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One Marks Flashcards

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1
Q

Rabies is identified by

A

Negri bodies

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2
Q

Neurological complications following rabies vaccines is common with

A

Semple vaccine

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3
Q

The incubation period of rabies is proportional to

A

The time taken for virus to travel from the inoculation site to the brain/spinal cord

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4
Q

Rabies reaches the CNS by

A

Neurotropic spread

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5
Q

Cysticercus cellulose is seen in infection with

A

T. Solium

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6
Q

Larval of Taenia solium is seen in

A

Pig

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7
Q

Drug of choice for neurocyticercosis

A

Albendazole

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8
Q

40 y/o man presented with epileptic seizures. MRI shows multiple ring enhancing lesions with edema in his brain. What is the organism?

A

Taenia solium

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9
Q

Common cause of keratitis is which virus

A

HSV 1

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10
Q

Chlamydial trachomatis is most commonly transmitted by

A

Flies

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11
Q

Rabies characteristics

A

Enveloped RNA virus
Bullet shaped
Transmitted by bites of infected animals
Vaccine can prevent it

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12
Q

Chronic Otitis Media is usually due to:
a) Aerobic organism only
b) Anaerobic organism only
c) Mixed aerobic and anaerobic organism
d) Staphylococcus aureus
e) Streptococcus pneumonia

A

Mixed aerobic and anaerobic organism

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13
Q

Chronic Otitis Media

A

Mixed aerobic and anaerobic organism

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14
Q

All are charecteristics feature of prions diseases EXCEPT:
a) Long incubation period ranging from months to years
b) Predilection for the involvement of the CNS
c) High cell mediated immunity
d) Genetic predisposition
e) Fatal termination

A

High cell mediated immunity

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15
Q

All are prions diseases of human EXCEPT:
a) Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD)
b) Fatal familial insomnia
c) Hereditary dementia
d) Kuru
e) Scrapie

A

Scrapie

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16
Q

Most cases of fungal meningitis are due to:
a) Blastomyces
b) Candida
c) Coccidioides
d) Cryptococcus
e) Histoplasma

A

Cryptococcus

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17
Q

Trachoma is caused by:

A

Chlamydia trachomatis serotype A- C

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18
Q

Examination of CSF from a case of meningitis had plenty of lymphocytes and monocytes, reduced glucose and moderate increase in protiens. Which of these organism is most likely the causative organism?

A

M.TB

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19
Q

The viral encephalitis that can be prevented by vaccine is:
a. Herpes simplex virus type-1
b. Japanese encephalitis virus
c. Rabies virus
d. West Nile encephalitis virus
e. Both ( b & c)

A

e

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20
Q

Which one of the following statement is CORRECT regarding meningitis and its
diagnosis?
a. In CSF analysis, neutrophil counts are elevated in fungal meningitis
b. Direct intraneural spread along the nerve is the least common route of infection
c. The cause of viral meningitis is diagnosed by India ink stain on a CSF sample
d. Rabies virus is the leading cause of viral meningitis
e. None of the above

A

b

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21
Q

Neurosurgeon planned to perform cadeveric transplant of dura mater. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the sterilization of instrument used for the surgery in order to prevent transmission of prion diseases?

A

Instrument sterilized using 0.5% sodium hypochlorite for 2 hour

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22
Q

Which of the following statement is /are TRUE regarding Prions and its diseases?
a. Prions are destroyed by heat and formalin
b. Variant Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease is acquired by corneal transplantation
c. Prions disease can be treated with antiviral medicine
d. Disease of prions have no humoral or cell mediated response
e. All of the above

A

Disease of prions have no humoral or cell mediated response

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23
Q

A 35-year-old man admitted in the emergency room with complaints of severe
headache, vomiting, seizure and fever (40°C) that began last night. He is “foaming at the mouth” and cannot drink any liquids. He dies after two days. Pathologic examination of the brain reveals eosinophilic inclusion bodies in the cytoplasm of neurons. The most likely diagnosis is:

A

Rabies encephalitis

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24
Q

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE regarding encephalitis?
a. Japanese B encephalitis is an arthropod borne disease
b. Encephalitis occurs as a complication of measles & poliomyelitis
c. Encephalitis occurs most commonly in adults older than 65 years
d. Borrelia burgdorferi is one of the bacterial agent that cause encephalitis
e. All of the above

