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Advanced Med/Surg > Oncology > Flashcards

Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Symptoms of Hypercalcemia

A
  • fatigue
  • loss of appetite
  • N&V
  • constipation
  • polyuria
  • severe muscle weakness
  • loss of DTRs
  • paralytic ileus
  • dehydration
  • EKG changes
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2
Q

time when bone marrow and WBC are at their lowest points varying with different chemo drugs

A

NADIR

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3
Q

process during radiation therapy in which the cancer cell’s nucelus are rearranged causing a release of energy and eventually cell death or inability to divide

A

ionizing

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4
Q

type of cancer treatment that modifies patient’s biological response to tumor cells and can result in life-threatening edema

A

Immunotherapy: Biological Response Modifiers (BRMs)

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5
Q

percentage of actively dividing cells within a tumor (the higher the number, the faster the tumor growth)

A

Mitotic Index

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6
Q

Treatment of SVC Syndrome

A
  • high-dose radiation
  • metal stent in vena cava
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7
Q

common sites of melanoma cancer metasasis are:

A

GI tract & lymph nodes

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8
Q

chemo given early in remission as an intent to cure leukemia

A

consolidation therapy

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9
Q

occurs when chemo leaks out in the surrounding tissues of an IV site causing severe tissue damage, pain, and tissue loss

A

extravasation

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10
Q

Medications given for Hormone Manipulation

A
  • Androgen
  • Estrogen
  • Anti-androgens
  • Anti-estrogens
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11
Q

It takes bone marrow ___ to ___ weeks to recover after induction therapy.

A

2 - 3

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12
Q

type of cancer surgical treatment in which cells are removed for biopsy

A

diagnostic surgery

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13
Q

Signs of Superior Vena Cava Syndrome

A
  • facial edema
  • periorbital edema in the morning
  • Stokes’ sign (edema in the neck)
  • arm/hand edema
  • Pemberton’s sign (facial flushing)
  • dyspnea
  • epitaxis (nose bleed)

l

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14
Q

During TLS, _______ & _______ are released into the blood.

A

potassium & purines

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15
Q

Causes of Hodgkins Lymphoma

A
  • viral
  • exposure to chemicals
  • no identifiable cause
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16
Q

type of cancer surgical treatment in which tissues are repaired (breast augmentation, bowel reattachment

A

reconstruction or rehabilitation

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17
Q

cell death

A

apoptis

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18
Q

Na+ level of <110 result in ______.

A

coma

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19
Q

Someone with Bloom Sundrome is more likely to develop __________.

A

leukemia

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20
Q

Men need yearly rectal exams after age ____.

A

50

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21
Q

older CINV medication that has bad S/E

A

metoclopramide (Reglan)

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22
Q

characteristic of a normal cell in which is stops growing if it comes in contact with another non-self cell

A

contact inhibition

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23
Q

type of cancer surgical treatment in which a polyp is removed or a masectomy is done before breast cancer develops

A

prophylactic surgery

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24
Q

Treatment for Spinal Cord Compression

A
  • early recognition
  • high-dose corticosteroids
  • high-dose radiation
  • surgery
  • external back or neck brace
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25
Q

chemotherapy drug that resembles natural metabolites but disrupts metbolic processes and can inhibit synthesis

A

Antimetabolites

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26
Q

Antimitotic Agents (Plant Alkaloids) Drug

A

Vincristine

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27
Q

Symptoms of Lung Cancer

A
  • Cough - chronic that does not go away
    • Hoarseness
  • Sputum
  • Hemoptysis
  • Dyspnea
  • Decreased endurance level
  • Difficulty swallowing
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28
Q

After radiation, skin cannot be exposed to sun for _____.

A

1 year

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29
Q

patient with a history of prostate cancer complaining of low back pain should be evaluated for:

A

metastasis

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30
Q

Someone with Klinefelter Syndrome is more likely to develop ___________.

