Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the main types of skin carcinoma

A
  • basal cell carcinoma: usually presents as raised, smooth, pearly bump on the sun-exposed skin of head neck or shoulders, ulceration and telangiectasia may also feature
  • squamous cell carcinoma: common presents as a red scaling thickened patch over sun-exposed skin. More malignant than BCC but less common
  • malignant melanoma: the least common but most malignant usually presents as an asymmetrical area with irregular border and colour variation from shades of brown to black. Though some more aggressive melanomas called amelanotic appear pink, red of fleshy. Tend to be larger than 6mm and evolve over time.
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2
Q

Describe Ewing’s sarcoma and its treatment

A

Malignant round-cell tumour of long bones (typically diaphysis) and limb girdles that present in adolescents. Radiographs show bone destruction, concentric layers of new bone formation (onion ring sign). Typically those with it have a t11:22 chromosomal translocation.

Treatment:
Chemotherapy, surgery and radiotherapy are required. The key adverse factor is metastatic disease at diagnosis taking 5 year survival from 55% to 22%

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3
Q

What is the difference between adjuvant and neoadjuvant?

A

Adjuvant therapy is therapy that is given in addition to the main therapy to reduce the risk of recurrence e.g. post surgical chemo or radiotherapy.

Neoadjuvant therapy in contrast is given before main treatment and is needed to help ‘cure’. For example systemic therapy given before removal of breast, or therapy given to shrink tumours before surgery

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4
Q

Describe TNM staging.

A

T describes extent of tumour. 1 being small tumour with minimal invasion and 4 being large tumour with extensive invasion.

N describes degree of spread to regional lymph nodes. 0 means tumour cells absent, 1 shows spread to regionally lymph nodes increasing through to 3 depending on the distance of those lymph nodes

M is for the presence of metastases and is either 0 or 1

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5
Q

Describe Breast Carcinoma, the types, its risk factors, investigations, and treatment

A

Most common type of cancer. Affects 1 in 8 women. 60-70% of breast cancers are oestrogen receptor +ve conveying better prognosis. around 30% over-express HER2 (growth factor receptor gene) associated with aggressive disease and poorer prognosis.

Types:

  • Non-invasive Ductal Carcinoma In-Situ (DCIS) is premalignant and seen as micro-calcification on mammography.
  • Non-invasive lobular CIS is rarer and tends to be multifocal, picked up less through conventional radiology, MRI is more sensitive.
  • Invasive ductal carcinoma is most common (70%) whereas invasive lobular carcinoma accounts for 10-15%.

Risk factors: Family history, age, uninterrupted oestrogen exposure,1st pregnancy after 30yrs, early menarche, late menopause, HRT, Obesity, BRCA genes, not breastfeeding, previous cancer.

Investigations: all lumps undergo Triple assessment:

  • Clinical examination - Ductal carcinomas most commonly present as lumps in the upper outer quadrant of the breast.
  • Radiology - ultrasound for 40 and under (due to increased breast density mammography is less reliable), mammography and ultrasound for 40 and older
  • Histology/cytology (FNA or core biopsy, US-guided core biopsy best for new lumps)

Treatment:

  • Surgery - wide local excision or mastectomy +/- breast reconstruction, + axillary node sampling/surgical clearance or sentinel node biopsy.
  • Radiotherapy - recommended for all patients with invasive disease post wide local excision. Axillary radiotherapy may be used if lymph nodes +ve on sampling and surgical clearance not performed
  • Chemotherapy - adjuvant chemotherapy improve survival. Neoadjuvant to allow breast-conserving surgery
  • Endocrine agents - Tamoxifen for oestrogen receptor +ve tumours in pre and perimenopausal women. anastrozole an aromatase inhibitor targeting peripheral oestrogen synthesis may be used in post-menopausal women.
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6
Q

Describe Phaeochromocytoma, its symptoms, tests, and treatment,.

A

Rare catecholamine-producing tumour. They arise from sympathetic paraganglia cells, which are collections of chromaffin cells. They are usually found in the adrenal medulla, rarely they may be found by the aortic bifurcation. Follow a rule of 10%, 10% maligant, 10% extra-adrenal, 10% bilateral, 10% familial.

