the age of 25 years got one vote for legislative elections, but some electors got up to 2 supplementary votes according to some criteria.

380
Q

102.Under which ministry, Central Pollution Control Bureau works- (A) Health and family welfare (B) Oil and petroleum (C) Social welfare (D) Environment and forest

A

(D) (SSC FCI Exam 2012) Exp: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) of India is a statutory organisation under the Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF). It was established in 1974.

381
Q

103.Which of the following crops is banned by the Supreme Court of India- (A) Lathairus (B) Genetically modified brinjal (C) Bt cotton for export (D) Bt cotton for domestic usages

A

(B) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2013) Exp: Bt Brinjal has been banned in India by the Supreme Court of India.

382
Q

104.In which of the following country, the judges of federal court are appointed by two houses of Federal Legislature- (A) Switzerland (B) Germany (C) Canada (D) A and B both

A

(D) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2014) Exp: In Switzerland, the judges are appointed for six years by both houses of Federal Legislature and in Germany also, they are appointed by the both houses of legislature.

383
Q

105.What occurs under direct democracy in Switzerland- (A) Natural growth (B) Disorganized growth (C) Artificial growth (D) None of these

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2014) Exp: Natural growth occurs under direct democracy in Switzerland.

384
Q

106.What is the term of President of Switzerland- (A) 2 years (B) 4 years (C) 1 year (D) 3 years

A

(C) (SSC CGL 2014) Exp: The President of the Switzerland is the presiding officer of the seven-member Swiss Federal Council, Switzerland’s executive. He/she is elected by the Federal Assembly for the term of one year.

385
Q

107.What is the name of two chambers of Swiss federal chambers-(A) Senate and House of representatives (B) House of Lords and House of Commons (C) National Council and Council of States (D) None of these

A

(C) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2014) Exp: National Council and Council of States are the two houses of federal assembly of Switzerland.

386
Q

“108.Who said ““Adolf Hitler is Germany and Germany is Adolf Hitler. He who is committed to Hitler is committed to Germany””- (A) R.Hess (B) Mussolini (C) Hitler (D) Communist international”

A

“(A) (SSC CGL 2014) Exp: R. Hess said, ““Adolf Hitler is Germany and Germany is Adolf Hitler. He who is committed to Hitler is committed to Germany”””

387
Q

109.What is the meaning of Fascism in respect to state- (A) State is in control of the king (B) State is a matter of exploitation by a group of people (C) State grows the concept of individualism (D) Nation state is a uninterrupted dominance

A

(A) (SSC CGL 2015) Exp: Fascism is a type of dictatorial system. Fascist regime is an authoritarian form of government. It existed in Italy and Germany. This ideology was cause of outbreak of Second World War.

388
Q

110.The faith of Fascism formulates the principle of- (A) Dictatorship (B) Utilitarianism (C) Democracy (D) Totalitarianism

A

(A) (SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam 2015) Exp: Fascism is a type of dictatorship. Fascism and Nazism were very cruel and inhuman principles in the world during Second World War.

389
Q

111.Who advocated the Nazism in Germany- (A) Fedrick William 4th (B) William 3rd (C) Adolf Hitler (D) Wismark

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2015) Exp: Hitler advocated Nazism in Germany. His autobiography (Mein Kampf) was published during 1924- 27. Gottfriend Feder had explained basic concept of Nazism in 1920.

390
Q

112.Who among the following is not a part of political executive? (A) Finance Minister (B) Defence Minister (C) Foreign Minister (D) Secretary of Ministry of Defence

A

(D) (SSC CPO 2009) Exp: Apart from Secretary of Defence, all others are political executives. Secretary, MOD is generally an officer from Indian Administrative Servcies.

391
Q

113.Ma layalam is the of f icial language of _________. (A) Puducherry (B) Lakshadweep (C)Daman and Diu (D)Delhi

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Malayalam along with English is official language of Lakshadweep. Official languages of Daman and Diu are Konkani, Gujarati and Hindi whereas Delhi has Hindi as its official language. Union territory of Puducherry recognises Tamil and English as its official language.