A

breast cancer

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31
Q

chemotherapy side effect caused by antimitotics and platinum-based drugs (Cysplatin) that consists of loss of sensation in hands, feet, genitalia, pain, loss of taste & constipation

A

Chemotherapy Induced Peripheral Neuropathy (CIPN)

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32
Q

type of leukemia with Philadelphia chromosome

A

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

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33
Q

Treatment for Extravasation

A
  • Cold or warm compress
  • Antidotes
  • Chemoprotective agents
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34
Q

Dietary Habits to Reduce Cancer Risk:

A
  • Avoid nitrites (bologna, hotdogs)
  • Do not grill on charcoal
  • Decrease fats
  • Decrease red meat
  • Decrease alcoholic drinks
  • Increase bran (more whole grains)
  • Increase cruciferous vegetables (broccoli, cabbage)
  • Recommended Vit A & C
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35
Q

drug given to chemotherapy patients to stimulate bone marrow to produce RBC to prevent anemia

A

Epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit)

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36
Q

selective destruction of cancer cells via chemical reaction triggered by different types of laser light

A

Photodynamic Therapy (Laser)

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37
Q

For extravasation of Cisplatin & Mechlorethamine, recommended treatment is:

A
  • Sodium Thiosulfate 1/6M
    • 4 mL of 10% sodium thiosulfate + 6 mL water
    • instilled via multiple injections in and around the area using a small gauge needle
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38
Q

Causes of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A
  • Unknown Cause
  • Immunosuppressive disorders (HIV)
  • H. Pylori (MALT)
    • grows in GI system
  • Epstein Barr virus
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39
Q

intense combo of chemo given to achieve rapid & complete remission

A

Induction Therapy

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40
Q

chracteristic of a normal cell in which the nucleus does not occupy much space within a cell

A

nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio

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41
Q

cancer of the lymph tissue due to abnormal growth of leukocytes and lymphocytes

A

malignant lymphomas

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42
Q

abnormal growth of cell not needed for normal function

A

neoplasia

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43
Q

TLS is most common ____ to ____ hours after first dose of chemo.

A

24-48

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44
Q

chemotherapy drug that stops mitosis of the cells

A

Antimitotic Agents (Plant Alkaloids)

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45
Q

Inherited types of cancer include:

A

breast, prostate, ovarian

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46
Q

Risk Factors for Lung Cancer:

A
  • SMOKING
    • Greater # of pack years= greater risk
  • Second-hand smoke
  • Family history
  • Radiation to the chest or breast
  • Asbestos, chromium, nickel, arsenic, soot or tar
  • Radon
  • Air pollution
  • Beta carotene supplements with heavy smoking
  • HIV
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47
Q

classification of primary tumor indicating the tumor’s size and/or local extent of the tumor

A

T1 - T4

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48
Q

type of cancer treatment that locally destroys cancer cells with minimal damage to surrounding normal cells

A

Radiation Therapy

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49
Q

syndrome in which a lung cancer tumor envelops the superior vena cava and cuts off blood supply

A

Superior Vena Cava Syndrome

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50
Q

Antitumor Antibodies can cause cardiac toxicity so __________ is also given to protect against that.

A

Dexrazoxane (Zinecard)

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51
Q

Etoposide (VePesid) interacts with ________ so it should be avoided for 2 days prior to and after dose.

A

grapefruit juice

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52
Q

common sites of breast cancer metasasis are:

A

bone, lung, & liver

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53
Q

radiation therapy isotopes that cause patient to emit radiation but do not pass into urine, stool or bodily fluid (i.e. implants for cervical or prostate cancer)

A

sealed isotopes

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54
Q

CINV drug that is used for anticapatory N&V because it calms the nerves

A

lorazepam (Ativan)

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55
Q

chemotherapy drug that interferes with DNA synthesis causing mutant cell DNA resulting in cell death

A

Antitumor Antibodies

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56
Q

Secondary Prevention for Cancer includes:

A
  • Regular screening
  • Genetic screening
  • Altering damaged genes
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57
Q

sensitivity to light after phtodynamic therapy lasts for up to ___ weeks

A

12

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58
Q

Early DIC is treated with ________.

