Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Medulloblastoma fast facts

A

Most common malignant brain tumour Embryonal neuroepithelial tumour M>F Small round blue cell tumour Associated syndromes: gorlin, Li-Fraumeni, Turcot, Gardner, Cowden Arise from cerebellum, typically vermis. ONLY occurs in the posterior fossa. Spreads along the neuroaxis: metastatic disease 1/3 at presentation Prognosis WNT1: good SHH: intermediate MYC, p52: bad

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2
Q

ATRT (Atypical teratoid/ rhabdoid tumour)

A

Embryonal malignancy Highly malignant Usually in children <3yrs Short clinical history 90% show loss of INI1 nuclear staining (SMARCB1) Can occur ANYWHERE in the brain or spine Poor prognosis, survival ~ 12 months even with complete resection Check for germline mutation- at risk for renal + soft tissue tumours

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3
Q

Ependymoma fast facts

A

Tumour originating from the wall of the ventricle or spinal cord composed of neoplastic ependymal cells Slow growing Increased in NF2 Surgery + radiation main treatment. Not usually chemosensitive.

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4
Q

In what tumour do you find rosenthal fibres?

A

Low grade glioma: astrocytoma

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5
Q

Low grade glioma fast facts

A

Largest group of CNS tumours- mostly juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma 2/3 occur in posterior fossa Almost ALL tumours involving the optic pathway are juvenile astrocytomas Generally good outcomes

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6
Q

Types of transplants

A

Autologous = patient receives own cells Syngeneic = use of cells from identical twin Allogenic= cells collected from a relative or unrelated donor

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7
Q

Types of transplant matches

A

HLA identical Haploidentical: half match Mismatch Matching based on HLA typing. Tested in 2 ways: 1) serologic testing (use antibody assay for HLA antigens) 2) molecular typing (looks at underlying alleles on chromosome)

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8
Q

Preferred characteristics of a transplant donor

A

Matched sibling= ideal donor CMV negative Males + non-parous women (women may have antibody to Y antigen) ABO + Rh status compatibility NOT required

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9
Q

Graft preparation: What is the purpose of T cell depletion of a transplant recipient / donor

A

Reduces the risk of GVHD BUT this also increases the risk of recurrence + infection

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10
Q

Describe the graft vs leukaemia effect

A

In addition to stem cells, the graft contains mature blood cells of donor origin, including T cells, B cells, natural killer cells, and dendritic cells. These cells repopulate the recipient’s lymphohematopoietic system and give rise to a new immune system, which helps eliminate residual leukemia cells that survive the conditioning regimen.

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11
Q

Describe graft vs host disease

A

Donor alloreactive cytotoxic CD8+ effector T cells may attack recipient tissues, particularly the skin, gastrointestinal (GI) tract, and liver

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12
Q

Who does HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules, present peptides to?

A

CD8+ T cells

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13
Q

Who does HLA-DR, HLA-DQ, and HLA-DP MHC class II molecules present peptides to?

A

CD4+ T cells

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14
Q

Acute vs chronic GVHD

A

GVHD is caused by engraftment of immunocompetent donor T lymphocytes in an immunologically compromised host who shows histocompatibility differences with the donor. These differences between the donor and the host may result in donor T-cell activation against either recipient major histocompatibility complex (MHC) antigens or minor histocompatibility antigens. Acute: within 3 months of transplant Chronic develops OR persists > 3 months post transplant

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15
Q

Grades of GVHD

A

Grade I: skin rash (maculopapular) only < 25% BSA Grade II: mod severe multiorgan disease. Rash 25-50% BSA, elevated bili, diarrhoea Grade III: severe multiorgan disease. Rash >50% BSA, elevated bili, diarrhoea (survival 25%) Grade IV: life threatening (survival 5%)

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16
Q

Pharmacological prophylaxis of GVHD

A

Immunosupression - Cyclosporine or tacrolimus - Methotrexate, prednisolone, MMF Prednisolone remains the most effective 1st line treatment (response ~55%)

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17
Q

What 2 factors have increased the rates of chronic GVHD

A

Use of MUD Use of peripheral blood as stem cell source

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18
Q

Clinical manifestations + biopsy findings in acute GVHD

A

SKIN - Maculopapular rash, pain, blisering - Biopsy: apoptotic bodies in the basal layer of epithelium LIVER - Jaundice + deranged LFTs - Biopsy: bile duct destruction with apoptotic bodies GIT: - N+V, diarrhoea, abdo pain, bleeding. - Biopsy: apoptotic bodies in the base of crypts

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19
Q

Primary vs secondary graft failure

A

Primary graft failure - Failure to achieve a neutrophil count of 0.5 × 109/L after transplantation. Secondary graft failure - Loss of peripheral blood counts following initial transient engraftment of donor cells.

