Advanced GI: Hepatic & Pancreatic Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What are the vascular functions of the liver?

A

blood storage and filtrations

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2
Q

What are the secretory functions of the liver?

A

bile productions and bilirubin metabolism

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3
Q

What are the metabolic functions of the liver?

A

digests carbs/ fat/ protein, synthesizes all clotting except for Von Willebrands, aids in synthesis of albumin, prothombin, and fibrogen, detoxification, vitamin and mineral storage (A, D, E, K, iron, copper)

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4
Q

Liver ________ in size with aging.

A

decreases

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5
Q

decreased synthesis of enzymes which help metabolize drugs

A

liver aging

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6
Q
  • Ask ?s in nonjudgmental manner
  • Always ask about family hx of liver disease
  • Any hx of drug use (IV or intranasal?)
  • Hx of tattoos?
  • Been in military?
  • In prison? County jail? Healthcare worker?
  • Hx of Hepatitis?
  • Ask about employment hx (exposure to toxins?)
  • Sexual Hx?
A

Assessment Questions for Liver Function

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7
Q

growth of the breast tissue in men related to hormonal changes during liver disease

A

gynecomastia

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8
Q

7 F’s for Abdominal Distention

A

fat, fetus, fluid, flatulence, feces, fibroid, fatal tumor

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9
Q

skin abnormality in liver disease in which red, spider-like clusters appear on chest, back or umbilicus…they blanche

A

spider angiomas

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10
Q

What should the nurse inspect on a patient with liver disease?

A

skin color (everywhere, look for jaundice), surface characteristics, surface movements

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11
Q

What is shifting dullness?

A

When the patient lies on their side, the top of abdomen will have tympany (high-pitched sound) because of gas rising up and the bottom of abdomen will have dullness b/c fluid will shift down

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12
Q

What is a fluid wave?

A

When the patient’s side is tapped, the abdominal fluid will cause a wave across the abdomen.

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13
Q

Liver patients are at a high risk for _________.

A

bleeding

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14
Q

hernia surrounding the umbilicus in which the blood vessels pop out

A

caput medusa

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15
Q

vascular changes in the hand that cause the palms to be red

A

palmar erythema

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16
Q

What do ultrasounds of the liver check for?

A

patency of blood vessels in liver, gallstones, cysts, tumors & fat

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17
Q

What can CT scans pick up on the liver?

A

exact size of the liver, small lesions, look at bile ducts closely

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18
Q

What is an MRCP?

A

MRI of the pancreas and bile ducts

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19
Q

Is the MRCP or the ERCP more invasive?

A

the ERCP is more invasive

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20
Q

What does liver nuclear testing check?

A

cystic duct disease

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21
Q

AST Normal Level

A

10-35 units/L

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22
Q

In acute liver injury, AST is __________.

A

elevated

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23
Q

In chronic liver disease, AST is ________ or _________.

A

decreased or normal

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24
Q

ALT Normal Level

A

4-36 units/L

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25
Q

In acute liver injury, ALT is __________.

A

elevated

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26
Q

In chronic liver disease, ALT is ________ or _________.

A

decreased or normal

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27
Q

AP Normal Level

A

30-120 units/ L

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28
Q

GGT Normal Level

A

8-38 units/ L

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29
Q

In acute liver injury, AP and GGT are __________.

A

elevated

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30
Q

Bilirubin Normal Level

A

0.3-1.0 mg/ dL

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31
Q

In chronic liver disease, bilirubin is ________.

A

elevated

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32
Q

Albumin Normal Level

A

3.5- 5 g/ dL

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33
Q

Total Protein Normal Level

A

6.4-8.3 g/ dL

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34
Q

In chronic liver disease, albumin and total protein are _______.

A

decreased

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35
Q

PTT Normal Level

A

11-12.5 seconds

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36
Q

LDH Normal Level

A

??

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37
Q

In chronic liver disease, PTT is ________.

A

prolonged

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38
Q

In acute liver disease or liver tumors, LDH is ________.

A

elevated

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39
Q

80% of liver function is gone once __________.

A

albumin is decreased and PTT is prolonged

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40
Q

Normal Bleeding Time/ Platelet Closure Time

A

64-120 seconds

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41
Q

Ammonia Normal Level

A

6-47 µmol/L

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42
Q

In chronic liver disease, bleeding time is ________.

A

increased

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43
Q

In chronic liver disease, ammonia is ________.

A

elevated

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44
Q

In chronic liver disease patient, CBC will show _________.

A

B12, Folic Acid and Iron Deficiencies Anemias

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45
Q

In chronic liver disease, platelets are ________.

A

low (thrombocytopenia)

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46
Q

Before a liver biopsy, _________ is tested.

A

bleeding time

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47
Q

Elevated ammonia causes _________ and __________.

A

agitation and confusion

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48
Q

The gold standard test for liver disease.

A

liver biopsy

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49
Q

liver biopsy obtained by cutting the abdomen

A

open liver biopsy

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50
Q

liver biopsy obtained by going through the jugular vein

A

closed liver biopsy

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51
Q

The labs prior to a liver biopsy are __________.