Symptoms: Classic triad is episodic headache, sweating and tachycardia

Tests: WCC raised, plasma + 3 x 24h urine collectuon for free metadrenaline and normetadrenaline +/- clonidine supprestion test if borderline. Localisation with abdominal CT/MRI

Treatment:

  • Surgery - alpha-blockade (phenoxybenzamine) pre-op, consult anaethestist.
  • If emergency principle is combined alpha and beta blockade, start with alpha as unopposed beta blockade can worsen hypertension.
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7
Q

Describe adrenocortical carcinoma, its symptoms, investigations, and treatment

A

An aggresive cancer originating in the cortex (steroid-hormone producing tissue) of the adrenal. Bimodal distribution by age clustering in children under 5 and adults 30-40yrs.

Symptoms: Early signs include abdominal fullness + pain. If functional, many hormonal syndromes can occur including Cushing’s syndrome, Conn Syndrome, virilization and feminization. Most commonly presents as Cushing’s + Virilzation due to glucocorticoid and androgen overproduction.

Investigations: BM (raised glucose in cushing’s), 24h urine collection, CT scan.

Treatment: Surgical excision if local, if metastatic chemotherapy. palliative radiotherapy.

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8
Q

Describe immune checkpoint blockade in cancer therapy.

A

A new potential treatment target for cancer, immunologic checkpoint blockade with antibodies that target cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4) and the programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1) have demonstrated promise in a variety of malignancies.

Antibodies for these targets (Ipilimumab for CTLA-4 and Pembrolizumab for PD-1) prevent down-regulation of T-cells allowing the natural immune response to be boosted in fighting cancer.

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9
Q

Describe Advanced Care Planning.

A

All patients reaching the end of their life should be offered the opportunity (but not feel obliged) to plan ahead. ACP is a process of discussions between a patient and professionals regarding their future care, decisions and wishes can be documented in the following ways and the patient should be informed of these measures:

  • Advanced statement - documentation of patients preferences and wishes.
  • Advanced Decision - legally binding, made when patient has capacity to be used if they no longer have capacity regarding refusal of specific treatments in specific situations.
  • Lasting Power of Attorney - may be given by the patient to a nominated patient which grants that person legal responsibility for making decisions regarding the patients health.
  • The setting of end of life care should also be discussed as well as including religious and cultural views.

When dealing with patients ask yourself would you be surprised if this patient were to die in the next 2 years? If yes think about discussing the above with a patient.

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10
Q

Describe Liver metastases, common primary sites, symptoms,

A

The commonest liver tumour are secondary (metastatic) e.g. from breast, bronchus (lung), or the GI tract.

Symptoms: Fever, malaise, weight loss, RUQ pain (due to liver capsule stretch), jaundice and ascites are later signs.

Management: often palliative prognosis is usually less than 6 months.

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11
Q

Describe renal cell carcinoma, its features, tests, and management

A

Accounts for 90% of renal cancers, arising from the proximal renal tubular epithelium. Mean age 55yrs. Twice as common in men.

Features: Haematuria, loin pain, abdominal mass, anorexia, malaise, weight loss, pyrexia of unknown origin, 25% metastasise at presentation to bone, liver, or lung.

Tests: Raised BP due to increased renin secretion, FBC shows polycythaemia due to increased erythropoietin secretion. Imaging - US, CT/MRI, CXR may show Cannon-ball metastases.

Management: Radical nephrectomy, generally radio and chemo resistant. Biological therapies targeting angiogenesis e.g. sunitinub, sorafenib may be effective. For patients with multiple poor-risk factors temsirolimus (inhibits mTOR) improves survival compared to interferon

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12
Q

Describe colorectal carcinoma, its presentation, tests and management

A

3rd most common cancer mostly in those over 60yrs old. Predisposing factors include, polyps, IBD, FAP and HNPCC, smoking, alcohol, low fibre high red + processed meat diet.

Presentation: depends on site:

  • left-sided = bleeding/mucus PR, altered bowel habit or obstruction, tenesmus, mass PR
  • right-sided = weight loss, anaemia, abdominal pain, obstruction less likely.
  • Either may present with abdominal mass, perforation, haemorrhage, fistula.