392
Q

114.Which of these languages is generally not spoken in Southern part of India? (A) Telugu (B) Konkani (C)Maithili (D) Malayalam

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Maithili is a language spoken in Mithila region which is present day Bihar. Telugu, Konkani and Malayalam are languages spoken in Southern part of India in states of Andhra Pradesh, Goa and Kerala respectively.

393
Q

115.Communist Party of India was founded in _____. (A) 1835 (B) 1885 (C)1925 (D) 1964

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Communist Party of India (CPI) was formed in1925 in Kanpur and is mainly influencial in Kerala and West Bengal.

394
Q

“116.What is the full form of the Indian Political Party, ““CPI””? (A) Common Party of India (B) Commonly Party of India (C)Communist Party of India (D)Community Party of India”

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Same as above

395
Q

117.’M’ in BIMARU stands for which state? (A) Maharashtra (B) Manipur (C)Madhya Pradesh (D) Mizoram

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: ‘BIMARU’ is an acronym formed from the first letters of names of Indian States of - Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. This term was coined by Ashish Bose in 1980’s.

396
Q

118.In which year was the First Five Year Plan launched in India? (A) 1921 (B)1931 (C)1941 (D)1951

A

(D)Exp: First five year plan was presented by first Prime Minister of India, Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru in year 1951. This plan was mainly focussed on development of primary sector i.e. mainly agriculture.

397
Q

119.Who is the former body builder, who became a film star and a Governor? (A) Sylvester Stallone (B)Dwayne Johnson (C)Arnold Schwarzenegger (D) Steve Austin

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Arnold Schwarzenegger is an Australian-American Actor, Producer, Author, Body builder. He became Governor of California which is the most populous state of U.S.A.

398
Q

120.To be a voter in India, what is the minimum qualifying age? (A) 24 Years (B) 22 Years (C)20 Years (D)18 Years

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: As per provisions under Article-326, minimum qualifying age to be a voter in India is 18 years.

399
Q

121.Bahujan Samaj Party was founded in (A) 1925 (B) 1955 (C) 1984 (D) 2001

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was founded in 1984 by Kanshi Ram. It is one of the 7 National Parties in India which is currently headed by Mayawati.

400
Q

“122.What is the full form of the Indian Political Party ““BSP””? (A) Bharatiya Samaj Party (B) Bahujan Samaj Party (C)Bharatiya Sangh Party (D)Bahujan Sangh Party”

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Same as above

401
Q

“123.What is the full form of the Indian Political Party ““CPIM””? (A) Common Party of India (Marxist) (B) Common Party of India (Movement) (C)Communist Party of India (Movement) (D)Communist Party of India (Marxist)”

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Communist Party of India (Marxist) which is abbreviated as CPI(M) or CPM, is a party that emerged out of a split from Communist Party of India in 1964. This party is concentrated in States of Kerala, West Bengal and Tripura.

402
Q

124.Nationalist Congress Party was founded in ______. (A) 1925 (B) 1955 (C) 1984 (D) 1999

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Nationalist Congress Party(NCP) which was founded in 1999 and headed by Mr. Sharad pawar, is one of the seven National Parties in India. Other national parties are Indian National Congress, BJP, CPI, CPI (M), BSP, AITC.

403
Q

“125.What is the full form of the Indian Political Party ““NCP””? (A) Nationalist Congress Party (B) National Congress Party (C)National Communist Party (D) Nationalist Communist Party”

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Same as above

404
Q

126.United Progressive Alliance was founded in? (A) 1951 (B) 1998 (C) 2004 (D) 1980

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: United Progressive Alliance(UPA) was formed after 2004 general election in India. Sonia Gandhi, who is chairman of Indian National Congress, is also the chairman of UPA. It consists of 10 parties.

405
Q

127.The Look East Policy in India was started by which of the following Prime Ministers? (A) Rajiv Gandhi (B) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (C) P.V. Narasimha Rao(D) Manmohan Singh

A

“(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: ““Look East Policy”” is an effort to cultivate extensive economic and strategic relations with South East Asian countries in order to strengthen its standing as a regional power. It was enacted during government of Prime minister P.V Narsimha Rao in 1991.”