A

heparin

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59
Q

chemotherapy side effect associated with high dose therapy consisting of memory loss & loss of concentration

A

“Chemobrain”

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60
Q

type of lung cancer that makes up 10 - 15% of all lung cancers

A

Small Cell Carcinoma

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61
Q

stages of lung cancer in which the cancer is still only in the lungs

A

Stage 0 - II

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62
Q

Treatment for Hypercalcemia

A
  • oral hydration
  • IV fluids (NS)
  • calcitonin (temporary)
  • glucocorticoids (temporary)
  • dialysis
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63
Q

Treatment of Lung Cancer includes:

A
  • Surgical resection
  • Chemotherapy
  • Targeted therapy
  • Radiation therapy
  • Photodynamic therapy
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64
Q

type of cancer surgical treatment in which the tumor is debulked (i.e. ovarian cancer)

A

control surgery

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65
Q

Interventions for Stomatitis

A
  • Frequent oral assessment & hygiene
  • Avoid alcohol mouthwash
  • Clean toothbrushes in dishwasher
  • Viscous Lidocaine
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66
Q

Colonoscopies are recommended every 10 years after age ___.

A

50

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67
Q

To allow for greater destruction of the cancer cells, radiation is usually given in _______ doses.

A

divided

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68
Q

normal part of human cells that are turned on and off by different substances but carcinogens can turn on and never turn off

A

oncogenes

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69
Q

Someone with Turner’s Syndrome is more likely to develop ___________ or ____________.

A

leukemia or colorectal cancer

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70
Q

uncontrolled production of immature, non-functioning WBC with CBC showing very high WBC count and bone marrow containing abnormal chromosomes

A

leukemia

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71
Q

Injury Prevention Measures for CIPN

A
  • Protect body areas where neuropathy has occurred
  • Make sure shoes are big enough
  • Buy shoes in afternoon/evening to account for swelling
  • Do not wear new shoes for longer than 2 hours at a time
  • Avoid point-toe shoes or high-heel shoes
  • Inspect feet daily
  • Avoid extreme temperatures
  • Test water temperature w/ thermometer
  • Use potholders when cooking
  • Use gloves when washing dishes or gardening
  • Do not eat steaming hot foods
  • Drink 2-3 L of non-alcoholic fluids/day
  • Rise slowly from seated position
  • Look at feet & ground to avoid tripping
  • Avoid area rugs
  • Use handrails when going up or down steps
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72
Q

Primary Prevention of Cancer includes:

A
  • Avoidance of carcinogens
  • Modification of associated factors
  • Removal of “at-risk” tissues
  • Chemoprevention
  • Vaccination
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73
Q

type of lung cancer that makes up 85 - 90 % of all lung cancers caused by smoking & high number of pack years

A

Non-small Cell Carcinoma

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74
Q

platelets < 50,000/ mm3

A

patient at high risk for bleeding

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75
Q

What medication is given to chemotherapy patients to reduce risk of infection?

A

Filgastrim (Neupogen)

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76
Q

Celebrex/ aspirin reduces the risk of ___________ cancer.

A

colorectal

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77
Q

Risk Factors for Melanoma

A
  • Sun exposure
    • Blistering sun burn as child = biggest risk factor
  • Moles
    • The more moles, the more likely skin cancer is
  • Skin type
    • Fair, light hair, light eyes
  • Personal history
  • Weakened immune system
  • HIV
  • Family history
    • First degree relative- 50% greater risk
  • Male gender
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78
Q

A, B, C, D, E of Skin Cancer Lesions

A

Assymetrical

Borders uneven

Color (multiple)

Diameter > 1/4 in

Evolving

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79
Q

oncologic emergency in which water is reabsorbed to excess by the kidneys and put back into systemic circulation leading to extremely low Na+

A

Sydrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)

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80
Q

Side Effects of Antitumor Antibodies

A
  • N/V
  • Stomatitis
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81
Q

Chemotherapy drugs given for lung cancer:

A
  • Etoposide
  • Carboplatin (Taxol)
  • Gemcitabine (Cisplatin)
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82
Q

For extravasation of Dactinomycin, Daunorubicin, Doxorubicin, Idarubicin, and Mitomycin, the recommended treatment is:

A
  • Cold Compress
    • applied immediately for 20 minutes
    • then QID x 3 days
  • Dimethyl sulfoxide 50-90%
    • apply 1-2 mL to IV site QID x 14 days
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83
Q

Antimitotic Agents (Plant Alkaloids) are used for:

A
  • Leukemia
  • Hodgkin’s and Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
  • Thyroid Cancer
  • Ewing’s Sarcoma
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84
Q

platelets < 30,000/ mm3

A

at high risk for spontaneous, uncontrollable bleeding

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85
Q

device that measures radiation that you come into contact with

A

dosimeter badge

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86
Q

characteristic of normal cell in which all the cells look alike

A

specific morphology

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87
Q

Side Effects of Chemotherapy

A
  • Risk of Infection (Neutropenia)
  • Anemia
  • Thrombocytopenia
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88
Q

Chemotherapy dosage is based on ______.

A

weight

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89
Q

Alkylating Agent Drugs

A
  • Cytoxan
  • Cisplatin
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90
Q

Familial Clustering types of cancer include:

A

breast & melanoma

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91
Q

type of radiation used when the cancer is close to the skin’s surface and can also be placed within a tumor

A

beta particles

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92
Q

drug given to chemotherapy patients to increase production of platelets to prevent thrombocytopenia with main S/E of fluid retention

A

Oprelvekin (Neumega)

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93
Q

TLS can lead to _______.

A

acute kidney injury

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94
Q

drug given in immunotherapy that enhances the immune system

A

Cytokines

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95
Q

the amount of time for a tumor to double in size

A

doubling time

96
Q

The Seven Warning Signs of Cancer (C.A.U.T.I.O.N.)

A
  • Changes in bowel or bladder habits
  • A sore that does not heal
  • Unusual bleeding or discharge
  • Thickening or lump in the breast or elsewhere
  • Indigestion or difficulty swallowing
  • Obvious change in a wart or mole
  • Nagging cough or hoarseness
97
Q

Side effects of Bevacizumab (Avastin)

A
  • HTN
  • impaired wound healing
  • bone marrow suppression
98
Q

Side Effects of Hormone Therapy

A
  • masculinizing effects (women)
  • gynecomastia (men)
  • DVT
  • Acne
  • Hypercalcemia
  • Liver dysfunction
  • Bone loss
99
Q

TLS is commonly seen in ______ cancer & _______.

A

small cell lung; lymphoma

100
Q

Symptoms of Hodgkins Lymphoma

A
  • large, painless lymph node(s)
  • lymph node growth after consumption of alcohol
  • “B Symtpoms”
    • fever
    • night sweats
    • weight loss
101
Q

Subtypes of Non-small Cell Carcinoma

A
  • pleomorphic
  • carcinoid
  • unclassified
102
Q

Adverse Effects of Antitumor Antibodies

A
  • Organ toxicity
  • Pulmonary fibrosis
103
Q

describes the exact location of the cancer, degree of metastasis (types= clinical, surgical, and pathologic)

104
Q

type of radiation therapy delivered from radiation source inside the patient’s body so that unsealed isotopes are eliminated in the urine and stool making the patient’s waste radioactive

A

Brachytherapy

105
Q

Oncologic Life-Threatening Emergencies

A
  • Sepsis
  • DIC
  • SIADH
  • Spinal Cord Compression
  • Hypercalcemia
  • SVC Synddrome
  • TLS
106
Q

most common acute leukemia in adults

A

Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)

107
Q

cancer treatment drug that inhibits the activation of tyosine kinases

A

Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors

108
Q

For patients at risk for TLS, draw labs Q ____ hours on day 1 then Q ____ hours for several days.