A

H&H, bleeding time, platelets, and PT

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52
Q

If PT is high or platelets are low prior to liver biopsy, what does the nurse do?

A

notify the surgeon

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53
Q

What does the nurse give if PT is high or platelets are low prior to liver biopsy?

A

Vitamin K or fresh frozen plasma

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54
Q

Patients are NPO how long prior to liver biopsy?

A

6 hours

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55
Q

What must the nurse check prior to liver biopsy?

A

vital signs, labs, and signed informed consent

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56
Q

During a liver biopsy needle insertion, the patient must __________ and ___________.

A

lie completely still and hold breath on exhalation

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57
Q

Post-liver biopsy, the patient must be on complete bed rest and right side-lying for _____ hours.

A

6-8 hours

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58
Q

For an open liver biopsy, the nurse must apply _________.

A

direct pressure

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59
Q

How long must a patient remain right side-lying after liver biopsy?

A

2 hours

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60
Q

accumulation of bilirubin in the skin and mucous membranes that causes a yellow-orange discoloration and icterus of the sclera

A

jaundice

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61
Q

Bilirubin is formed by the breakdown of ______.

A

hemoglobin

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62
Q

jaundice that comes from the liver itself due damage of the liver

A

hepatocellular jaundice

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63
Q

jaundice that results from impaired bilirubin transport and excretion in the biliary system and is caused by a tumor

A

intrahepatic obstructive jaundice

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64
Q

jaundice that results from impaired bilirubin transport and excretion in the biliary system and is caused by gallstones stuck in the bile duct or pancreatic mass

A

extrahepatic obstructive jaundice

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65
Q

type of jaundice that is the most dangerous and caused by transfusion of the wrong type of blood

A

hemolytic jaundice

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66
Q

A patient that is very jaundiced but has no pain most likely has _________.

A

pancreatic cancer

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67
Q

Why is stool clay-colored and urine dark tea-like colored in jaundiced patients?

A

because bilirubin is being excreted in the urine instead of the stool like it should

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68
Q

What are the symptoms of jaundice?

A

scleral icterus, tea-colored urine, clay-colored stool, pruritus, elevated conjugated bilirubin, fatigue, anorexia

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69
Q

What are the expected outcomes for impaired skin integrity?

A

regain integrity of the skin, report any altered sensation or pain, describe measures to protect and heal the skin

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70
Q

Jaundice usually starts to fade after _____ weeks.

A

4-6 weeks

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71
Q

What is the first sign that jaundice is improving?

A

urine will return to yellow and stool will return to brown

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72
Q

The liver will heal itself if the problem is ___________.

A

hepatitis or gallstones and not cirrhosis

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73
Q

Acute liver failure is also called ________.

A

fulminate hepatic failure

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74
Q

In acute liver failure, 75% of patients die within ______.

A

days of the symptoms

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75
Q

What is the main cause of acute liver failure?

A

acetaminophen overdose

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76
Q

What causes acute liver failure?

A

infection, acetaminophen overdose, mushroom poisoning, or heat stroke

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77
Q

What happens to the liver in acute liver failure?

A

massive destruction of hepatocytes

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78
Q

What are the signs of acute liver failure?

A

headache, jaundice, LOC change (ammonia), bruising (bleeding)

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79
Q

What is the characteristic lab test of acute liver failure?

A

elevated PT

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80
Q

Every patient that is jaundice needs what lab test?

A

PT

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81
Q

What is the treatment for acute liver failure?

A

decrease ammonia levels, prevent bleeding, liver transplant and life support

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82
Q

What should the nurse do for a patient in acute liver failure?

A

protect from injury, monitor neurological status, give blood products, continuous pulse ox, ABG’s, cardio fxn, renal fxn, coagulation fxn, monitor ICP, watch for sepsis and shock

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83
Q

benign liver tumor made up of a collection of blood vessels

A

hemangioma

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84
Q

What are the benign liver tumors?

A

hemangiomas, cysts, lesions, adenoma

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85
Q

What are the malignant liver tumors usually caused by?

A

viral hepatitis or metastatic disease

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86
Q

Why are mets common in the liver?

A

because it is highly vascular

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87
Q

Primary cancers of the liver can arise in ___________ or ________.

A

liver cell or bile duct cell

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88
Q

How is primary liver cancer diagnosed?

A

CT or alpha feto protien (AFP) in bloodwork

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89
Q

After liver resection, the nurse should do what?

A

monitor closely for bleeding, V/S q15 min, check dressings, I & O, continuously monitor cardiac and respiratory function, control pain

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90
Q

What is the major risk for liver resection?

A

bleeding

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91
Q

What herbs can cause toxic hepatitis?

A

Kava Kava and Ephedra

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92
Q

What supportive nursing care is needed for toxic hepatitis?

A

give fluids and watch for bleeding

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93
Q

acute inflammation of hepatocytes caused by a virus

A

viral hepatitis

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94
Q

What are the modes of transmission of viral hepatitis?

A

contact w/ blood, blood products, semen, saliva, percutaneously or direct contact

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95
Q

What is the most common type of Hepatitis?