406
Q

128.English is the official language of______ (A) Chhattisgarh (B) Meghalaya (C)Assam (D) Goa

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: An official language is a language that is given a special legal status in a particular country or state. Meghalaya has English as its official language. Whereas Chhattisgarh, Assam and Goa has Hindi, Assamese and Konkani respectively as its official languages.

407
Q

129.Marathi is the official language of _________. (A) Chandigarh (B) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (C)Daman and Diu (D) Delhi

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Marathi is the official language of Dadra and Nager Haveli along with Gujarati and Hindi. Delhi and Chandigarh have Hindi and English respectively as its official languages. Daman and Diu has Gujarati along with Konkani and Hindi as its official language.

408
Q

130.Konkani is the official language of _________. (A) Chandigarh (B) Dadra and Nagar Haveli(C) Daman and Diu (D) Delhi

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Same as above

409
Q

131.The form of power structure in which power effectively rests with a faction of persons or families is called (A) Tyranny (B) Fascism (C) Oligarchy (D) Plutocracy

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Oligarchy is government by few. In this form of power structure, a small group exercises power who control and run a particular country or organization. Fascism is a way of organising a society in which a government ruled by a dictator controls the lives of the people and in which people are not allowed to disagree with the government. Tyranny is cruel and unfair treatment by people with powers over others. Whereas plutocracy is a system of government in which the richest people in country rule or have power.

410
Q

132.Bharatiya Janata Party is a part of which political group? (A) United Progressive Alliance (B) National Democratic Alliance (C) Janata Parivar (D) Rashtra Parivar

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Bhartiya Janta Party is a part of National Democratic alliance which was founded in 1998. Its honorary Chairman is former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee. It is an alliance of 48 political parties.

411
Q

133.National Democratic Alliance was founded in? (A) 1951 (B) 1998 (C) 2004 (D) 1980

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Bhartiya Janta Party is a part of National Democratic alliance which was founded in 1998. Its honorary chairman is former Prime minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee. It is an alliance of 48 political parties.

412
Q

“134.What is the full form of the Indian Political Party, ““AITC””? (A) All India Trinamool Congress (B) All India Telugu Congress (C) All India Telugu Communist (D) All India Trinamool Communist”

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: All India Trinamool Congress i.e. AITC is an Indian political party based in West Bengal. This party is led by its founder and current Chief Minister of West Bengal, Mamta Banerjee. It was founded in year 1998. It is one of the 7 National Parties in India.

413
Q

135.All India Trinamool Congress was founded in the year ______. (A) 1925 (B) 1955 (C) 1984 (D) 1998

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Same as above

414
Q

136.Indian National Congress is a part of which political group? (A) United Progressive Alliance (B) National Democratic Alliance (C)Janata Parivar (D) Rashtra Parivar

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp:Indian National Congress is part of United Progressive Alliance (UPA) which was formed after 2004 general election in India. Sonia Gandhi, who is Chairman of Indian National Congress, is also the Chairman of UPA.

415
Q

137.Malayalam is the offcial language of___ (A) Haryana (B) Jharkhand (C) Kerala (D) Uttarakhand

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Malayalam which is also one of the 22 scheduled languages in India, is official language of state of Kerala. Whereas other three States Haryana, Jharkhand and Uttrakhand have Hindi as its official language.

416
Q

138.________recommended change in the structure and working of BCCI. (A) Lodha committee (B) Parekh committee (C)Sena committee (D) Akhil committee

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Lodha Committee was a three member committee headed by retired Chief Justice of India, R.M. Lodha. It was formed in 2015 which recommended changes in structure and working of BCCI.

417
Q

139.Telugu is the official language of _________. (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Arunachal Pradesh (C)Assam (D) Bihar

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Telugu which is also one of the six languages designated as classical languages of India, is official language of Andhra Pradesh. It is ranked third by number of native speakers in India. The official languages of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam and Bihar are English, Assamese and Hindi respectively.