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20
Q

Causes of graft failure

A
  • Inadequate stem cell dose - Viral infections (e.g. CMV, HHV6) which are often associated with activation of recipient macrophages - Immunologically mediated rejection by residual recipient T cells that survive conditioning
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21
Q

Describe veno-occlusive disease (VOD)

A

AKA sinusoidal obstruction syndrome Injury to hepatic venous endothelium leads to dilation + RBC congestion = obstruction of the sinusoidal blood flow. Venous occlusion –> necrosis of liver –> multi-organ failure Onset usually within 30 days

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22
Q

Risk factors for VOD

A
  • Previous hepatic disease - CXT induction agents: cyclophosphamide, busulphan, MTX - Allogenic graft > autologous graft - Young age - Abdominal radiation - Repeated transplants - HLH
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23
Q

Clinical features of VOD

A

Weight gain Ascities Tender hepatomegaly Elevated bilirubin (jaundice) Thrombocytopenia Hepatosplenomegaly

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24
Q

Treatment of VOD

A

Defibrotide Ursodeoxycholic acid

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25
Q

What cancer has the highest rate of secondary malignancy?

A

Hereditary retinoblastoma (~50% at 50yrs)

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26
Q

Ectopic production of what hormone may cause precocious puberty in males with hepatoblastoma

A

bHCG Approximately 10% of hepatoblastomas secrete ectopic b-hCG. hCG, through its LH-like action, causes Leydig cell stimulation in the testes. In turn, testosterone levels reach those of a normal adult, and secondary sexual characteristics develop together with premature skeletal maturity. The testes usually do not significantly enlarge – as Leydig cells only constitute about 25% of testicular volume; Sertoli cell hyperplasia or spermatogenesis is dependent on FSH.

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27
Q

Is development of inhibitors more common in haemophilia A or B?

A

Haemophilia A (FVIII deficiency) The inhibitors are antibodies (primarily IgG) directed against the specific deficient factor. This occurs in: 25-30% of patients with severe haemophilia A; and 3-5% of patients with severe haemophilia B. Development of an inhibitor, usually occurs early in treatment, shortly after replacement therapy has been initiated (within first 50 exposure days of factor given). Inhibitors are more likely in severe disease. The presence of an inhibitor does not lead to a marked increase in bleeding events, but inhibitors can make bleeding episodes more difficult to control. Inhibitor activity is measured by the Bethesda assay (diagnoses inhibitor presence and quantifies the antibody titre) Management is with factor VIII replacement therapy, with minimal change in the factor VIII dose.. Inhibitor eradication (immune tolerance induction), requires routine administration of the deficient factor to reset the patient’s immune system.

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28
Q

Difference in clinical presentation of radiation vs. anthracycline induced cardiotoxicity

A

Patients who present with cardiac toxicity due to radiation therapy alone generally present with pericardial effusions or constrictive pericarditis. Radiation can also lead to premature coronary artery disease. Patients with anthracycline-induced cardiomyopathy usually present with symptoms of congestive heart failure (CHF), which may develop spontaneously or be initiated by stressors such as extreme exertion, as in weight lifting or difficult labor. Pericarditis may also be present, further compromising cardiac function. Additionally, ventricular arrhythmias may occur.

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29
Q

Describe diencephalic syndrome

A

Rare cause of FTT associated with hypothalamic / optic chaism region tumours Symptoms of increased intracranial pressure may also be present. Some case series have reported hyperactivity, hyperalertness, euphoria and vomiting. Most common tumour type associated with diencephalic syndrome is pilocytic astrocytoma

30
Q

Li-Fraumeni syndrome

A

The wide variety of cancer types seen in affected individuals A young age at onset of malignancies The potential for multiple primary sites of cancer during the lifetime of affected individuals The following 3 criteria must be met for a diagnosis of Li-Fraumeni syndrome: A proband diagnosed with sarcoma when younger than 45 years A first-degree relative with any cancer diagnosed when younger than 45 years Another first-degree or second-degree relative of the same genetic lineage with any cancer diagnosed when younger than 45 years or sarcoma diagnosed at any age Most hereditary family cancer syndromes involve 1 or 2 specific tumor types, whereas members of Li-Fraumeni syndrome kindreds are at risk for a wide range of malignancies, with particularly high occurrences of breast cancer, brain tumors, acute leukemia, soft tissue sarcomas, bone sarcomas, and adrenal cortical carcinoma. Pathophysiology Autosomal dominant Li-Fraumeni syndrome has been linked to germline mutations of the tumor suppressor gene p53 (TP53). Mutations can be inherited or can arise de novo early in embryogenesis or in one of the parent’s germ cells. Subsequent studies analysing the coding and noncoding portions of TP53 have shown that approximately 70% of Li-Fraumeni syndrome kindreds have constitutional (germline) mutations of 1 of the 2 copies of the TP53 tumour suppressor gene; the second copy is normal. APC is bowel related. NF1 – neurofibromas. RB1 – retinoblastomas, osteosarcomas. RET – multiple endocrine neoplasias.