109
Q

CINV medication (Serotonin Antagonist) that can be worn as a patch and blocks the vomiting trigger zone in the brain…main S/E is headache

A

odansetron (Zofran)

110
Q

Late DIC is treated with _______.

A

clotting factors

111
Q

Side Effects of Topoisomerase Inhibitors

A
  • Myelosuppression
  • Diarrhea
112
Q

encapsulated tumor cells with specific differentiated functions and normal number of chromosomes that look like the parent cells that do not migrate and only expand hyperplastically

A

benign tumor cells

113
Q

Antimetabolites are used for:

A
  • Acute Leukemia
  • Breast Cancer
  • Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
114
Q

increase in number of cells

A

hyperplasia

115
Q

expansion of tumor cell without invading surrounding tissue

A

hyperplastic expansion

116
Q

chemotherapy drug that binds to the topoisomerase molecule blocking the ability to bind to DNA leading to cell death

A

Topoisomerase Inhibitors

117
Q

classification of primary tumor meaning there is carcinoma in situ

118
Q

greatest risk factor for developing cancer

119
Q

side effect of chemo induction therapy

A

myelosuppression which leads to neutropenia and increased risk of infection

120
Q

What rules out pneumonia when testing for lung cancer?

121
Q

Prevention of TLS includes:

A
  • Drink 3 - 5 L of water spread throughout the day
    • Need UOP of > 100 mL/hour
  • Diuretics
  • Allopurinol (if uric acid elevated)
  • Kayexelate (if potassium elevated)
122
Q

genetic trait in which hundred- thousands of polyps arise in the colon

A

Familial polyps

123
Q

Side Effects of Antimetabolites

A
  • N/V
  • Alopecia
  • Stomatitis
124
Q

type of cancer treatment drug that blocks the epidermal growth factor from binding to cell surface receptor by binding to the growth factor of cells in response to the activation of HERP2 gene and prevents cancer cell division…used for ovarian & colon cancers

A

Epidermal Growth Factor/Receptor Inhibitor- Trastuzamab (Herceptin)

125
Q

first step of cancer development in which oncogenes are over-expressed due to carcinogens (initiators) leading to excessive cell division

A

Initiation

126
Q

SIADH is most common in ____ cancer.

127
Q

most common leukemia in adults > 50 years old

A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

128
Q

type of radiation therapy delivered from outside source so patient is not radioactive after therapy

A

teletherapy

129
Q

Topoisomerase Inhibitors can be given ___ or ____.

130
Q

type of radiation that is used to penetrate deep tissues

A

gamma rays

131
Q

Subtypes of Small Cell Carcinoma

A
  • Oat cell
  • Combined small cell
132
Q

most common type of skin cancer that is most common on the head or neck that grows slowly and can return

A

basal cell

133
Q

stage of lung cancer in which it has metastasized throughout the body

134
Q

stage of lung cancer in which the cancer has spread to the diaphragm and/or chest wall

135
Q

In order to prevent melanoma, stay in the shade especially from ____ am to ___ pm.

A

11 am to 3 pm

136
Q

Primary Prevention for Lung Cancer

A
  • Tobacco Cessation
  • Smoke-free environments
137
Q

For extravasation of Etoposide, Paclitaxel, Teniposide, Vinvlastine, Vincristine, and Vinorelbine, recommended treatment is:

A
  • Warm Compress
    • applied immediately for 20 minutes
    • then QID x 3 days
  • Hyaluronidase
    • 150 units into multiple sites using small gauge needle x 1 day
138
Q

CINV medication (Neurokinin Receptor Antagonist) that is used for acute & delayed N&V given 1 hour prior to chemo, day 2, and day 3 of chemo…interferes w/ Coumadin & contraception

A

aprepitant (Emend)

139
Q

classification of primary tumor meaning the tumor cannot be assessed

140
Q

Formula for Pack Years

A

(packs/day) X (# of years)

141
Q

Side Effects of Imatinib Mesylate (Gleevec)

A
  • fluid retention
  • electrolyte imbalances
  • bone marrow suppression
142
Q

any lymphoid cancer without a Reed-Sternberg cell that spreads easily and less orderly and cannot be easily treated with radiation

A

Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

143
Q

Tomoxofen reduces the risk of _______ cancer.