A

e

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25
Q

You have made a clinical diagnosis of meningitis in a 50-year-old immunocompromised woman. A latex agglutination test on the spinal fluid for capsular polysaccharide antigen is positive. Of the following organisms, which one is the MOST likely cause?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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26
Q

. The predominant cell in CSF in case of aseptic meningitis is:

A

Lymphocytes

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27
Q

Most common agent of neonatal meningitis is:

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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28
Q

Which of the following statement is TRUE?
a. Mixed infection with aerobic and anaerobic bacteria is common in CSOM
b. Swimmer’s ear usually caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Trachoma causing organism are transmitted by flies
d. Corneal scraping is the ideal specimen for diagnosis of fungal keratitis
e. All of the above

A

e

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29
Q

Which of the following is the causative agent of East African trypanosomiasis?

A

Trypanosoma brucei rhodanese

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30
Q

What kind of stain is most commonly used to visualize the capsule of cryptococcus?

A

negative stain

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31
Q

How do humans usually contract neurocysticercosis?

A

ingestion of undercooked pork

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32
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of neonatal meningitis?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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33
Q

How leprosy is primarily transmitted from person to person?

A

Blowing nose

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34
Q

Which of the following is the causative agent of primary amoebic meningoencephalitis?

A

Naegleria fowleri

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35
Q

What is the biological vector for African sleeping sickness?

A

tsetse fly

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36
Q

The symptoms of tetanus are caused by

A

tetanospasmin

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37
Q

The definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii is

A

cat

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38
Q

The larval forms of a tapeworm are known as

A

cysticerci

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39
Q

…. are the most common reservoir for the rabies virus worldwide

A

Dog

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40
Q

Botulism prevents the release of the …….. neurotransmitter

A

Acetylcholine

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41
Q

Amplifier host of Japanese B encephalitis is ….

A

Pig

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42
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Influenza virus?
a. It has double-stranded RNA genome
b. Antigenic shift is due to point mutations in HA and NA genes
c. Minor antigenic changes results in pandemics
d. Hemagglutinin & Neuraminidase are surface glycoprotein
e. Preventive vaccines gives lifelong immunity to all stains of influenza virus

A

d

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43
Q

All are TRUE regarding Histoplasma capsulatum EXCEPT:
a. Transmitted by inhalation of spores
b. Typically dimorphic fungi
c. Resist intracellular killing
d. Causes pneumonia and disseminated infections
e. Infections prevented by vaccine

A

e

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44
Q

Which of the following bacterial infection is related to formation of
pseudomembrane in oropharynx?
a. Bordetella pertussis
b. Chlamydia pneumoniae
c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
e. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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45
Q

The most common nosocomial respiratory pathogen is:
a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. Haemophilus influenzae
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d. Chlamydia pneumoniae
e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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46
Q

A 65-year old man presented with complaints of low-grade fever & non-productive cough for the past one week. No organisms could be obtained from routine sputum culture but cold agglutination test was positive. Which one of these pathogens is responsible for the above clinical manifestations?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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47
Q

All are true regarding Legionnarie’s disease EXCEPT:
a. Common among heavy smokers
b. Transmitted by water aerosols
c. Clinically presents as atypical pneumonia
d. Infecting organism can be diagnosed by culture on BCYE medium
e. Prevented by subunit vaccine

A

e

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48
Q

Ghon’s complex in lung is due to:
a. Benign lung tumor
b. Candida infection
c. Influenza infection
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection
e. Streptococcal pharyngitis

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection

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49
Q

Tuberculosis can be prevented by:

A

BCG vaccine

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50
Q

Opportunistic fungal pneumonia is caused by:
a. Candida species
b. Aspergillus fumigatus
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Pneumocystis carinii
e. All of the above

A

e

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51
Q

Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus is transmitted by:
a. Close contact with infected person
b. Organ transplantation
c. Exposure to Camels
d. Both (a & c)
e. All the above

A

d

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52
Q

Community acquired pneumonia is commonly caused by:

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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53
Q

Atypical pneumonia can be caused by:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Chlamydia pneumoniae
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Haemophilus influenzae
e. None of the above

