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Meded Path Lectures > One worders > Flashcards

One worders Flashcards

1
Q

Heinz Bodies

A

G6PD Deficiency

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2
Q

Howell-Jolly Bodies

A

Hyposplenism

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3
Q

Rouleaux Formation

A

Myeloma

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4
Q

Bence-Jones Protein in urine

A

Myeloma

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5
Q

Schistocytes

A

TTP

Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome

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6
Q

Plummer-Vinson Syndrome

A

Post-cricoid webs in IDA

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7
Q

Pernicious Anaemia antibodies

A

Anti-intrinsic factor

Anti-Parietal cell

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8
Q

Viral aplastic crisis cause

A

Parvovirus B19

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9
Q

Inherited HA protein defect

A

Typically spectrin

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10
Q

G6PD genetics

A

X-Linked

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11
Q

Skull bossing, maxillary hypertrophy, hairs on end skull x ray

A

Beta-Thalassaemia

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12
Q

Warm AIHA antibody type

A

IgG

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13
Q

Cold AIHA antibody type

A

IgM

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14
Q

Donath-Landsteiner antibodies

A

Paroxysmal Cold Haemoglobinuria

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15
Q

Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome cause

A

E.Coli

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16
Q

Intrinsic Pathway

A

APTT
Heparin therapy
12

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17
Q

Extrinsic Pathway

A

PT
Warfarin
7

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18
Q

Common Pathway

A

TT

5

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19
Q

Plasmin role

A

Degrades fibrin clot into fibrin degradation products

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20
Q

Thrombin role

A

Fibrinogen to Fibrin

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21
Q

Factor XIII role

A

Fibrin to Fibrin clot

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22
Q

Haemophilia A

A

Factor VIII deficiency

X-linked recessive

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23
Q

Abnormal Haemophilia A tests

A

Raised APTT

Low Factor VIII assay

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24
Q

Haemophilia B

A

Factor IX deficiency

X-Linked Recessive

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25
Q

Factors requiring Vitamin K

A

2,7,9,10

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26
Q

Philadelphia Chromosome

A

(9;22) CML

BCR ABL

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27
Q

Auer Rods

A

AML

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28
Q

Smear Cells

A

CLL

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29
Q

Reed-Sternberg Cell

A

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

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30
Q

Lymphoma Staging

A

Ann Arbor

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31
Q

Leukaemia Staging

A

Binet

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32
Q

Starry Sky appearance

A

Burkitt’s

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33
Q

Anti-CD20 drug

A

Rituximab

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34
Q

HTLV-1 infection cancer

A

Adult T cell lymphoma/leukaemia

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35
Q

Mycosis Fungoides cancer

A

Cutaneous T Cell lymphoma

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36
Q

Congo Red Stain

A

Amyloidosis

Apple-green birefringence

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37
Q

Diamond-Blackfan Syndrome

A

Pure red-cell aplasia

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38
Q

Anaphylaxis transfusion reaction

A

IgA Deficiency

Minutes

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39
Q

ABO incompatibility transfusion reaction

A

minutes to hours

IgM-mediated

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40
Q

Bacterial Contamination transfusion reaction

A

minutes to hours

Platelet transfusions

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41
Q

Febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction

A

Rise in temperature of less than one degree, no circulatory collapse

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42
Q

Transfusion-related circulatory overload

A

Pulmonary oedema/fluid overload

JVP, PCWP

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43
Q

Transfusion related acute lung injury

A

Fluid overload, no heart failure

anti-HLA antibodies

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44
Q

Delayed-haemolytic transfusion reaction

A

1 week

IgG mediated extravascular haemolysis

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45
Q

Graft vs Host disease

A

Diarrhoea, Liver failure, skin desquamation, BM failure

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46
Q

Caseating Granulomas

A

TB

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47
Q

TB stain

A

Ziehl-neelson

Lowenstein-jensen medium

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48
Q

TB vaccine

A

Bacille-calmette-guerin

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49
Q

Hanson’s Disease

A

Leprosy

M.leprae

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50
Q

+ve cocci

A

Strep pneu

Staph aureus

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51
Q

-ve cocci

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

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52
Q

-ve cocco-bacilli

A

Haemophilus influenzae

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53
Q

-ve rod

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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54
Q

IE phenomena

A 
Janeway Lesions
Splinter Haemorrhages 
Roth Spots 
Osler's Nodes 
Haematuria
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55
Q