144
Q

patients on BRMs will be admitted to the ____

145
Q

Treatment of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma includes:

A
  • Chemotherapy (#1)
  • Monoclonal antibodies
  • Radiation (if it’s in one area)
  • Stem cell transplant (if all else fails)
146
Q

Symptoms of Hodgkins Lymphoma

A
  • Generalized lymphadenopathy
    • swollen lymph nodes all over the body
  • “B Symtpoms”
    • fever
    • night sweats
    • weight loss
147
Q

third step of cancer development in which the cell changes over time and the tumor grows to at least 1 cm and vascularizes which makes it much easier to spread

A

Progression

148
Q

Antitumor Antibodies are used for:

A
  • Leukemia
  • Wilm’s tumor
149
Q

principle that states the intensity of radiation decreases with the distance from the radiation-emitting source

A

Inverse Square Law

150
Q

type of therapy in which laser is directed towards cancer cells

A

Photodynamic Therapy

151
Q

type of cancer treatment drug that binds to vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) preventing binding with receptors on endothelial cell surfaces present in blood vessels and keeps tumors from developing vascular systems (preventing metastasis)

A

Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor Inhibitors- Bevacizumab (Avastin)

152
Q

With Epidural Growth Factor Inhibitors, a biopsy of the tumor is taken and if it’s ______, Herceptin may be used.

153
Q

oncologic emergency that most occurs with bone metastasis in which calcium is released from the bone into blood stream

A

Hypercalcemia

154
Q

Topoisomerase Inhibitors are used for:

A
  • Testicular cancer
  • Small cell lung cancer
155
Q

bronchial washing fluid will contain _________ in lung cancer when it is pulled from the lungs

A

cancer cells

156
Q

type of Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor uses to treat Philadelphia chromosome & meyloid leukemia, metastatic GIST, & lymphoma given orally and well-tolerated that puts patients into remission

A

Imatinib Mesylate (Gleevec)

157
Q

sealed isotopes are only radioactive if they are ________

A

outside of the body

158
Q

temporary loss of hair

159
Q

diagnostic test that can show if cancer has metastasized throughout the body

160
Q

Yearly mammograms are recommended after age ____

161
Q

tissue ulceration in the mouth

A

stomatitis

162
Q

average dose scheduling for chemotherapy

A

4 - 12 times every 3 - 4 weeks

163
Q

the only drug approved for Stage IV Melanoma

A

•Lymphokine interlukin 2 (Prolukin)

164
Q

type of skin cancer that appears on the face, ears, lips or hands and is deeper in the skin than basal cell

A

squamous cell

165
Q

normal number of chromosomes in cells

166
Q

Best Practice for Care of Patient with Myelosuppression & Neutropenia

A
  • Private room
  • Handwashing
  • Room & Bathroom cleaned Q day
  • Change wound dressings Q day
  • Change IV tubing Q day
  • Monitor WBC especially Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC) Q day
  • V/S Q 4 hours
  • Inspect IV sites Q 4 hours
  • Inspect mouth Q 8 hours
  • Inspect skin/mucous membranes Q 8 hours
  • Use dedicated equipment
  • Limit healthcare personell in room
  • Obtain specimens for culture
  • Assist with coughing & deep breathing
  • Limit visitors to healthy adults
  • Use aseptic technique
  • Avoid Foley
  • No fresh flowers or plants in room
  • Teach patient to avoid raw food, pepper, & paprika
167
Q

General Disease-Related Consequences of Cancer

A
  • Reduced immune and blood-producing function
  • Altered GI structure and function
  • Motor and sensory deficits
  • Chronic/ acute pain
  • Decreased respiratory function
  • Reduced oxygenation
  • Cachexia
168
Q

diagnostic test that can reveal malignancy

169
Q

teletherapy radiation in which a precise amount of high-dose radiation is given to precise area of the body

A

Sterotactic Body Radiotherapy

170
Q

To prevent TLS, monitor _____, ______ levels & _____ levels.