A

Chlamydia pneumoniae

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54
Q

All are TRUE regarding Diphtheria EXCEPT:
a. It is localized URT infection with systemic complications
b. Pathogenesis depends on exotoxin production
c. It is severe local inflammation leading to pseudomembrane formation
d. It is caused by Cryptococcus neoformans
e. Can be prevented by effective vaccine

A

d

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55
Q

A 52-year-old man presented with fever and shortness of breath for 2 days. His
doctor put him mechanical ventilation because of his underlying disease and poor oxygenation. On day 7 of hospitalization, the nurses report purulent endotracheal tube suction specimens. What type of pneumonia does he develop and what is the most common causative agent in this case?

A

Hospital acquired pneumonia with Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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55
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is/are TRUE regarding aspiration pneumonia?
    a. Caused by polymicrobial organism
    b. Common among persons with neuromuscular disease affecting swallowing
    c. Due to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs
    d. It results due to inhalation of oropharyngeal secretions
    e. All of the above
A

e

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56
Q

Rash & blisters or ulcers on the hard palate and tongue, seen in hand, foot, and
mouth disease is due to ………………………………………………

A

Coxsackie A virus

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57
Q

The most common agent of viral pneumonia in adults is:

A

Influenza virus

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58
Q

Which of the following is included in primary infection with tuberculosis?
a. Progress to develop Ghon Complex
b. Assman focus in apex of lung
c. Cavity in apex of lung
d. Can progress to miliary TB
e. Both a and d are correct

A

e

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59
Q

Scarlet fever is due to infection by Streptococcus pyogenes producing:

A

Erythrogenic toxin

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60
Q

The main causative agent of acute otitis media is:

A

Pneumococci & Hemophilus influenzae

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61
Q

The most important line of treatment of diphtheria is:

A

Intravenous anti-diphtheritic serum

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62
Q

A 3-year-old boy suddenly developed paroxysms of cough and often associated with vomiting and cyanosis, the laboratory medium that is likely to help isolating the causative organism is:

A

Bordetella Pertussis, Bordet Gengou medium

63
Q

The microorganism mostly causing epiglottitis is:

A

H. influenzae type B

64
Q

In a case of Haemophilus influenza pneumonia, the following is true about the
causative organism EXCEPT:
a. Gram- negative coccobacilli
b. Can be cultured on blood agar
c. Capsulated and the capsule is immunogenic
d. Type b is the most virulent
e. Needs special growth requirements

A

b

65
Q

Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with coronavirus infections?
a. COVID-19
b. Common cold
c. Giant cell pneumonia
d. Middle East respiratory syndrome
e. Severe acute respiratory syndrome

A

c

66
Q

All are TRUE regarding Influenza virus and its vaccine EXCEPT:
a. Intranasal vaccines produce local immunity
b. It has single-stranded segmented RNA genome
c. Hemagglutinin & Neuraminidase are surface glycoprotein
d. Vaccines are recommend yearly because of frequent mutation
e. Minor antigenic changes in surface glycoprotein results in pandemics

A

e

67
Q

The following are rapid tests for TB diagnosis EXCEPT:
a. Culture on Lowenstein-Jensen agar
b. ELISPOT test
c. Polymerize chain reaction (PCR)
d. Quantiferon-TB
e. Xpert MTB/RIF

A

a

68
Q

Which of this fungal organism can cause pneumonia in healthy individual?
a. Aspergillus fumigatus
b. Candida albicans
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
e. Pneumocystis carinii

A

d

69
Q

Which one of the following organisms is MOST likely to be the cause of pneumonia
in an immunocompetent young adult?
a. Legionella pneumophila
b. Nocardia asteroids
c. Serratia marcescens
d. Pneumocystis carinii

A

Legionella pneumophila

70
Q

Select all the correct answers, respiratory diseases that can be transmitted from
animals to humans
1.Candidiasis
2.Brucellosis
3. Tularemia (Rabbit fever)
4.Anthrax
a. 1,2,3,4
b. 1,2,3
c. 2,3,4
d. 3,4

A

d

71
Q

Which of the following pathogen have been found to cause the majority of
nosocomial/hospital-acquired pneumonia in patients?
a. Streptococcus pneumonia
b. Escherichia coli
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. H.influenzae