Tests: FBC shows microcytic anaemia, FOB +ve, sigmoidoscopy/colonoscopy. LFT + CT for metastatic spread to liver, lung, bone

Management:

  • Surgery aims to cure. Right hemicolectomy for caecal, ascending or proximal transverse colon tumours. Left hemicolectomy for tumours in distal transverse or descending colon. Sigmoid colectomy for sigmoid tumours. Anterior resection for low sigmoid or high rectal tumours. Abdomino-perineal resection for tumours low in the rectum.
  • Radiotherapy most often used in palliation of colonic cancer occasionally neo-adjuvantly to allow resection. Adjuvant only used in rectal tumours with high risk of recurrence.
  • Chemotherapy is used adjuvantly the standard is FOLFOX regimen (5-FU, folinic acid and oxaliplatin). Biological therapies e.g. anti-VEGF improves survival when added to combination therapy in advanced disease.
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13
Q

What are some commonly used tumour markers?

A

Alpha-fetoprotein (aFP) - germ cell/testicular and HCC
Calcitonin - Medullary thyroid
CA-125 - Ovarian (raised in many other diseases)
CA 19-9 - Pancreatic
CA 15-3 - Breast
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) - Colorectal

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14
Q

Describe gastric carcinoma, its risk factors, presentation, tests, and management.

A

Carcinoma of the stomach
Risk factors: H Pylori, Low Vitamin C, FHx, High Sodium diet, Japanese, Gastric Surgery, Pernicious Anaemia, Smoking.

Presentation: often non-specific, dyspepsia (for more than 1 month and age over 50 years demands investigation), weight loss, vomiting, dysphagia, anaemia. Signs of late stage disease include virchow’s node, epigastric mass, hepatomegaly, jaundice, ascites, acanthosis nigricans.

Tests: gastroscopy + multiple ulcer edge biopsies. Aim to biopsy all ulcers as even malignant ulcers may appear to heal on drug treatment. CT/MRI helps staging.

Treatment: Surgical resection. Combination chemotherapy increases survival in advanced disease (epirubicin, cisplatin, 5-FU). Targeted therapies have increasing role eg. trastuzumab for HER-2 +ve tumours.

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15
Q

Describe oesophageal carcinoma, its risk factors, presentation, red flag, tests, and treatment

A

More common in men, risk factors include diet low in vit A+C, alcohol excess, smoking, plummer-vinson syndrome, obesity, nitrosamine exposure (Fish is high in nitrosamines), barrets oesophagus. 20% occur in the upper part, 50% in the middle and 30% in the lower part. They may be squamous cell (proximal) or adenocarcinomas (distal).

Risk Factors: Smoking, Alcohol, GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, Achalsia, Plummer-Vinson Syndrome, Nitrosamines, Coeliac disease, scleroderma.

Presentation: progressive dysphagia, weight loss, retrosternal chest pain. Signs from upper third include hoarseness, cough.

Red Flags: dysphagia, 55 and over with weight loss and any of the following upper abdominal pain, dyspepsia.

Tests: OGD with biopsy. CT for staging

Treatment: oesophagectomy for local disease. If surgery not applicable, chemoradiotherapy is recomended. Palliative therapy aims to restore swallowing with chemo/radiotherapy.

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16
Q

Describe Spinal Cord Compression, its causes, symptoms, investigation, and management.

A

An oncological emergency, urgent treatment is required to preserve neurological function.

Causes: Typically extradural metastases.

Symptoms: Back pain, weakness or sensory loss with a root distribution (or a sensory level), bowel and bladder dysfunction.

Investigations: urgent MRI of whole spine.

Management:

  • Dexamethasone 16mg/24h PO.
  • Palliative radiotherapy is the commonest treatment.
  • Discuss with neurosurgeon and clinical oncologist immediately.
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17
Q

Describe SVC obstruction with airway compromise, its causes, symptoms, investigations, and management.

A

It is an oncological emergency only if there is tracheal compression with airway compromise otherwise there is time to plan optimal treatment.

Causes: Malignancy accounts for more than 90% of SVCO, 3/4 of which are lung cancer. Rarer causes include mediastinal enlargement (germ cell tumour), thymus malignancy, mediastinal lymphadenopathy, (e.g. lymphoma), thrombotic disorders, thrombus around IV central line.

Symptoms: Dyspnoea, orthopnoea, plethora/cyanosis, swollen face and arm, cough, headache, and engorged veins.