418
Q

140.Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India? (A) Morarji Desai (B) Sukumar Sen (C)Sardar Patel (D) V.S Ramadevi

A

(B) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-324 of constitution establishes office of Election Commission which consists of one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. Sukumar Sen was first Chief Election Commissioner of India who served from 1950 to 1958.

419
Q

141.As per John Locke, an English philosopher and physician, which is not a Natural Right? (A) Liberty (B) Equality (C) Property (D) Right to Vote

A

(D)Exp: John Locke was a prominent western philosopher who conceptualized rights as natural and inalienable. There rights are not dependent on any law of any particular government or culture. They are universal. John Locke believed in natural right to life, liberty, equality and property. Right to vote is a political right.

420
Q

142.The Article 343 of the Indian Constitution is about (A) Number of seats for the Lok Sabha (B) Number of seats for the Rajya Sabha (C)Hindi as official language (D)Special status to Kashmir

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Article-343 of Indian constitution is about official language of Union and according to this article, it shall be Hindi in Devanagri Script.

421
Q

143.Since Independence, India has been ruled by the Indian National Congress for how many years? (A) 18 (B) 26 (C) 39 (D) 49

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Indian National Congress which is the oldest political party in India (since 1885), has ruled the India for 49 years since independence. Currently, the country is ruled by National Democratic Alliance lead by Bhartiya Janta Party.

422
Q

144.In which form of government priests rule in the name of God? (A) Fascism (B) Monarchy (C)Theocracy (D)Oligarchy

A

(C) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Theocracy is a form of government in which priests rule in the name of God. It is a government by divine guidance or by officials who are regarded as divinely guided.

423
Q

145.English is the official language of _________. (A) Chandigarh (B) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (C) Daman and Diu (D) Delhi

A

(A) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: English is official language of Chandigarh. Dadra and Nagar Haveli has recognised Gujarati, Marathi and Hindi whereas Daman and Diu has recognised Gujarati, Konkani and Hindi as its official languages. Hindi is official language of Delhi.

424
Q

146.Urdu is the official language of _________. (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Arunachal Pradesh (C) West Bengal (D) Jammu & Kashmir

A

(D) (SSC CHSL 2016) Exp: Urdu is official language of state of Jammu and Kashmir. Whereas English, Telugu and Bengali are official languages of Arunachal Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal respectively. SSC CGL & CPO-2017

425
Q

147.Is a form of government in which the rulers are elected by the people. (A) Autocratic (B) Monarchic (C) Democratic (D) Authoritarian

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Autocratic: Government in which one person possess unlimited power. Autocratic rulers used fear and control to gain total power. Monarchic: A state or a nation governed by hereditary right. Democratic: It is a form of government in which head of state is elected by people. Authoritarian: It is a form of government featuring centralisation of powers with limited freedom being given to its subjects or citizens.

426
Q

148.Who said ‘The God, who gave us life, gave us the liberty at the same time’? (A) Marx (B) Plato (C) Jefferson (D) Locke

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: It was said by Thomas Jefferson. He was chief architect of Declaration of Independence of USA and later served as the third President of USA.

427
Q

149.Which form of government believes in giving equal rights and opportunities for women and men? (A) Feminist (B) Secularist (C) Castiest (D) Communalist

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Feminist government believes in ensuring equal rights and opportunities for men and women, both nationally and internationally. Sweden was deemed to have the first feminist government in the world. This doctrine believes in extending economic, social and political rights to woman as that of men.

428
Q

150.When power is shared among different organs of government, then it known as _____. (A) Community Government (B) Separation of powers (C) Coalition Government (D) Amalgamation of powers

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Separation of powers among different organs of government is the cornerstone of federalism. India has three organs of Government- Legislative, Executive and Judiciary. Over the time, media has also evolved as the fourth pillar of Indian democracy.

429
Q

151.Which of the following is CORRECT about coalition form of government? (A) Sharing of power at different levels (B) Sharing of power by different social groups(C) Sharing of power by two or more political parties (D) None of these

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Coalition form of government implies that more than one political parties are stakeholders in the government. Coalition government is a part of Parliamentery form of government. This arrangement is generally followed when no party on its own achieves majority in Parliament and needs suport of other parties to form government.