31
Q

Germ cells tumours secrete…..

A

bHCG + AFP

32
Q

What chemotherapy agents cause secondary malignancy?

A

Cyclophosphamide Etoposide

33
Q

What are the subtypes of rhabdosarcoma?

A

Rhabdosarcoma is the most common paediatric soft tissue sarcoma Most common subtypes - Embryonal (60%) - Alveolar (15%)

34
Q

What are Heinz bodies compromised of and in what conditions are they present?

A

Comprised of denatured haemoglobin G6PD Alpha thalassaemia

35
Q

Side effects of calcineurin inhibitors (cyclosporine, tacrolimus)

A

gingival hyperplasia hirsutism nephrotoxicity HT hypercholesterolaemia neurotoxicity (tremor, headache, paraesthesiae) deranged LFTs hypomagnesaemia hyperkalaemia diarrhoea

36
Q

Posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES) + chemotherapy

A

Chemotherapeutic agents and hypertension are both risk factors for PRES. Vision loss suggests the occipital lobes are involved. The lack of diffusion restriction indicates vasogenic oedema rather than cytotoxic oedema that is seen in watershed infarcts.

37
Q

A five-year-old boy is on chemotherapy for ALL with low grade fevers, headaches and behavioural changes over several weeks. CSF stained with india ink shows cells with a halo surrounding them. What is the most likely organism?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans is the commonest cause of fungal meningitis in immunocompromised patients. Onset may be insidious. India ink stain is the classic stain for this organism and the halo is due to the stain being unable to penetrate the capsule of the organism.

38
Q

What does southern, western + northern blot identify?

A

Southern- DNA Western- protein Northern- RNA

39
Q

What rare germline mutations are linked to familial ALL

A

PAX5 ETV6

40
Q

What is the peak age of incidence of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?

A

2-5yrs

41
Q

Does uric acid deposit in an acidic or alkaline environment?

A

Acidic

42
Q

Does phosphate deposit in an acidic or alkaline environment?

A

Alkaline

43
Q

Do NOT give calcium gluconate in the same IV line as ……

A

NaHCO3

44
Q

Mechanism of renal failure in TLS

A

Uric acid nephropathy CaPO4 deposition Hypoxanthine deposition (increased with allopurinol + alkalinisation)

45
Q

ALL Induction Regimen

A

Around 28-30 days “Induce a remission” Steroids Vincristine Asparaginase Intrathecal methotrexate Anthracycline for T cell + high risk 98% in remission post induction

46
Q

Syndromes with increased risk of ALL

A

T21 NF1 Bloom syndrome Ataxia telangiectasia Fanconi anaemia Diamond Blackfan SCID Li Fraumeni

47
Q

ALL subtypes

A

B cell in origin (85%) Pro B CD10 - Pre B (CD10) Mature B cell- Burkitt (1%) T cell in origin (15%) CD2/3/4/5/7/8

48
Q

ALL favourable cytogenetics

A

Hyperploidy (> 50) Trisomy 4, 10, 17 ETV6-RUNX1 (t12;21) rearrangements TEL-AML1 fusion High risk features NOT present

49
Q

ALL unfavourable features/ cytogenetics

A

Age < 1yrs or > 10 yrs WCC > 50 at diagnosis CNS involvement Testicular involvement Hypoploidy (<44) KMT2A/MLL rearrangement (translocation of 11q23) t(4;11) iAMP21 amplification Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22) BCRABL fusion Abnormal 17p, loss of 13q Failure to achieve remission by EOI (end of induction) = day 29 ; MRD > 0.01%

50
Q

ALL overview of protocol

A

Induction Consolidation CNS prophylaxis Re-induction Maintenance

51
Q

ALL assessment of treatment response

A

EARLY response to treatment - Peripheral blast count day 8 - Bone marrow remission status via flow D15 + 30 MRD D30

52
Q

What is MRD

A

Minimal residual disease - Small number of leukaemia cells that remain in the patient when the patient is in morphological remission - Major cause of relapse in leukaemia - Based on detecting a leukaemia specific DNA sequence using PCR - Can measure minute levels of leukaemia as low as 1 in 1000000 cells