Investigations: Pemberton’s test (lifting the arms over hte head for more than a minute causes facial plethora/cyanosis, raised JVP, and inspiratory stridor) Urgent contrast enhanced CT.

Management:

  • get a tissue diagnosis if the cause is unknown e.g. biopsy of peripheral lymph node
  • Give oral dexamethasone 8-16mg/24h.
  • Consider balloon venoplasty and SVC stenting as this provides the most rapid relief of symptoms.
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18
Q

Describe malignancy associated hypercalcaemia, its causes, symptoms, and management.

A

An oncological emergency, affects 10-20% of patients with cancer and 40% of those with myeloma. Very poor prognostic sign.

Causes: Lytic bone mets, myeloma, production of osteoclast activating factor or PTH-like hormones by the tumour.

Symptoms: Lethargy, anorexia, nausea, polydipsia, polyuria, constipation, dehydration, confusion, weakness. Most obvious is corrected serum Ca greater than 3mmol/L

Management: Involves rehydration followed by IV bisphosphonate (or calcitonin if resistant). Maintenance with bisphosphonates, treat underlying malignancy.

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19
Q

Describe Raised Intracranial pressure, its symptoms, investigations, and management

A

It is an oncological emergency, due to either primary CNS tumour or mets.

Symptoms: Headache (often worse in the morning, when coughing or bending over), nausea, vomiting, papilloedema, fits, focal neurological signs.

Investigations: Urgent CT/MRI is important to diagnose an expanding mass, cystic degeneration, haemorrhage within a tumour, cerebral oedema, or hydrocephalus as the management of these scenarios are different.

Treatment: Dexamethasone 8-16mg/24h PO, radiotherapy and surgery as appropriate depending on cause. Mannitol may be tried for symptom relief of cerebral oedema though not based on strong evidence.

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20
Q

Describe lung cancer, its symptoms, tests, and management.

A

35% are squamous cell (CXR may show central cavitating lesion aka coin lesion), 27% adenocarcinoma, 20% small cell, 10% large cell. Main division is into small cell (SCLC) and non-small cell (NSCLC).

Symptoms: Cough (80%), haemoptysis (70%), dyspnoea (60%), chest pain (40%), recurrent or slowly resolving pneumonia, lethargy, anorexia, weightloss. Lymphadenopathy, recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy (mediastinal lymph nodeS), Horner’s syndrome (pancoasts tumour), ACTH from small cell leading to cushings

Tests: cytology of sputum, CXR. fine needle aspirations or biopsy and CT staging. Bronchoscopy to assess tumour.

Treatment:

  • NSCLC - excision is the treatment of choice for peripheral tumours, without mets. Curative radiotherapy is an alternative if respiratory reserve is poor. Chemo + Radio for more advanced tumours.
  • SCLC - may respond to chemo but invariably relapse, consider palliation radiotherapy for bronchial obstruction, SVC obstruction
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21
Q

Describe PSA, its normal range, causes of raised PSA,

A

Prostate Specific Antigen is a tumour marker that may be raised in a number of scenarios

Normal Range: 40-49yrs = 2.5, 50-59yrs = 3.5, 60-69yrs = 4.5, 70+yrs = 6.5

Causes of raised PSA:

  • BPH (usually less than 10ng/mL)
  • Prostate cancer (65% greater than 10ng/ml)
  • BMI greater than 25
  • Afro-carribeans
  • Taller men
  • Recent ejaculation
  • Prostatitis
  • Recent rectal examination

If PSA is greater than 10ng/mL think prostate cancer. Finasteride can half PSA so double for representative value of prostate

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22
Q

What are the conversion of some common opiod medications?

A

Codeine phosphate 60mg PO = Morphine 6mg PO

Tramadol 100mg PO = Morphine 20mg PO

Oxycodone 5mg PO = Morphine 10mg PO

Morphine 5mg IV/SC = Morphine 10mg PO

Diamorphine 5mg IV/SC = Morphine 15mg PO

Oxycodone 5mg IV/SC = Morphine 20mg PO

Alfentanil 1mg IV/SC = Morphine 30mg PO

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23
Q

Describe prostate cancer, its symptoms, investigations, and management.

A

Relatively common in men. 95% adenocarcinoma. Graded by the Gleason score.