A

Hepatitis A

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96
Q

Hepatitis A is eliminated in the _______.

A

feces

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97
Q

Hepatitis A is spread through the ingestion of __________.

A

contaminated food, water, or shellfish

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98
Q

Hepatitis A is a ___________ disease.

A

self-limiting

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99
Q

Recovery from Hep A occurs in about ____ weeks.

A

9

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100
Q

Hepatitis B is spread through contact with ___________.

A

blood, blood products, and body fluids (like semen)

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101
Q

Recovery from Hep B occurs in about ____ weeks.

A

16

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102
Q

Hep B may progress to __________ infection.

A

chronic

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103
Q

Groups at risk for Hep B infection are?

A

IV drug users, people who have unprotected sex, infants born to infected mothers, immigrants

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104
Q

Hepatitis C is spread through contact with ___________.

A

blood and bodily fluids

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105
Q

80% of Hep C+ patients have ________.

A

no symptoms

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106
Q

85% of Hep C+ patients have __________ infections.

A

chronic

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107
Q

The most common genotypes of Hep C are _______.

A

1, 2, 3, and 4

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108
Q

What is the leading indicator for liver transplant?

A

Hepatitis C

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109
Q

What are the causes of Hep C infection?

A

IV drug use, intranasal drug use, tattoos, needle-stick injuries, and blood transfusions prior to 1992

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110
Q

Hep C can survive on surfaces for ____ weeks.

A

6

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111
Q

Hep D always occurs in the presence of Hep ____.

A

B

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112
Q

Hep E is similar to Hep ____. It is caught the same way.

A

A

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113
Q

Hep F and G are similar to Hep ____.

A

C

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114
Q

Symptoms of Hepatitis C include?

A

anorexia, N/V, abdominal pain, fatigue, low grade fever, enlarged/ tender liver, joint pain, and jaundice in the icteric phase

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115
Q

What should the nurse include in the plan of care for a Hepatitis patient?

A

bed rest, control of nausea, and frequent rest periods

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116
Q

What medication should a Hepatitis patient avoid?

A

acetiminophen

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117
Q

What kind of diet should the Hepatitis patient eat?

A

high carb, high calorie, moderate protein and fat

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118
Q

What precautions should the nurse enact with a Hepatitis patient?

A

disposable patient care items, gloves, universal precautions

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119
Q

Who can a Hep C patient donate a liver to?

A

another Hep C patient

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120
Q

Can Hep C patients donate blood or body fluids?

A

No

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121
Q

Liver enzymes are _______ in Hep A and B.

A

elevated

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122
Q

Liver enzymes are ________ in Hep C.

A

slightly elevated

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123
Q

Hep A test that checks for acute infection

A

IgM anti-HAV

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124
Q

Hep A test that checks for immunity

A

IgG

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125
Q

Hep B test that, if positive, means the patient has chronic infection and is contagious

A

HBsAg antigen

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126
Q

Hep B test that, if positive, means the patient is immune to Hep B

A

HBsAb antibody

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127
Q

How is a patient tested for Hep C?

A

Hep C viral load and genotype

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128
Q

What is the treatment for Hep A?

A

none because it is self-limiting

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129
Q

What is the treatment for Hep B?

A

Lamivudine QD x 1 year and Interferon

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130
Q

What are the horrible side effects of Interferon?

A

flu-like symptoms, N/V/D, joint pain, severe psychiatric problems

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131
Q

What is the treatment for Hep C?

A

Interferon Pegs, Ribavirin, and Direct-Acting Antiviral

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132
Q

What is the bad side effect of Ribavirin?

A

bone marrow depression – severe anemia

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133
Q

Viekira Pak for Hep C is a combo drug of what 4 drugs?

A

Ombitasvir, Paritaprevir, Dasabuvir, and Ritonavir

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134
Q

Ombitasvir, Paritaprevir, Dasabuvir, and Ritonavir are ____________ anti-virals.

A

direct-acting

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135
Q

Ombitasvir, Paritaprevir, Dasabuvir of the Viekira Pak are taken when?

A

once daily in the morning

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136
Q

Ritonavir of the Viekira Pak is taken when?

A

twice daily in the morning and evening

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137
Q

How many weeks does a patient take Viekira Pak?

A

12- 24 weeks depending on sub-genotype

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138
Q

What are the minimal side effects of Viekira Pak?

A

pruritus, nausea, and fatigue

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139
Q

Viekira Pak has multiple ________.

A

drug interactions

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140
Q

Viekira Pak is _____% effective in Hep C genotype 1b without cirrhosis.

A

100%

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141
Q

For a co-infected HIV patient, Viekira Pak is 100% effective if they have Hep C genotype ____.

A

1b

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142
Q

Viekira Pak is _____% effective in Hep C genotype 1b with cirrhosis.

A

99%

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143
Q

Viekira Pak is _____% effective in Hep C genotype 1a without cirrhosis.

A

87-96%

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144
Q

Viekira Pak is _____% effective in Hep C genotype 1a with cirrhosis.