IE criteria

A

Duke’s

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56
Q

Descending paralysis + GI

A

C. botulinum

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57
Q

Gas-gangrene + GI

A

C. perfringens

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58
Q

Pseudomembranous Colitis

A

C. Difficile

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59
Q

Reheated Rice GI

A

Bacillus cereus

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60
Q

Enteric fever, rose spots

A

Salmonella typhi

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61
Q

GI symptoms from poultry

A

Salmonella enteritides

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62
Q

Rice-water stool

A

Vibrio cholera

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63
Q

Undercooked poultry at bbq

fever, headache, abdo cramps, bloody diarrhoea

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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64
Q

Histology = Flask-shaped ulcer

A

Entamoeba histolytica

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65
Q

Pear-shaped trophozoite
GI disease
MSM

A

Giardia lamblia

66
Q

Severe diarrhoea in immunocompromised

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

67
Q

Antibiotics causing pseudomembranous colitis

A

Cephalosporins
Clindamycin
Ciprofloxacin

68
Q

Viral encephalitis cause

A

HSV 1 most commonly

69
Q

Bacterial Meningitis Abx

A

Ceftriaxone

70
Q

Untreated gonorrhoea in neonate

A

Opthalmia neonatorum

71
Q

Chlamydia treatment

A

Azithromycin or Doxycycline

72
Q

Chocolate agar culture

STI

A

Chancroid

73
Q

Large, beefy red ulcers

STI

A

Donoyanosis

Granuloma inguinale

74
Q

B-lactam MOA

A

Inhibit cell wall synthesis

75
Q

Glycopeptide MOA

A

Inhibit cell wall synthesis

76
Q

Aminoglycoside MOA

A

Inhibit protein synthesis

77
Q

Tetracycline MOA

A

Inhibit protein synthesis

78
Q

Macrolide MOA

A

Inhibit protein synthesis

79
Q

Chloramphenicol MOA

A

Inhibit protein synthesis

80
Q

Oxazolidinones MOA

A

Inhibit Protein Synthesis

81
Q

Fluroquinolones MOA

A

Inhibit DNA Synthesis

82
Q

Nitroimidazoles MOA

A

Inhibit DNA Synthesis

83
Q

Rifamycin MOA

A

Inhibit RNA Synthesis

84
Q

Polymyxin MOA

A

Cell Membrane Toxin

85
Q

Cyclic Lipopeptide MOA

A

Cell membrane toxin

86
Q

Sulfonamide MOA

A

Inhibit Folate metabolism

87
Q

Diaminopyrimidines MOA

A

Inhibit folate metabolism

88
Q

Oseltamivir

A

Neuraminidase Inhibitor (Tamiflu)

89
Q

Dengue Spread

A

Flavivirus by Ades mosquito

90
Q

Malaria spread

A

female Anopheles Mosquito

91
Q

Negri Bodies

A

Rabies

92
Q

Painless black cutaneous lesions and rim of oedema

A

Anthrax

Bacillus anthracis

93
Q

Erythema chronicum migrans

A

Bullseye rash in lyme disease

94
Q

Active Vitamin D

A

Calcitriol

95
Q

High amylase

A

Acute pancreatitis

96
Q

High Lipase

A

Acute Pancreatitis

97
Q

High Creatine Kinase

A

Muscle Damage

eg. Duchenne’s, MI, Rhabdomyloysis

98
Q

Colour blindness vitamin deficiency

A

A - Retinol

99
Q

Pellagra

A

B3 - Niacin

100
Q

What does the guthrie spot test test for?

A 
Phenylketonuria 
Hypothyroidism
CF
SCD
Medium chain acylCoA dehydrogenase deficiency
101
Q

Indications for dialysis

A 
Acidosis 
Electrolyte Imbalance 
Intoxication 
Fluid Overload 
Uraemic Encepalopathy
102
Q

CD4+

A

Helper T

103
Q

CD8+

A

Cytotoxic T Cells

104
Q

Classical Pathway factors and activation

A

C1,2,4

Antibody-antigen complexes bind C1

105
Q

Alternative Pathway factors and activation

A

C3 binds to bacterial cell wall

106
Q

Which enzyme triggers the formation of the membrane attack complex?

A

C3 convertase

C5-9

107
Q

How is the MBL pathway activated?