Symptoms: early prostate cancer have few symptoms, but locally advanced disease may present as pelvic pain or urinary symptoms such as increased frequency, urgency, urinary retention, haematuria. Metastatic disease may present as bone pain, particularly low back.

Investigations:

  • PSA then PR.
  • if raised, or hard craggy mass felt 2wk referral for MRI/CT

Management:

  • watch and wait in elderly, co-morbid, low Gleason score
  • radiotherapy potentially curative, and palliative possible.
  • radical prostatectomy for local disease. Erectile dysfunction is common side effect.
  • Hormone therapy, testosterone stimulates prostate tissues and prostatic cancer usually shows some degree of testosterone dependence. GnRH agonist Goserelin (zoladex) cover initially with anti-androgen (e.g. Bicalutamide). (SEs include hot flushes, loss of libido, erectile dysfunction, weight gain, loss of body hair, gynaecomastia, mood change)
24
Q

Describe Castleman’s disease and its symptoms.

A

Involves hyper activation of immune system. It is a lymphoproliferative disorder. May be associated with HHV-8. Indicator for HIV test.

Symptoms: generalised lymphadenopathy ‘B symptoms’ e.g. Fevers, night sweats, weight loss.

25
Q

What are the important classes of chemotherapy drugs and some side-effects?

A

Alkylating agents: antiproliferative drugs that bind via alkyl groups to DNA e.g. Cyclophosphamide (SEs Haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, transitional cell carcinoma

Anti metabolites: interfere with normal cellular metabolism of nucleic acids e.g. Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (SEs myelosuppression, mucosa this, liver fibrosis, lung fibrosis) Fluorouracil a pyrimidine analogue inducing cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase (SEs myelosuppression, mucositis, dermatitis)

Vinca alkaloids: spindle poisons which target micro tubules affecting cell division e.g. Vincristine/Vinblastine which inhibits formation of micro tubules (SEs reversible Peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus, myelosuppression)

Anti tumour antibiotics: vary in action e.g. Bleomycin degrades preformed DNA (SEs lung fibrosis) and Doxorubicin stabilises DNA-topoisomerase II complex inhibiting DNA + RNA synthesis (SEs cardiomyopathy)

Monoclonal antibodies e.g. Bevacizumab for renal cell carcinoma, and panitumumab for epidermal growth factor receptors.

Others: platinum based e.g. Cisplatin cross links DNA (SEs ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia)

26
Q

Describe Breast Cancer Screening, and risk factors which may necessitate more frequent screening.

A

All women between ages of 47-73 invited for 3yrly mammograms. Any lumps detected are referred for full triple Assessment. Patient are also assessed for risk moderate and high risk may have yearly mammogram and possible MRI, and genetic testing.

Risk factors: Previous Breast cancer, early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity, late first pregnancy, HRT, COCP, Obesity, Smoking, Family history (age less than 45, first degree relative) FHx premenopausal cancer, P53 or BRCA mutations.

27
Q

Describe Bladder Cancer, its symptoms, investigations, and management.

A

Most commonly Transitional cell carcinoma. 80% are confined to bladder mucosa, and around 20% penetrate the muscle (increased mortality)

Symptoms: Painless Haemturia, recurrent UTIs, voiding irritability. Associated with smoking, aromatic amines (rubber industry) and schistomiasis (increased risk of squamous carcinoma)

Investigations: Cystoscopy with biopsy is diagnostic, CT urogram helps with staging.

Management:

  • Tis/Ta/T1: Tranurethral resection of bladder tumour (TURBT) + Post-op Chemo e.g. Mitomycin C, doxorubicin, cisplatin
  • T2-3: Radical Cystectomy + Post-op Chemo e.g. M-VAC (Methotrexate, Vinblastine, Adriamycin and cisplatin)
  • T4: Consider palliative chemo/radio
  • Follow-up with regular Cystoscopy
  • Cystectomy can result in sexual and urinary malfunction.
  • Bladder may be replaced with either a urostomy (ileal-conduit), continent urinary diversion (internal pouch, or a neobladder
28
Q

What are the main side-effects of Chemotherapy?

A
Nausea + Vomiting
Hair loss (Cold cap can help prevent)
Marrow suppression, thrombocytopenia,neutropenia, anaemia
Fatigue
GI toxicity, diarrohoea
Infertility
Mucositis
29
Q

What are the main side-effects of radiotherapy?