A

95%

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145
Q

For a co-infected HIV patient, Viekira Pak is 91% effective if they have Hep C genotype ____.

A

1a

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146
Q

What is the dose of Sovaldi (sofosbuvir)?

A

One 400 mg tablet once daily

147
Q

What are the side effects of Sovaldi (sofosbuvir)?

A

fatigue and headache

148
Q

Sovaldi (sofosbuvir) is used in combination with _________ and ________.

A

interferon alfa and ribavirin

149
Q

For Hep C genotype 1 and 4, Sovaldi (sofosbuvir) is used with ________ and _________.

A

peg interferon and ribavirin

150
Q

For Hep C genotype 1, 2 and 4, Sovaldi (sofosbuvir) is given for ______ weeks.

A

12

151
Q

For Hep C genotype 2, Sovaldi (sofosbuvir) is used in combination with ________.

A

ribavirin

152
Q

For Hep C genotype 3, Sovaldi (sofosbuvir) is used in combination with _________.

A

ribavirin

153
Q

For Hep C genotype 3, Sovaldi (sofosbuvir) is given for ______ weeks.

A

24 weeks

154
Q

The cost of Sovaldi (sofosbuvir) is $_____/ pill.

A

$1,000

155
Q

What is the dose of Harvoni (ledipasvir/ sofosbuvir)?

A

one pill once daily

156
Q

Harvoni (Ledipasvir/sofosbuvir) is given for _____ weeks.

A

12

157
Q

Side effects of Harvoni (Ledipasvir/sofosbuvir) are?

A

fatigue and headache

158
Q

Is Harvoni (Ledipasvir/sofosbuvir) given with any other drugs?

A

No

159
Q

Hepatitis A vaccines

A

Havrix or Vaqta

160
Q

Havrix or Vaqta is given as a 2 injection series ___ to ___ months apart

A

6 to 12

161
Q

Havrix or Vaqta is given to what groups of people?

A

people w/ Hep B or C, people who travel to 3rd world countries, military, and illicit drug users

162
Q

Havrix or Vaqta is not a ______ virus.

A

live

163
Q

Why is Hep A pre-vaccination screening needed in certain populations?

A

because some people might already have immunity because they already contracted Hep A (common in southwest US)

164
Q

Hepatitis B vaccine

A

HBV

165
Q

HBV is recommended for what groups?

A

infants born to Hep B+ mothers, people who have unprotected sex, people w/ chronic liver disease, people exposed to blood or body fluids, people who live in close-quarters

166
Q

combination Hep A and B vaccine given at 0, 1 and 6 months

A

Twin-Rix

167
Q

Twin-Rix is contraindicated in people allergic to _____.

A

alum

168
Q

Immunoglobulin is only effective as post-exposure treatment for Hep A if given within ____ weeks of exposure.

A

2

169
Q

Immunoglobulin _____ or ______ be effective post-exposure treatment for Hep C.

A

may or may not

170
Q

Hep B post-exposure treatment for un-vaccinated people is _____.

A

HBIG (Hep B Immunoglobulin) then initiate HBV vaccine series

171
Q

Hep B post-exposure treatment for a previously vaccinated known responder is _____.

A

no treatment

172
Q

Hep B post-exposure treatment for a previously vaccinated known non-responder is _____.

A

HBIG x 1 then revaccinate OR HBIG x 2 separated by 4 weeks

173
Q

Hep B post-exposure treatment for a previously vaccinated person whose antibody response is unknown is _____.

A

If HBsAb are adequate, don’t treat. If HBsAb are inadequate, give HBIG x 1 and vaccine booster.

174
Q

If HBsAb is inadequate prior to HBIG, what needs to be done?

A

Recheck titer in 3-4 months. If still inadequate, complete full second series of vaccine.

175
Q

condition that occurs when the liver is damaged beyond its capacity to regenerate new cells

A

cirrhosis

176
Q

Cirrhosis leads to _______.

A

fibrosis and nodule formation in the liver

177
Q

In cirrhosis, the liver lobes become covered with _____.

A

fibrous tissue

178
Q

In cirrhosis, ________ deteriorates in the liver.

A

parenchyma

179
Q

In cirrhosis, the liver lobules are infiltrated with _____.

A

fat

180
Q

Alcholic cirrhosis is also known as ______.

A

Laennec’s cirrhosis

181
Q

type of cirrhosis induced by toxins that leads to necrosis of liver tissue

A

post-necrotic cirrhosis

182
Q

type of cirrhosis that is auto-immune

A

biliary cirrhosis

183
Q

type of cirrhosis that is fairly rare and caused by right-sided heart failure

A

cardiac cirrhosis

184
Q

What is the #1 cause of cirrhosis?

A

alcohol

185
Q

abnormal accumulation of iron in the blood that can lead to cirrhosis

A

hemachromatosis

186
Q

abnormal accumulation of copper in the blood that can lead to cirrhosis

A

Wilson’s disease

187
Q

type of cirrhosis that comes from the biliary system (bile ducts)

A

primary biliary cirrhosis

188
Q

the stage of cirrhosis in which the liver is damaged but there are few, if any, symptoms

A

compensated disease

189
Q

the stage of cirrhosis in which the liver can no longer perform vital functions and multiple manifestations occur throughout all body systems

A

decompensated disease

190
Q

In early cirrhosis, liver enzymes are ______.