430
Q

152.Which type of government is based on free and fair election where those currently in power have a fair chance of losing? (A) Democratic (B) Autocratic (C) Monarchic (D) Authoritarian

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Only a democratic form of government conducts free and fair election in clean and transparent manner. So, there is always a fair chance of government losing its power on account of anti-incumbency. ECI is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes in India.

431
Q

153.What is the main objective of Marxism? (A) Dictatorship (B) Stateless society (C) To establish strong centre (D) Protection of weaker sections

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: The primary aim of the Marxism is to free the labour class from the harassment and economic exploitation by bourgeoise. He also advocated for stateless society.

432
Q

154.In _____ government each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value. (A) Democratic (B) Autocratic (C) Monarchic (D) Authoritarian

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: In a democratic structure, citizens are entitled to elect their representative by exercising their right to vote.

433
Q

155.Who among the following gave the concept of ‘Distributive Justice’? (A) Aristotle (B) Plato (C) Hegel (D) Ritchie

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Aristotle propounded the concept of Distributive Justice. It means fruits of growth and development should be shared with all and it should not be cornered by few rich and elite class citizens. It is likely to ensure economic and social justice.

434
Q

156.Which of the following is not a branch of federal form of government? (A) Judiciary (B) Executive (C) Legislative (D) Media

A

(D) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Federal form of government includes Legislative, Executive and Judiciary. India runs a federal form of governance with clear demarcation of powers between its 3 org

435
Q

157.What is meant by ‘defection’? (A) Changing party after winning election (B) Changing party before winning election (C) Changing party after losing election (D) Changing party before losing election

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Defection in politics implies switching the political parties after winning election. 10th Schedule of Constitution deals with Anti-defection law. 52 nd Amendment in Constitution is associated with defection of elected representatives.

436
Q

158.In which country political theory of ‘Fascism’ started? (A) Japan (B) Russia (C) Italy (D) China

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Political theory of Fascism started in Italy under the leadership of Benito Mussolini. Thomas Carlyle was known as the founding father of Fascism.

437
Q

159.Who among the following supports customary rights? (A) Ritchie (B) Locke (C) Plato (D) Heller

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Customary rights are based on custom and traditional practices. Ritchie extended its support for customary rights. In India, forest dwellers and members of tribal and indigenous communities are entitled to enjoy their customary rights.

438
Q

160.Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT? I. In federal government, power is distributed among the legislature, executive and judiciary. II. Due to political competition in a democracy, social divisions get reflected in politics. III. Communal politics is based on the belief that one religion is superior to that of others. (A) I and II (B) I, II and III (C) I and III (D) II and III

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: All statements are correct and self explanatory.

439
Q

161.What is the term of office of Chief Election Commissioner of India? (A) Five years (B) Six years (C) Five years or 60 years of age (D) Six years or 65 years of age

A

(D) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Chief Election Commissioner holds the office for 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier. Election commission comprises of Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioner. All three of them have equal say. In case of deadlock, decisions are taken through voting.

440
Q

162.Coup is _____. (A) Sudden overthrow of a government illegally (B) A system of rules that takes effect when a military authority takes control of normal administration and justice (C) Territory under the immediate political control of another state (D) All options are correct.

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Coup is a term denoting conspiracy to topple government illegally. Middle east countries have experienced many such instances eg. Egypt.

441
Q

163._____ goverment is better than other forms of government because it allows us to correct its own mistake. (A) Democratic (B) Monarchic (C) Authoritarian (D) Autocratic

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Democratic government is better than all forms of government. Democracy means government of the people, for the people and by the people. It gives opportunities to individual, organization and entity to rectify the discrepancies.

442
Q

164.Which among the following describes Public Interest group? (A) Organizations that promote interest of particular section of group (B) Organisation that promote common interest (C) A Struggle launched for resolution of a social problem (D) Organisation that mobilizes people with a view to win political power

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Organization and bodies that promotes the common interest of all without any discrimination is called Public Interest Groups. These groups promote environmental protection, human right and consumer rights.