A

Early: Skin toxicity, diarrohoea, Oesphagitis, cystitis, mastitis, desquamation. (All dependent on target areas and organs involved)

Late: Fibrosis, secondary malignancy.

30
Q

Describe Thyroid Cancer, the types, features, and management

A

Papillary (60%): often in younger patients, spreads to lymph nodes and lung. Management is total thyroidectomy +/- node excision +/- radioiodine.

Follicular (25%): Occur in middle age and spreads early via blood (bone and lungs), Well differentiated. Management include total thyroidectomy + T4 suppression + radioiodine ablation

Medullary (5%): sporadic (80%) or part of MEN syndrome. May produce calcitonin which can be used as tumour marker. Perform phaeochromocytoma screen pre-op. Management includes thyroidectomy + nude cleanse. Radiotherapy should be considered to prevent regional recurrence.

Lymphoma (5%): three times more common in females, presents with stridor or dysphagia. Neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy + Excision

Anaplastic: Rare, hard rapidly enlarging mass. 3 times more common in females occur sin elderly. Poor response to treatment excision and radiotherapy may be tried.

Specific complications of thyroid surgery:

  • Early e.g. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, Thyroid storm, hypoparathyroidism.
  • Late e.g. hypothyroidism
31
Q

Describe Von Hippel-Linda syndrome and its features

A

Autosomal dominant condition predisposing to Neoplasia caused by a mutation in the VHL gene located on short arm of chromosome 3

Features:

  • Cerebellar haemangiomas
  • Retinal Haemangiomas +/- vitreous haemorrhage
  • Renal cysts (premalignant)
  • Phaeochromocytoma
  • Extra-renal cysts (epididymal, pancreatic, hepatic)
  • Endolymphatic sac tumours
32
Q

What are the most common sites for Giant Cell Tumours (Osteoclastomas)?

A

50% occur about the knee:

1) Distal Femur
2) Proximal Tibia
3) Proximal Humerus
4) Distal radius

33
Q

Describe Burkitt’s lymphoma, its forms, features and management.

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8:14). EBV is strongly implicated in the development of the African form and to a lesser extent the sporadic form.

Forms:

  • Endemic (African) form: typically involves maxilla or mandible
  • Sporadic form: abdominal (e.g. Ileo-caecal) tumours are the most common form, more common in patients with HIV.

Features:
Microscopy findings show ‘starry sky’ appearance, lymphocyte sheets interspersed with macrophages containing dead apoptotic tumour cells.

Management:
-Chemotherapy, tends to cause rapid response +/- tumour lysis syndrome Rasburicase (a recombinant version of urate oxidase, an enzyme which catalyses the conversion of Uris acid to Allantoin) is often given before chemo to reduce the risk of this occuring

34
Q

Describe Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis and its features.

A

A rare condition associated with abnormal proliferation of histiocytes. It typically presents in childhood with bony lesions.

Features:

  • Bone pain, typically skull or proximal femur
  • Cutaneous nodules
  • Recurrent otitis media/mastoiditis
  • Tennis racket-shaped Birbeck granules on elctromicroscopy
35
Q

What are the histological types of Hodgkin’s lymphoma and their features

A

Nodular Sclerosing, most common (70%), good prognosis, more common in women associated with lacunar cells.

Mixed Cellularity, around 20%, good prognosis, associated with a large number of Reed-sternburg cells.

Lymphocyte predominant, around 5%, best prognosis

Lymphocyte depleted, rare, worst prognosis.

36
Q

What are some common monoclonal antibodies used to treat cancer?

A

Nivolumab is a PD-1 (programmed cell death) inhibitor. PD-1 receptors are found on the surface of T-cells. When a T cell is alerted to a cancer cell the cancer cell can express the PD-L1 protein. This is a ligand which binds to the T cell receptor and deactivates it. It is therefore a mechanism in which cancer cells use to evade the immune system and disable T-cells. The PD-1 inhibitors are antibodies which block this receptor leaving T cells to ram in active and alert other immune cells for example macrophages to the cancer cells.

EGFR is the epidermal growth factor receptor. An example of an inhibitor used in lung cancer would be Erlotinib (Tarceva)

VEGF inhibitors are vascular endothelial growth factor inhibitors. An examples is Bevacizumab which is used in colorectal cancer.