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

72
Q

A retro positive patient presents with cough for 10 days. Sputum culture by SDA
reveals budding yeast cells with thick mucoid wall. The diagnosis is
a. Histoplasmosis
b. Coccidioidomycosis
c. Blastomycosis
d. Cryptococcosis

A

Cryptococcus

73
Q

Aflatoxin is produced by :
a. Aspergillus flavus
b. Aspergillus fumigatus
c. Aspergillus Niger
d. All of the above

A

Aspergillus flavus

74
Q

Type of hemolysis exhibited by pneumococcus
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Gamma
d. No hemolysis

A

Alpha

75
Q

Legionella produce what type of disease most commonly
a. Pneumonia
b. Diarrhea
c. UTI
d. Upper respiratory tract infection

A

Pneumonia

76
Q

Whooping cough is produced by which type of organism
a. Streptococcus
b. Influenza
c. Bordetella
d. Mycoplasma

A

Bordetella

77
Q

Which of the following is a capsulated yeast?
a. Candida albicans
b. Candida tropicalis
c. Saccharomyces
d. Cryptococcus

A

Cryptococcus

78
Q

Which of the following organism exhibit the property of satellitism?
a. Haemophilus influenzae
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Corynebacterium diptheriae
d. Streptococcus pneumonia

A

Haemophilus influenzae

79
Q

Which strain is used for preparing TB vaccine?
a. Mycobacteruium bovis
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Mycobacterium avium
d. Mycobacterium leprae

A

Mycobacteruium bovis

80
Q

Which of these microbes causes “walking pneumonia”?
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d. Chlamydophila pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

81
Q

Which of the following is not caused by a dimorphic fungus?
a. histoplasmosis
b. coccidioidomycosis
c. blastomycosis
d. aspergillosis

A

aspergillosis

82
Q

Croup’ is caused by

A

Parainfluenza virus

83
Q

C. psittaci causes

A

psittacosis (parrots)

84
Q

Bordet gengou potato agar is a selective medium for

A

Bordetella pertussis

85
Q

Pneumonia caused by ……… is characterized by lung necrosis and “currant jelly sputum”

A

K. Pneumonia

86
Q

Pseudomembrane in throat is typically characteristic sign of …..infection

A

C. Diphtheria

87
Q

Urine culture showing 105 CFU/ml from mid-stream urine sample is suggestive of:
a. Contamination
b. Insignificant bacteria
c. Significant bacteriuria
d. Significant bacteraemia
e. None of the above

A

Significant bacteriuria

88
Q

Each of the following organism is an important cause of urinary tract infection EXCEPT:
a. Klebsiela pneumoniae
b. Proteus mirabilis
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Escherichia coli
e. Bacteroides fragilis

A

Bacteroides fragilis

89
Q

The ideal sample to be collected from a two month old baby to diagnose urinary tract
infection is:
a. Catheterized urine
b. Indwelling Cather
c. Midstream sample of urine
d. Suprapubic aspiration
e. Urine collecting bag

A

Suprapubic aspiration

90
Q

Which of the following condition is considered as a factor that is associated with
increased colonization of bacteria and decreasing efficacy of therapy?
a. Diverticulum
b. Neurogenic bladder
c. Immunocompromised host
d. Infection with multi-drug resistant bacteria
e. All of the above

A

e

91
Q

Which one of the following statement is FALSE?
a. Reticulate body is the infective form of Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Chlamydia trachomatis (D-K) is associated with non-gonococcal urethritis
c. Endogenous source of infection is more common source to cause UTI
d. Urinary tract infection with Proteus mirabils predisposes to stone formation
e. Dysuria is a common symptom in urethritis and urinary tract infection

A

a (the infective form is elementary body)

92
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor of urinary tract infection?
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Pregnancy
c. Prolonged urinary catheterization
d. Renal calculi
e. All the above

A

e

93
Q

Urinary tract infection is commonly caused by:
a. Ascending route
b. Blood transfusion
c. Descending route
d. Hematogenous spread
e. Lymphatic route

A

a

94
Q

Non-gonococcal urethritis is commonly caused by:

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

95
Q

All are ideal urine samples for the diagnosis of urinary tract infection EXCEPT:
a. Catheterized urine sample
b. Mid-stream urine sample (for adults)
c. Suprapubic aspiration of urine (for infants)
d. Sample from urine collection bag
e. Sterile aspiration of urine from the indwelling catheter