A

high or low

191
Q

In advanced cirrhosis, liver enzymes are ________.

A

normal or low

192
Q

In cirrhosis, bilirubin is _______.

A

elevated

193
Q

In cirrhosis, protein and albumin are _________.

A

decreased

194
Q

In cirrhosis, a patient is deficient in what vitamins?

A

Vitamin K, thiamine, and folic acid

195
Q

In cirrhosis, what blood disorder is common?

A

anemia

196
Q

In cirrhosis, PT will be _________.

A

elevated

197
Q

What is the only definitive test for cirrhosis?

A

liver biopsy

198
Q

Can blood work show cirrhosis?

A

Yes

199
Q

How can cirrhosis be diagnosed?

A

X-ray, abdominal CT, blood work, and liver biopsy

200
Q

Cirrhosis patient should avoid what hepatotoxic drugs?

A

acetaminophen, phenobarbital and alcohol

201
Q

The cirrhosis patient should eat what kind of diet?

A

high protein (if compensated), low fat, low sodium, 2500-3000 cals/day, and small, frequent meals

202
Q

What nursing interventions should be completed with the cirrhosis patient?

A

daily weights, strict I & O, antacids, anti-emetics, and vitamin supplements like thiamine (banana bags or IM QD x 3 days)

203
Q

obstruction of the portal blood flow that increases portal venous pressure

A

portal hypertension

204
Q

What can portal hypertension cause?

A

splenomegaly, ascites, esophageal varices, caput medusa, and severe hemorrhoids

205
Q

What is the main risk of portal hypertension?

A

bleeding

206
Q

If collateral circulation develops in portal hypertension, what is the patient at massive risk for?

A

upper GI bleed

207
Q

What should the portal hypertension patient be taught?

A

no heavy lifting, avoid vigorous nose-blowing, no straining to have bowel movement, use a soft toothbrush/ foam toothbrush, and report any sign of bleeding ASAP

208
Q

What medications are given to reduce portal vein pressure?

A

beta blockers like propranolol (Inderal)…even if the patient has asthma

209
Q

High ammonia levels cause _______.

A

mental status changes

210
Q

hepatic encephalopathy or hepatic coma

A

portal-system encephalopathy

211
Q

What factors lead to portal-system encephalopathy?

A

high protein diet, infection, hypovolemia, hyperkalemia, constipation, GI bleeding, and medications like opiods, diuretics and hypnotics

212
Q

How does a high protein diet lead to portal-system encephalopathy?

A

It leads to constipation and stool in the colon produces ammonia which circulates back into system to the liver.

213
Q

first stage of portal-system encephalopathy in which driving could be impaired

A

sub-clinical stage

214
Q

stage of portal-system encephalopathy in which behavior and handwriting changes

A

Stage 1- Prodomal

215
Q

stage of portal-system encephalopathy including disorientation, confusion, and asterixis (flapping of hands “liver flap”)

A

Stage 2- Impending

216
Q

stage of portal-system encephalopathy in which the patient becomes greatly confused, falls asleep, is hard to arouse, and has muscle twitching

A

Stage 3- Stuporous

217
Q

stage of portal-system encephalopathy in which seizures and death occurs

A

Stage 4- Comatose

218
Q

flapping of the hands often called the “liver flap”

A

asterixis

219
Q

What is the dietary management of a patient with portal-system encephalopathy?

A

low protein

220
Q

What medication is used in portal-system encephalopathy that decreases ammonia?

A

Lactulose

221
Q

How does Lactulose decrease ammonia in the body?

A

It alters the acidity of the stool preventing the absorption of ammonia by the colon and also increases the number of stools per day.

222
Q

How many stools per day should a patient have on lactulose?

A

3-4 loose stools/ day

223
Q

How can Lactulose be given?

A

orally or by retention enema mixed w/ 75 mL of saline

224
Q

How long must the lactulose retention enema be held in?

A

30 minutes

225
Q

What is the first sign of altered mental status in portal-system encephalopathy?

A

changes in handwriting

226
Q

For a patient with portal-system encephalopathy, the nurse should encourage _______.

A

fluids

227
Q

The patient with portal-system encephalopathy should limit _______ until ammonia is decreased.

A

activity

228
Q

sudden kidney failure for no reason in people with liver failure resulting from complete intrarenal vasoconstriction of normal kidneys

A

Hepatorenal Syndrome

229
Q

A patient with Hepatorenal Syndrome will develop _____ and ______.

A

oliguria and azotemia

230
Q

increase in BUN and creatinine

A

azotemia

231
Q

What is the treatment for Hepatorenal Syndrome?

A

fluid administration, diuretic therapy, and hemodialysis

232
Q

Nurses should address __________ decisions with Hepatorenal Syndrome patient and family.

A

end-of-life

233
Q

accumulation of plasma-rich fluid within the peritoneal cavity secondary to portal hypertension, increased aldosterone, and decreased oncotic pressure

A

ascites

234
Q

What happens to the kidneys in ascites?