ALK-1 inhibitors are drugs that act on anaplastic lymphoma kinase (A tyrosine kinase). Crizotinib is an ALK-1 inhibitors which is undergoing further trails in NSCLC.

CTLA-4 (Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte associated protein 4) is another immune checkpoint which down-regulates T cell responses. Blocking this with inhibitors such as Ipilimumab again activates the immune system against cancer.

Nivolumab in combination with Ipilimumab has shown encouraging results in patients with stage 4 metastatic melanoma and lymphoma. It is currently undergoing trials into many other solid malignancies such as lung, oesophageal and head and neck cancer.

37
Q

What is Ki-67 Index?

A

This is the proliferation index and is a marker (antigen) of the cancer cells metabolic rate in lymphoma. In high grade lymphomas such as diffuse Large B-cell lymphoma the Ki-67 index will be high (over45%), whereas in low grade lymphoma such as follicular lymphoma the Ki-67 Index will be low (less than 40%).

38
Q

Describe Mantle Cell Lymphoma and its features.

A

A type of B-cell Lymphoma, CD5+, CD19+, CD23-, CD10-. Associated with translocation 11;14 causing over-expression of the cyclin D1 (BCL-1) gene.

Features: Widespread lymphadenopathy, Poor prognosis.

39
Q

What is lymphangitic carcinomatosis?

A

The term given to tumour spread through the lymphatic of the lung and is most commonly seen secondary to adenocarcinoma. Mechanism of spread is usually haematogenous seeding. HRCT is imaging of choice.

Pneumonic for causes of lymphanitis carcinomatosis;

Certain Cancers Spread By Plugging The Lymphatics:

Cervical
Colon
Stomach
Breast
Pancreas
Thyroid
Larynx and Lung.
40
Q

Describe the main paraneoplastic syndromes affecting the nervous system.

A

Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic syndrome:

  • associated with small cell lung cancer (also breast and ovarian)
  • antibody directed against pre-synaptic voltage gated calcium channel in the peripheral nervous system
  • can also occur independently as autoimmune disorder

Anti-Hu:

  • associated with small cell lung cancer and neuroblastomas
  • sensory neuropathy - may be painful
  • cerebellar syndrome
  • encephalomyelitis

Anti-Yo:

  • Associated with ovarian and breast cancer
  • cerebellar syndrome

Anti-GAD:

  • Associated with breast, colorectal and small cell lung carcinoa
  • stiff person’s syndrome or fiddle hypertonia

Anti-Ri:

  • Associated with neuroblastoma, breast and small cell lung carcinoma
  • ocular opsoclonus-myoclonus.
41
Q

Which malignancies are associated with EBV?

A

Burkitt’s Lymphoma
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

42
Q

Which malignancies are associated with HTLV-1 infection?

A

Adult T-cell leukaemia.

43
Q

What are the associations of RET oncogene?

A

Associated with MEN2 specifically medullary thyroid cancer, also associated with papillary thyroid cancer.

44
Q

Describe Carcinoid tumours, their features, Investigations, and management.

A

Carcinoid syndrome usually occurs when metastases are present in the liver and release serotonin into the systemic circulation. May also occur with lung carcinoid (smooth red tumour) as mediators are not cleared by the liver.

Features:

  • Flushing (often earliest symptom)
  • Diarrhoea
  • Bronchospasm
  • Right heart valvular stenosis (Left heart can also be affected in bronchial carcinoid)
  • Other molecules such as ACTH and GNRH may also be secreted resulting in for example Cushing’s syndrome
  • Pellagra can rarely develop as dietary tryptophan is diverted to serotonin by the tumour.

Investigation:

  • Urinary 5-HIAA
  • Plasma Chromogranin A

Management:

  • Somatostatin analogues e.g. octreotide.\
  • Diarrhoea: Cyproheptadine may help.
45
Q

What is the main management of non-small cell lung cancer, and what are the contraindications to surgery?