A

Mannose binding lectin binds to bacterial surface carbohydrates

108
Q

Kostmann Syndrome immunology

A

AR

severe congenital neutropenia

109
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease pathology

A

No NADPH Oxidase = no superoxide and hydrogen peroxide

Impaired killing of intracellular microorganisms

110
Q

Chronic Granulomatous Disease investigation

A

Nitro-Blue tetrazolium test is negative

Doesn’t turn from yellow to blue as no hydrogen peroxide

Dihydrorhodamine flow cytometry test, doesn’t fluoresce

111
Q

X-linked SCID mutation

A

Gamma chain of IL2 receptor

112
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis HLA

A

B27

113
Q

Goodpasture’s HLA

A

DR15/2

114
Q

Graves’ HLA

A

DR3

115
Q

SLE HLA

A

DR3

116
Q

T1DM HLA

A

DR3/4

117
Q

RA HLA

A

DR4

118
Q

CREST antibodies

A

Anti-centromere

119
Q

Diffuse cutaneous sclerosis antibodies

A

Anti-topoisomerase/Scl70

120
Q

Which antibody associated with coeliac disappears with exclusion diet?

A

Anti-endomysial antibody

121
Q

Coeliac HLA

A

DQ2/8

122
Q

Antiphospholipid syndrome antibodies

A

Anti-cardiolipin

Anti-Beta-2 glycoprotein

123
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis antibody

A

anti-smooth muscle
Anti-liver-kidney-microsomal
Anti-soluble liver antigen

124
Q

Autoimmune heamolytic anaemia antibody

A

Anti-Rh Blood Group Antigen

125
Q

Autoimmune thrombocytopaenic purpura antibody

A

Anti-Glycoprotein IIb-IIIa

126
Q

Churg-Strauss antibody

A

p-ANCA

127
Q

Coeliac Antibody

A

Anti-tissue transgluatminase antibody

Anti-endomysial antibody

128
Q

Congenital Heart block in infants of mothers with SLE antibody

A

Anti-Ro

129
Q

Dermatitis Herpetiformis antibody

A

Anti-endomysial antibody

130
Q

Dermatomyositis Antibody

A

Anti-Jo-1 antibody

131
Q

Goodpasture’s Antibody

A

Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody

132
Q

Graves’ Antibody

A

Anti-TSH r

133
Q

Hashimoto’s Thyroditis antibody

A

Anti-Thyroglobulin

Anti- Thyroperoxidase

134
Q

Microscopic Polyangiitis antibody

A

p-ANCA

135
Q

Mixed connective tissue disease antibody

A

Anti-U1RNP antibody

136
Q

Myasthenia Gravis antibody

A

Anti-Ach receptor antibody

137
Q

Pernicious Anaemia antibody

A

Anti-Gastric Parietal Cells

Anti-Intrinsic factor

138
Q

Polymyositis Antibody

A

Anti-Jo-1

139
Q

PBC antibody

A

Anti-mitochondrial antibody

140
Q

RA antibodies

A

Anti-CCP

141
Q

Sjogren’s Antibody

A

Anti-Ro

Anti-La

142
Q

SLE antibody

A

Anti-double stranded DNA

143
Q

T1DM antibody

A

Anti-glutamate decarboxylase

Anti-Pancreatic beta cells

144
Q

Wegener’s Granulomatosis antibody

A

c-ANCA

cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies

145
Q

Steroid MOA

A

Anti-Phospholipase 2

146
Q

Infliximab MOA

A

Anti-TNF alpha

147
Q

HAART composition

A

2x NRTIs

PI/NNRTI

148
Q

Fontana stain

A

+ve for melanin

149
Q

Congo red and apple green birefringence

A

+ve for amyloid

150
Q

Rhodanine stain

A

Golden brown against blue counterstain = +ve for copper

151
Q

Prussian Blue

A

+ve for iron

152
Q

Perl’s Stain

A

+ve for iron

153
Q

Cytokeratin stain

A

+ve for epithelial cells (carcinoma)

154
Q

CD45 stain

A

+ve for lymphoid cells

155
Q

Ziehl-Neelson stain

A

+ve for acid-fast bacilli, TB

156
Q

Auramine Stain

A

Bright yellow = positive for TB

157
Q

Gomori’s Methanamine silver stain

A

Flying saucer shaped cysts = positive for Pneumocystic jirovecii

158
Q

Modified Kinyoung acid fast stain

A

+ve for Cryptosporidium parvum

159
Q

India Ink stain

A

Yeast cells surrounded by halos = positive for Cryptococcus neoformans

160
Q

Giemsa Stain

A

Cytoplasmic inclusions = positive for Chlamydia psittaci

161
Q

Fite Stain

A

+ve for Mycobacterium leprae

Meded Path Lectures (15 decks)

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