A

Kidneys retain sodium and water increasing third-spaced fluid and anasarca

235
Q

What is the most common cause of ascites?

A

cirrhosis

236
Q

What are the treatment options for ascites?

A

Paracentesis, TIPS, or Peritoneal venous shunts

237
Q

The two types of Peritoneal venous shunts are?

A

Denver and Leveen

238
Q

What medications are given for ascites?

A

Aldactone (K+ sparing), Lasix (K+ depleting), and Bumex (K+ depleting)

239
Q

If giving Lasix or Bumex, what needs to be checked?

A

potassium levels

240
Q

What diet should a person with ascites follow?

A

low-sodium

241
Q

What is given with a paracentesis to prevent shock?

A

albumin infusion

242
Q

How much fluid can a patient with ascites have?

A

1 L/day or less

243
Q

What should be done by the nurse prior to a paracentesis?

A

check weight and V/S, have patient void, position the patient upright, give albumin infusion

244
Q

What should be done by the nurse during a paracentisis?

A

describe amount and appearance of fluid obtained

245
Q

What should be done by the nurse after a paracentisis?

A

send specimen to the lab, check weight and V/S, put ostomy bag over site

246
Q

Enlargement of collateral blood vessels in the esophagus that occurs due to portal hypertension

A

esophogeal varices

247
Q

_____% of esophogeal varices patients will die the first time they bleed

A

50%

248
Q

sign of a massive bleed in a patient with esophogeal varices

A

Hematochezia (bright red blood in stool)

249
Q

What is the risk with Hematochezia?

A

shock

250
Q

How often should the nurse monitor V/S in patient with bleeding esophogeal varices?

A

q 15 minutes

251
Q

What should the nurse monitor in patient with bleeding esophogeal varices?

A

urinary output (foley), V/S, LOC, abdomen, labs

252
Q

What procedure is done in patient with bleeding esophogeal varices?

A

endoscopy

253
Q

What procedure is done in patient with non-bleeding esophogeal varices?

A

barium study

254
Q

What medications are given to control hemorrhage in patient with esophogeal varices?

A

Vasopressin, Somatostatin/Octreotide, PPI’s, coagulants (FFP, platelets, clotting factors), or beta-blockers

255
Q

hormonal peptide given subQ or on a drip to control hemorrhage that is much safer than vasopressin

A

Somatostatin/Octreotide

256
Q

What are the bad side effects of Vasopressin?

A

systemic vasoconstriction including the heart which can cause dysrythmias and chest pain

257
Q

What kind of monitoring needs to be done with a patient on vasopressin?

A

cardiac monitoring

258
Q

temporary measure to stop bleeding in esophogeal varices that applies direct pressure to varices to control bleeding

A

Esophageal Varices Treatment Balloon Tamponade

259
Q

Esophageal tamponade tube with 3 lumens

A

Sengstaken-Blakemore or Linton-Nachlas

260
Q

Esophageal tamponade tube with 4 lumens and 2 ports

A

Minnesota

261
Q

How long will a patient have a balloon tamponade tube?

A

24-48 hours

262
Q

How often does the nurse deflate a balloon tamponade tube?

A

for 15 minutes every 4 hours

263
Q

What is the biggest risk with a balloon tamponade tube?

A

aspiration

264
Q

What should be monitored while a patient has a balloon tamponade tube?

A

aspiration, nasal necrosis, tube position

265
Q

What should be kept at the bedside while a patient has a balloon tamponade tube?

A

scissors to cut the tube if needed

266
Q

Medication that is inserted during endoscopy that has an inflammatory reaction producing fibrous bands to form around vessels

A

Ethanolamine

267
Q

Medication that is inserted during endoscopy that causes localized vasoconstriction

A

Epinephrine

268
Q

endoscopic procedure in which mall bands or metal clips are placed around base of varices

A

band ligation

269
Q

endoscopic procedure done when a patient is actively bleeding in which the vessels are washed out with saline to see which one is bleeding and epinephrine or ethanolamine is shot into the vessel

A

sclerotherapy

270
Q

procedure in which a shunt is placed into the internal jugular vein

A

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunting (TIPS)

271
Q

TIPS has a high rate of _________.

A

re-occlusion

272
Q

What is the nursing care for a patient post-TIPS procedure?

A

monitor for bleeding and hypovolemic shock

273
Q

TIPS worsens encephalopathy in ___% of patients.

A

20%

274
Q

type of shunt that is threaded down abdomen to collect fluid and shunt back into inferior vena cava

A

Le Veen Shunt

275
Q

type of shunt that has hand-held pump that pt. pumps to get fluid back into circulation

A

Denver Shunt

276
Q

What are porto-caval shunts used for?

A

malignant and nonmalignant ascites, alternative to paracentesis, for patients awaiting liver transplant

277
Q

1 unit of PRBC will increase hemoglobin by _____ g/dL

A

1

278
Q

liver transplant surgery lasts between ______ hours

A

8 to 18 hours

279
Q

The most common conditions for liver transplant are?