53
Q

Relapse ALL

A

Relapse occurs in 15-20% of children, cure rates lower after relapse Prognostic factors - Time to relapse (shorter time = worse prognosis) - Immunophenotype (T cell = worse prognosis) - Site of relapse (BM = worse prognosis) After 1st relapse chance of cure IF they enter a second remission is 50% IF relapse occurs during therapy chance of attaining second remission = 50-70% and only 20-30% cured

54
Q

Specific clinical features to AML

A

Subcutaneous nodules ‘blueberry muffin’ lesions Infiltration of gingiva (especially monocytic subtypes) Signs + symptoms of DIC (indicative of APML) Discrete masses- chloromas, granulocytic sarcomas

55
Q

AML favourable cytogenetics

A

t(8; 21) t(15;17) PML-RARA inv 16 NPM1 CEBPA

56
Q

AML unfavourable cytogenetics

A

Monosomy 5 or 7 Deletion of 5q Abnormal q of chromosome 3 Complex karyotype FLT3-ITD

57
Q

What is APML

A

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia t(15;17) Breakpoint in chromosome 17 is within the first intron of alpha reinoic acid receptor gene (RARA), fuses with PML gene on chromosome 15 Results in a persistent transcriptional repression and failure of differentiation of promyelocytes (pharmacological doses of retinoic acid overcome this + restore differentiation) Very good prognosis if they survive induction High risk of DIC

58
Q

What surface antigen marker is on haematopoietic stem cells?

A

CD34+ antigen

59
Q

How do you prevent graft rejection?

A

Kill host immune system - high dose CXT + RXT + T cell depletion Optimal HLA matching High stem cell doses Remove T cells from PBSC grafts Use medications to suppress donor immune response (especially T cells) - Cyclosporine - Steroids - Methotrexate - Mycophenolate

60
Q

Refractory thrombocytopenia is a sign of what HSCT complication

A

Venous oclusive disease

61
Q

What is the treatment of choice for VOD?

A

Defibrotide Single stranded polydeoxyribonucleotide with anti-thrombotic, anti-ischaemia + thrombolytic properties

62
Q

Post HSCT transplant what are the differential diagnosis of obstructive jaundice?

A

VOD GVHD TPN related Cyclosporine toxicity

63
Q

What are the risk factors for GVHD?

A

HLA disparity Increasing age (patient + donor) Sex mismatch Rapidly established donor T cell chimerism Unrelated donor > UCB > MSD PBSC

64
Q

Late effects of cancer

A

> 80% will become long term survivors Cure has not come without a cost - 2/3 will experience at least 1 late effect - 1/3 will experience a late effect that is severe or life threatening

65
Q

High risk groups for late effects of cancer

A

Survivors of CNS tumours - Cognitive dysfunction - Seizures - Endocrinopathies - Infertility - Secondary malignancy Survivors of BMT - Infertility - Secondary malignancy Survivor’s of Hodgkin’s - CVD - 2nd cancer (esp breast in women) - Lung disease - Thyroid disease

66
Q

Preventing anthracycline induced cardiomyopathy

A

Life long risk of cardiomyopathy with anthracycline use Cumulative total should not exceed risk threshold (300mg/m2) - Incidence is dose dependent <1% if <500mg/m2 Reduce peak dose (IV infusion rather than bolus) Use cardio-protective agents (Dexrazoxane)

67
Q

How does radiation cause cardiovascular dysfunction?

A

Radiation injures capillary endothelium –> obstruction of lumen + formation of fibrin + platelet thrombi –> ischaemia –> myocardial cell death + fibrosis

68
Q

What are common radiation induced secondary malignancies?

A

Thyroid cancer Breast cancer Brain tumour Bone tumour Basal cell carcinoma

69
Q

Late effects of: Cisplatin Bone health Lungs Eyes Renal damage Dental problems Peripheral neuropathy Seizures

A

Cisplatin- decreased hearing Bone health- steroids TBI Lungs- bleomycin, radiation Eyes- radiation, steroids Renal damage- cisplatin, ifosfamide Dental problems- radiation, chemo Peripheral neuropathy- vincristine Seizures- radiation

70
Q

What is Wilms tumour associated with?

A

WAGR syndrome - Wilms tumour; aniridia; genitourinary abnormalities; retardation Denys-Drash syndrome - pseudohermaphroditism; mesangial renal sclerosis; Wilms tumour Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome Hemihypertrophy Cryptorchidism Hypospadias

71
Q

In children with recently diagnosed lymphoma, which one of the following therapies is ineffective in reducing the risk of acute kidney injury as a result of tumour lysis syndrome? - Allopurinol - Furosemide - 0.9% sodium chloride - Sodium bicarbonate - Uric oxidase

A

Furosemide