A

d

96
Q

Urine culture showing 10^3-10^5 CFU/ml from mid-stream urine sample is mostly suggestive of:
a. Suspicious of infection
b. Significant bacteriuria
c. Significant bacteraemia
d. Contamination
e. Absence of urinary tract infection

A

Suspicious of infection

97
Q

Which culture medium is preferred for processing of urine specimens?
a. TCBS agar
b. CLED agar
c. Chocolate agar
d. XLD agar

A

CLED agar

98
Q

Which among the following is not a predisposing factor for UTI?
a. Diabetes
b. Hypertension
c. Vesicoureteral reflux
d. Pregnancy

A

Hypertension

99
Q

Example of a parasite causing UTI is ……………………. .
a. Malaria
b. Schistosoma haematobium
c. Taenia solium
d. Taenia saginata

A

Schistosoma haematobium

100
Q

Which of the following is the most common etiological agent of UTI?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Klebsiella
c. Proteus
d. Enterobacter

A

Escherichia coli

101
Q

Lugol’s iodine is used to stain the inclusion body of:

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

102
Q

Gonococcal infection all are true, except:
a. watercan perineum is one of the complication
b. Mucopurulent cervicitis is the most common presentation in females
c. Vulvovaginitis is seen in prepubertal girls
d. Fitz–Hugh–Curtis syndrome seen
e. Vaginal swab ideal for isolation of pathogen

A

Vaginal swab ideal for isolation of pathogen

103
Q

The most commonly used method for isolation of Chlamydia:

A

Culture on McCoy cell line

104
Q

The most sensitive and specific test for Chlamydia diagnosis:
a. Direct immunofluorescence test (DIF)
b. Culture on McCoy cell line
c. Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT)
d. Microimmunofluorescence (MIF) test

A

Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT)

105
Q

Wrong about Bacterial vaginosis (caused by mycoplasma hominis, Gardnerella vaginalis, mobil uncos) is:
a. Discharge has offensive smell
b. pH >4.5
c. Causative agent is Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Clue cell is diagnostic

A

c

106
Q

All of the following are oncogenic viruses except:
a. HPV
b. Hepatitis C virus
c. HIV
d. Hepatitis E virus

A

Hep E

107
Q

Epstein-Barr virus is associated with the following malignancies except:
a. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
b. Burkitt’s lymphoma
c. Carcinoma of cervix
d. Non Hodgkin lymphoma

A

c

108
Q

Highest risk of carcinoma cervix (squamous cell) is associated with which of the
following HPV serotypes?
a. Serotypes 6 and 11
b. Serotypes 16 and 18
c. Serotypes 2 and 4
d. Serotypes 27 and 57

A

b

109
Q

Rat bite fever is caused by:
a. Borrelia recurrentis
b. Streptobacillus moniliformis
c. Yersinia pestis
d. Leptospira

A

Streptobacillus moniliformis

110
Q

All are congenital infections except?
a. Herpes
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Zika virus
d. Mucor

A

Mucor

111
Q

Plague is transmitted by:
a. Rat flea
b. Soft tick
c. Hard tick
d. Louse

A

Rat flea

112
Q

Bipolar staining is characteristic of:
a. Yersinia pestis
b. Shigella
c. Klebsiella
d. Proteus

A

Yersinia pestis

113
Q

Drug of choice for rat bite fever:
a. Amikacin
b. Cephalosporin
c. Penicillin G
d. Tetracycline

A

Penicillin G

114
Q

Pasteurella multocida mainly is transmitted by:
a. Animal bite
b. Insect bite
c. Droplets
d. Sexual contact

A

Animal bite

115
Q

Example of a Fungi causing UTI is ……………………. .
a. Candida
b. Aspergillus
c. Cryptococcus
d. Mucor

A

Candida

116
Q

Which of the following is a wrong statement regarding urine collection?
a. Only sterile container is used
b. Any container can be used
c. Mid-stream urine is collected
d. Screw cap is necessary

A

b

117
Q

Drug of choice for Syphilis is:
a. Vancomycin
b. Colistin
c. Cefixime
d. Penicillin