A

Viral Hepatitis (C), Cirrhosis, Primary sclerosing cholangitis, and Genetic conditions

280
Q

What are the contraindications for liver transplant?

A

Systemic disease (cancer), Uncontrolled extrahepatic bacterial or fungal infection, Advanced cardio or pulmonary disease, and Active alcoholism or drug abuse

281
Q

What are the potential complications of liver transplant?

A

Infection, Rejection, Hemorrhage

282
Q

Liver transplant patients are discharged within _____.

A

1 week

283
Q

Liver transplant patients can resume normal life within _____.

A

3-4 months

284
Q

Liver transplant survival rate is greater than ______% with close follow up and medication compliance.

A

85%

285
Q

What should the nurse do post-liver transplant?

A

Monitor for signs of rejection and infection, Continue immuno-suppressive therapy (might be for life), Monitor labs, assess for Volume Overload, Monitor wound drains and bile drains, and Assess needs of family and significant others

286
Q

What are the exocrine functions of the pancreas?

A

secretion of pancreatic enzymes

287
Q

What are the endocrine functions of the pancreas?

A

secretion of insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin

288
Q

What enzymes does the pancreas secrete that are essential in breaking down nutrients?

A

amylase, lipase, trypsin, chrymotripsin

289
Q

What is ordered to best view the pancreas?

A

a spiral CT

290
Q

Inflammation of the pancreas resulting in premature release of pancreatic enzymes causing auto-digestion of the pancreatic tissues

A

pancreatitis

291
Q

In pancreatitis, usually enzymes are released into the __________ which is extremely painful.

A

small bowel

292
Q

fat necrosis caused by premature release of lipase

A

Lipolysis

293
Q

edema, necrosis & gangrene of the pancreas due to premature release of trypsin

A

Proteolysis

294
Q

in pancreatitis, this is caused by release of elastase which dissolves fibers in blood vessels causing the patient to hemorrhage

A

Necrosis of the blood vessels

295
Q

Early release of pancreatic causes what 4 pathologic conditions?

A

lipolysis, proteolysis, necrosis of blood vessels and profuse inflammation

296
Q

What is the #1 cause of pancreatitis?

A

alcohol

297
Q

What can cause pancreatitis?

A

alcohol, gallstones, opiates, sulfa drugs, birth control, and bacterial or viral infections

298
Q

Discoloration around umbilicus (blue/gray color) in pancreatitis

A

Cullen’s sign

299
Q

Discoloration on the flanks in pancreatitis

A

Turner’s sign

300
Q

What position helps with the pain of pancreatits?

A

fetal position

301
Q

What makes pancreatitis pain much worse?

A

eating

302
Q

Pancreatitis pain is described as ______ and _______.

A

intense and radiating to the back

303
Q

What are the symptoms of pancreatitis?

A

abdominal pain, N/V, diaphoresis, weakness, tachycardia, and steatorrhea

304
Q

What are Ranson’s Criteria upon admission?

A

age > 55, WBC > 16,000, glucose > 200, LDH > 350, and AST > 250

305
Q

What are Ranson’s Criteria 48 hours post-admission?

A

hematocrit decreased > 10%, fluid sequestreation > 6 L, hypocalcemia (Ca+ 5 after IV fluids, and base deficit > 4 mmol/L

306
Q

Ranson’s Criteria score of 0 - 2 means _____% mortality.

A

2%

307
Q

Ranson’s Criteria score of 3 - 4 means _____% mortality.

A

15%

308
Q

Ranson’s Criteria score of 5 -6 means _____% mortality.

A

40%

309
Q

Ranson’s Criteria score of 7 - 8 means _____% mortality.

A

100%

310
Q

What are the systemic complications of pancreatitis?

A

massive hemorrhage (hypovolemic shock), pulmonary complications, and renal complications (acute renal failure)

311
Q

What is the most definitive lab test for pancreatitis?

A

lipase

312
Q

Normal Lipase Level

A

1 - 160

313
Q

Pancreatitis Lipase Level

A

6,000 - 7,000

314
Q

Normal Amylase Level

A

30 - 220

315
Q

In pancreatitis, bilirubin is _______.

A

elevated

316
Q

In pancreatitis, a CBC will show signs of _______.

A

bleeding

317
Q

How is pain controlled in pancreatitis?

A

opiods (Dilaudid or Morphine) and Anticholinergics (dicyclomine)

318
Q

How will pancreatitis patient receive nutrition?

A

J tube, feeding tube that bypasses the pancreas, or TPN

319
Q

What does dicyclomine do in pancreatitis?

A

decreases vagal stimulation, motility and pancreatic flow

320
Q

When is dicyclomine contraindicated?

A

in patients with a paralytic ileus

321
Q

What should be checked prior to administration of dicyclomine?

A

bowel sounds

322
Q

drugs that decrease gastric secretions given to patients with pancreatitis

A

Octreotides, H2 blockers and PPI’s

323
Q

As pancreatitis patient begins to eat again, what diet should they follow?