A

CBC; BUN/creat; uric acid levels

171
Q

BRCA2 on genetic testing means increased risk for:

A
  • breast cancer in men
  • leukemia
172
Q

classification of primary tumor meaning there is no evidence of a primary tumor

173
Q

Percussion of cancer in the lung will be _____.

174
Q

Side Effects of Antimitotic Agents (Plant Alkaloids)

A
  • Neurotoxicity
  • Neuropathy
175
Q

common sites of prostate cancer metasasis are:

A

bone (spine/legs), pelvic nodes

176
Q

In leukemia, CBC w/ Diff will show:

A
  • Anemia
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Abnormal WBC count
177
Q

Someone with Down’s Syndrome is more likely to develop ___________.

178
Q

second step of cancer development in which the tumor starts to form and growth is enhanced in the initiated cell promoted by insulin and estrogen and can last months to years

179
Q

Environmental Risk Factors for Leukemia:

A

Exposure to…

  • Ionizing Radiation
  • Chemicals (hair dye)
  • Drugs (chemotherapy)
180
Q

Precautions for Patient with Sealed Isotope Implants

A
  • Private room and bath
  • Radiation sign on door
  • Keep door closed
  • Nurses wear dosimeter badge
  • Lead apron
  • Limit visitors
    • no pregnant women or children < 16 years
  • NEVER TOUCH RADIATION SOURCE
181
Q

common sites of colorectal cancer metasasis are:

A

liver & lymph nodes

182
Q

chemotherapy drug that disrupts DNA and RNA synthesis causing cell death

A

Alkylating Agents

183
Q

Normal Cells Most Affected by Chemotherapy

A
  • skin
  • hair
  • intestinal tissues
  • spermatocytes
  • blood-forming cells
184
Q

Patient Teaching for Photdynamic Therapy

A
  • Bring protective clothing & UV protection sunglasses
  • Arrange for ride home
  • Wrap body in sheet until in the house
  • Cover windows
  • Use low-watt light bulbs
  • Drink plenty of fluids
  • Slowly expose skin to sun light after 12 weeks
185
Q

describes the cellular aspects of the cancer and compares the cancer cell w/ normal parent tissue

A

Grading System

186
Q

chemo (can be PO) given just be to absolutely sure of remission for months to years after remission is achieved

A

Maintenance Therapy

187
Q

In bone marrow aspiration, what will show type of leukemia a patient has?

A

protein markers on cell surface

188
Q

Na+ level of 115-120 results in ________.

A

muscle cramps

189
Q

step of cancer development in which the cancer cells break away from the primary tumor and colonize in remote areas of the body

A

Metastasis

190
Q

Side Effects of Radiation

A
  • Local skin changes and hair loss
  • Altered taste sensations
  • Fatigue
  • Inflammatory response
191
Q

In a patient with lung cancer, auscultation may reveal ______ heart tones.

192
Q

Antitumor Antibody Drug

A

Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)

193
Q

common sites of lung cancer metasasis are:

A

brain & bone

194
Q

BRCA1 on genetic testing means increased risk for what type of cancers?

A
  • breast
  • ovarian
  • fallopian tube
  • pancreatic
  • peritoneal
195
Q

Tumor Lysis Syndrome means that ______ is working.

A

chemotherapy

196
Q

In order to prevent melanoma, use a broad spectrum suncreen with SPF > ____

A

15

30 if outside for extended time

197
Q

common sites of primary brain cancer metasasis are:

A

central nervous system

198
Q

most common leukemia in children

A

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)

199
Q

Secondary Prevention for Lung Cancer

A

Screening via CT

200
Q

describes tumor chromosomes as normal or abnormal (some cancers have their own chromosomes)

201
Q

type of cancer surgical treatment in which the whole cancer is removed (i.e. skin cancer)

A

cure surgery

202
Q

Check chemotherapy IV site _____.