443
Q

165.Who among the following is constitutionally empowered to alter Scheduled Area? (A) Supreme Court of India (B) High Court of State (C) Prime Minister of India (D) President of India

A

(D) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Only the President of India has the power to make any changes in Scheduled Area. Fifth schedule of constitution is concerned with administration of scheduled areas and also contains procedures for scheduling, rescheduling and alteration of scheduled areas.

444
Q

166.Who among the following is the ex-officio chairman of the NITI Aayog in India? (A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Vice President (D) Finance Minister

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio chairman of NITI Aayog. NITI Aayog is government think tank and is formed in 2015 after replacing Planning Commission. NITI Aayog is an acronym of National Institute For Transforming India. It was formed by a resolution passed by Cabinet. It is non-constitutional and non-statutory body.

445
Q

167.Who is the father of ‘Utilitarian School of Thought’? (A) Hegel (B) Bentham (C) James Mill (D) Locke

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill are known as the Father of ‘Utilitarian School of Thought’. Utilitarianism emphasize on maximising the good, that is to bring about the greatest amount of good for the greatest number.

446
Q

168.Which of the following is not a good argument in favour of democracy? I. Democracy enhances the dignity of citizens II. Democracies are more prosperous than others III. Democracies resolve conflicts in a better way (A) I and II (B) Only III (C) Only II (D) II and III

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: It cannot be explicitly stated that democracies are more prosperous than other. Undoubtedly, democracies have enhanced the dignity of citizens and ensured resolution of conflicts in better manner.

447
Q

169.What is a voluntary union of sovereign and independent states called? (A) Federation (B) Unitary state (C) Confederation (D) None of these

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Confederation is the term used for voluntary union of sovereign and independent states. The classic example was U.S.S.R. In 1991 it disintegrated and many states claimed independence. Ultimately confederation was broken resulting in formation of many states.

448
Q

170.In a ______ government, the final decisionmaking power must rest with those elected by the people. (A) Authoritarian (B) Autocratic (C) Monarchic (D) Democratic

A

(D) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: In democratic form of government, final decision making rests upon representatives elected by people. All other form of governance structures alienates the common man and does not involve them in decision making.

449
Q

“171.Which of the following statement is true about ““Community Government””? I. This government is elected by people belonging to one language community.II. This government has the power regarding cultural, educational and language related issues. (A) Both I and II (B) Only I (C) Only II (D) Neither I nor II”

A

(A) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Community govt is a body elected by people belonging to one language, culture etc. This government deals in few areas like education, cultural and language related issues.

450
Q

172 .A government rules with in lim its set by constitutional law and citizen right. (A) Autocratic (B) Democratic (C) Monarchic (D) Authoritarian

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Democratic form of government works within limits set by constitutional laws and citizen rights. Democracy ensures checks and balances over different authorities and bodies.

451
Q

172.Which among the following country is not a part of ‘Second World Countries’? (A) Russia (B) China (C) Mongolia (D) Argentina

A

(D) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Argentina is not a part of Second World Countries. Second world countries are communist- socialist states remained under the influence of USSR. Example Poland, Kazakhastan, Turkmenistan etc.

452
Q

173.Martial law is _____. (A) Sudden overthrow of a government illegally (B) A system of rules that takes effect when a military authority takes control of normal administration of justice (C) Territory under the immediate political control of another state (D) None of these

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp:Martial law is a law enacted by military authority. In this system the military authority takes control of normal administration of justice.

453
Q

174.A system of rules that takes effect when a military authority takes control of the normal administration of justice is called as _____. (A) Coup (B) Strike (C) Martial law (D) Political prisoner

A

(C) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Same as above

454
Q

176.Who appoints chairman of Union Public Service Commission? (A) Prime Minister of India (B) President of India (C) Judge of Supreme Court (D) Judge of High Court

A

(B) (SSC CPO 2017) Exp: Under Article-316 of Constitution of India, President appoints Chairman of Union Public Service Commission. Any person appointed as Chairman cannot be reappointed to that post.