A

bland food, moderate to high carb, high protein, low fat, no caffeine or alcohol

324
Q

Chronic Calcifying Pancreatitis (CCP) is caused by _______.

A

alcoholism

325
Q

Chronic Obstructive Pancreatitis is caused by ________.

A

gallstones

326
Q

The key symptom in chronic panreatitis is _________.

A

abdominal pain

327
Q

In chronic panreatitis, there may be a palpable mass in the ____.

A

LUQ

328
Q

Chronic pancreatitis can cause possible manifestations of __________.

A

diabetes

329
Q

What general symptoms can Chronic pancreatitis cause?

A

Weight loss, muscle wasting, and ascites

330
Q

What GI symptoms can Chronic pancreatitis cause?

A

Nausea/Vomiting, Diarrhea, Steatorrhea

331
Q

In chronic panreatitis, stool will be ______ colored and urine will be _______ colored.

A

clay; tea

332
Q

What is the definitive test for In chronic panreatitis?

A

biopsy done through ERCP

333
Q

What diagnostic tests are done for chronic panreatitis?

A

CT, MRCP, labs (lipase and amylase), and biopsy

334
Q

What is the dietary management for pancreatitis?

A

low fat diet

335
Q

What are the surgical management options for chronic panreatitis?

A

Roux-en-Y or Celiac plexus nerve block (pain control)

336
Q

What can be given for pain control of chronic panreatitis?

A

NSAIDS, Tricyclics, and Opioids (must go to pain managment)

337
Q

enzyme replacement that contains lipase, amylase and protease to aid in digestion of fats, proteins and starches

A

Pancrelipase

338
Q

What is the dose of Pancrelipase?

A

oral 4,000 to 50,000 Units with each meal and snacks

everytime they eat

339
Q

What are the adverse effects of Pancrelipase?

A

nausea, abdominal cramping, diarrhea (in large doses)

340
Q

Pancreatic enzymes are made from ________.

A

pork

341
Q

Pancreatic enzymes cannot be mixed with __________.

A

protein-containing foods

342
Q

Pancreatic enzymes cannot be _______ or ________.

A

chewed

343
Q

Do not _______ the Pancreatic enzyme capsule as it could cause asthma exacerbations.

A

open

344
Q

When taking Pancreatic enzymes, avoid contact with the _____.

A

lips

345
Q

What is the first sign that Pancreatic enzymes are working?

A

decrease in frequency of stools

346
Q

condition of the pancreas in which an abscess arises from necrotic tissue that is bacterial in nature and can erode into surrounding tissue

A

pancreatic abscess

347
Q

pancreatic abscess has a _____% mortality rate.

A

60%

348
Q

What are the risk factors for pancreatic cancer?

A

People older than 60, History of smoking, Chronic pancreatitis, Diabetes mellitus, Cirrhosis, High intake of red meat ** Study released 1/13/12, Long term exposure to chemicals, Obesity, African American, Heavy alcohol use, Male gender, family history

349
Q

What is the usual first sign of pancreatic cancer?

A

painless jaundice

350
Q

What are the symptoms of pancreatic cancer?

A

Dull discomfort in RUQ, Fatigue, Rapid Weight loss, Nonspecific GI disturbances, Clay colored stool

351
Q

How is pancreatic cancer diagnosed?

A

CEA and CA19-9 (tumor markers), spiral CT, ultrasound, ERCP w/ biopsy

352
Q

What is the most useful test for pancreatic cancer?

A

spiral CT

353
Q

What is the most definitive test for pancreatic cancer?

A

ERCP w/ biopsy

354
Q

What is the treatment for pancreatic cancer?

A

palliative, internal or external radiation, chemotherapy (5-Fluorouracil (5-FU) and Gemcitabine)

355
Q

What medication is given for pancreatic cancer symptoms?

A

Morphine, Hydromorphone, Fentanyl

356
Q

What is surgical treatment is used to remove small pancreatic tumors?

A

Partial pancreatecotomy

357
Q

What is a Radical pancreaticoduodenectomy?

A

Whipple procedure

358
Q

What are the potential complications of the Whipple procedure?

A

Cardiovascular- MI, hemorrhage, heart failure, thrombophlebitis, Pulmonary- atelectasis, pneumonia, PE, ARDS, pulmonary edema, GI- paralytic ileus, gastric retention, bowel obstruction, pancreatitis, hepatic failure, thrombosis, Wound- infection, dehiscence, fistulas, Metabolic- diabetes, renal failure

359
Q

After pancreatic surgery, how is pain controlled?

A

PCA pump

360
Q

What position should the pancreatic surgery patient be placed after surgery?

A

Semi-fowlers

361
Q

GI drainage from a wound should be _________.

A

sero-sanginous

362
Q

Immediately report GI drainage fluid that appears _______, ________, ________, or ________.

A

Clear, Colorless, Bile-tinged, Bloody (bright red)

363
Q

After pancreatic surgery, the nurse should monitor what levels?

A

fluid/ electrolytes, protein, albumin, and blood glucose

364
Q

Protein and albumin losses after pancreatic surgery occur due to_________, _________, or __________.

A

blood loss, NGT, or drainage tubes