203
Q

Stage ___ or ___ Melanoma patients can enroll in experiemental treatments

205
Q

_____ must be worn during oral and IV chemotherapy administration because it can be absorbed through the skin

206
Q

Chemo is often given through a ____ or _____.

A

port or central line

207
Q

side effect of chemotherapy in which tissue ulceration occurs in the mucous membranes

208
Q

Antimetabolite Drug

A

5-Fluorouracil (5-FU)

209
Q

enlargement of a cell

A

hypertrophy

210
Q

Leukemia has a poor prognosis if the CBC shows large number of ______ cells.

211
Q

the amount of radiation delivered to a tissue

212
Q

Topoisomerase Inhibitor Drug

A

Etoposide (VePesid)

213
Q

type of cancer surgical treatment in which a second surgery is performed to confirm the entire cancer was removed (common with ovarian cancer)

A

second-look surgery

214
Q

type of cancer surgical treatment in which the tumor is debulked to relieve pain and improve quality of life

A

palliation

215
Q

Apply ___ oz of sunscreen ____ minutes before going outside.

A

1 oz; 30 min

216
Q

characteristic of normal cells in which they adhere to one another and are non-migratory

A

tight adherence

217
Q

Adverse Reactions of Alkylating Agents

A
  • SIADH
  • Hemorrhagic cystitis (with Cytoxan only)
218
Q

S/E of Interleukins & Interferon

A
  • flu-like symptoms
  • severe inflammatory reactions
  • peripheral neuropathy
  • rash
219
Q

Treatment for Melanoma

A
  • Surgical resection (preferred method- high cure rate)
  • Chemotherapy
    • DTIC- drug of choice
  • Immunotherapy
    • Lymphokine interlukin 2 (Prolukin)
    • Interferon Alpha 2B (many S/E, not first choice)
  • Gene therapy
  • Clinical trials
  • Chemical peeling
  • Laser therapy
  • Photodynamic therapy
  • Radiation therapy
220
Q

Yearly breast exams are recommended after age ____

221
Q

Treatment for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

Radiation of lymph nodes

222
Q

Drugs used to treat Chemotherapy-Induced Nausea & Vomiting (CINV)

A
  • Odansetron (Zofran)
  • Aprepitant (Emend)
  • Dexamethasone (Decadron)
  • Metoclopramide (Reglan)
  • Lorazepam (Ativan)
223
Q

Breast exams are recommended every 3 years for ages ____ to ____

224
Q

cell duplication

225
Q

radiation therapy isotopes that pose the risk of exposure if not handled properly

A

unsealed isotopes

226
Q

tumor cells with abnormal number of chromosomes that lose characteristic of the parent cell with a large nucleus and no function with loose adherence and no apoptosis or contact inhibition

A

malignant tumor cells

227
Q

After radiation, patients can no longer make _____.

228
Q

amount of radiation received and absorbed by the tissue

A

radiation dose

229
Q

type of lymphoma occurring mostly in teens/ young adults and adults in 50s & 60s that involves a single or chain of lymph nodes or Reed-Sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

230
Q

stage of lung cancer in which the tumor is hidden or there is no obvious tumor seen

A

occult stage

231
Q

Diagnostic Tests for Lung Cancer include:

A
  • Chest x-ray
  • CT
  • Bronchoscopy
  • Bronchial washing
  • Thorascoscopy
  • Fine Needle aspiration
  • Cytology
  • PET scan
232
Q

Alkylating Agents are used for:

A
  • Leukemia
  • Lymphoma
233
Q

cut in the chest wall between the ribs to aspirate cells from the lungs

A

thorascosopy

234
Q

process by which hormone medications are given to decrease the amount of hormones required by the tumors to grow to slow the growth of the cancer

A

Hormone Manipulation

235
Q

oncologic emergency in which large numbers of tumor cells are destroyed rapidly resulting in intracellular contents being released into blood stream fater than the kidneys can eliminate them

A

Tumor Lysis Syndrome

Advanced Med/Surg (10 decks)

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