A

d

118
Q

Which of the following is an example of Standard tests for Syphilis?
a. VDRL
b. WIDAL
c. TPHA
d. TPA

A

a

119
Q

Treponema pallidum can be cultivated on
a. Rabbit testes
b. Rabbit kidney
c. Rabbit heart
d. Rabbit brain

A

a

120
Q

Soft chancre is caused by
a. Haemophilus ducreyi
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus pyogens
d. Treponema pallidium

A

a

121
Q

Hard chancre is caused by
a. Haemophilus ducreyi
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus pyogens
d. Treponema pallidium

A

d

122
Q

Twitching motility is exhibited by
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. Mycoplasma hominis
c. Gardnerella vaginalis
d. Prevotella species

A

a

123
Q

All are transfusion transmitted agents except
a. Hepatitis B
b. Hepatitis C
c. HIV
d. SARS-CoV-2

A

SARS-CoV-2

124
Q

All are risk factors for developing opportunistic infections except
a. AIDS
b. Diabetes
c. Steroid therapy
d. Anti-fungal therapy

A

d

125
Q

Example of a Bioterrorism agent is
a. Anthrax
b. HIV
c. Candida
d. Staph aureus

A

a

126
Q

———– cannot be cultivated in SDA medium.

A

Cryptococcus

127
Q

Fungal agents causing mycetoma is called as …………………

A

Eumycetoma

128
Q

Tinea unguium is an infection of _________

A

Nail

129
Q

Which dermatophyte is zoophilic in nature?

A

Microsporum canis

130
Q

Sclerotic bodies are the characteristic of ________

A

coccidiodes immitis

131
Q

__________________ causes rose gardener’s disease

A

Sporothrix schenckii

132
Q

Black piedra is caused by __________

A

Piedraia horpae

133
Q

White piedra is also called as _________

A

Trichosporon beigelii

134
Q

Which fungus exhibits spaghetti and meatballs appearance under bright field
microscopy?

A

Malassezia furfur

135
Q

Malassezia species causes_________

A

Tinea versicolor and Seborrheic dermatitis

136
Q

Hot-tub folliculitis is caused by

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

137
Q

……… is the causative agent of cat scratch disease

A

Bartonella henselae

138
Q

What is the type of hemolysis does Staphylococcus aureus produce?

A

Beta lysis

139
Q

Methicillin resistance in S. aureus is mediated by which gene?

A

mecA

140
Q

Which drug is used as a surrogate marker for the identification of MRSA?

A

Cefoxitin

141
Q

Drug of choice for MRSA

A

Vancomysin

142
Q

DOC for VRSA

A

Daptomycin

143
Q

Which Coagulase negative Staphylococcus spp. is the most common cause of prosthetic device related infections?

A

S. EPIDERMIDIS

144
Q

Which Coagulase negative Staphylococcus spp causes urinary tract infection (UTI) in sexually active young women?

A

S. saprophyticus

145
Q

Scalded skin syndrome is mediated by …….. toxin of Staphylococcus aureus

A

Epidermolytic

146
Q

The principle virulence factor of group A Streptococcus is …..

A

M protein

147
Q

What is the therapeutic use of streptokinase?

A

used in the treatment of myocardial infarction and thromboembolic disorders

148
Q

Which antibodies are used in the retrospective diagnosis of skin infections (pyoderma) and acute glomerulonephritis?

A

Anti DNAse B Antibody

149
Q

Which enzyme produced by S.pyogenes helps in the spread of infection along the intercellular space ?

A

Hyaluronidase

150
Q

What are the post streptococcal non suppurative complications of Streptococcus pyogenes infection?

A

Acute Rheumatic Fever, Acute Glomerulonephritis

151
Q

What is the causative agent of erysipelas?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

152
Q

Which group of Streptococcus can cause vaginal colonization and result in neonatal meningitis and neonatal septicaemia?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae (group B Streptococcus)

153
Q

Which group of Streptococcus shows a positive CAMP test?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae (group B Streptococcus)

154
Q

α haemolysis is produced by which Streptococci?

A

Streptococcus viridans and Streptococcus pneumoniae

155
Q

Serotyping of Streptococcus pyogenes is based on ……

A

M protein

156
Q
A

Microbiology 2 (5 decks)

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