A

Management:

  • only 20% suitable for surgery
  • Mediastinoscopy performed prior to surgery as CT does no always show mediastinal lymph node involvement
  • Curative or palliative radiotherapy
  • poor response to chemotherapy

Surgery contradindications:

  • Assess general health
  • Stage IIIb or IV
  • FEV1 < 1.5 is general cut off
  • malignant pleural effusion
  • tumour near hilum
  • vocal cord paralysis
  • SVC obstruction
46
Q

Describe Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP), its features, and management

A

Caused by germline mutations of the APC gene. Results in multiple small- and large-bowel adenomas. The risk of colorectal carcinoma is reported to be 90-100%, with a median age of developing such tumours of 30 years. The earliest cancers have been detected in people in their early teens. The second most common malignant cause of death is duodenal adenoma with malignant transformation.

Management:

  • Prophylactic colectomy is advised at the age of 16.
  • Endoscopic surveillance of UGI adenomas is essential
47
Q

What is the residual tumour classification?

A

Exists in addition to the TNM classification and the histological grade:

  • RX presence of residual tumour cannot be assessed
  • R0 no residual tumour
  • R1 microscopic residual tumour
  • R2 macroscopic residual tumour
48
Q

Describe Erdheim-Chester disease and its features.

A

A rare disease characterised by the abnormal multiplication of histiocytes, or tissue macrophages (Non-Langerhans-cell Histiocytosis). Onset is middle age the disease involves infiltration of lipid-laden macrophages, multinucleate giant cells, an inflammatory infiltrate of lymphocytes and histiocytes in the bone marrow, and a generalised sclerosis of long bones.

Features: Bone pain, exophthalmos. Long bone involvement is universal, bilateral and symmetrical in nature. Extraskeletal manifestation in up to 50% including kidney, skin, brain and lung involvement.

49
Q

Describe Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC) and its management

A

aka Lynch syndrome, An autosomal dominant condition associated with high risk of colon cancer as well as other cancers, endometrial (second most common), ovary, stomach, small intestine, hepatobilliary tract, upper urinary tract, brain and skin. People with HNPCC have an 80% lifetime risk for colon cancer with two-thirds presenting in the proximal colon. The hallmark of HNPCC is defective DNA mismatch repair which leads to microsatellite instability.

Management:

  • Aspirin prophylaxis
  • genetic testing
50
Q

Describe P-Glycoprotein and its role in multi drug resistant Cancers.

A

A glycoprotein that in humans is encoded by the ABCB1 gene. It is a well characterised ABC-transporter (Which transports a wide variety of substrates across extra and intracellular membranes). P-gp efflux activity is capable of lowering intracellular concentrations of otherwise beneficial compounds such as chemotherapeutics to sub-therapeutic levels. Consequently P-gp overs-expression is one of the main mechanisms behind decreased intracellular drug accumulation and development of multidrug resistance in human multi drug resistant cancers.

51
Q

How are papillary and follicular cancer monitored for recurrence?

A

Serum thyroglobulin measurements,

52
Q

Describe oncogenic Osteomalacia, its features, and management.

A

Certain Tumours including mesenchmyal tumours, adenocarcinomas and haematological malignancies such as myeloma and CLL, appear to produce a phosphaturic substance.

Clinically patients present with bone pain and or fracture, profound proximal myopathy and severe hypophosphaturia, usually accompanied by a reduction in concentration of 1,25-OH Vitamin D. Other abnormalities of renal function such as glycosuria and aminoaciduria may be present

Treatment with vitamin D metabolites and phosphate supplements may results in resolution of skeletal symptoms. In the case of solid tumours removal may also improve symptoms.

53
Q

Describe Craniopharyngioma, its features and managment.

A

A slow growing, calcified cystic tumour arising from the remnants of the cranipharyneal duct. It comprises 4.2 of all childhood tumours and is slightly more common in males.

Features: Symptoms develop very slowly and usually manifest once the tumour has attained a diameter of 3cm. The commonest presentation in young patient sis growth failure and delayed puberty. The radiological hallmark of a craniopharyngioma is the presence of a suprasellar calcified cyst, with calcification being morecommon in children than in adults. CT is most useful for demonstrating calfications whereas MRI is essential for defining local anatomy prior to surgical intervention

Management:
-Surgery is the management of choice and may attempt to respect the tumour in total or reduce size followed by postoperative radiotherapy.

54
Q

What is the mechanism behind the genetic susceptibility to 5-FU?

A

5-FU is a cytotoxic used to block DNA synthesis used in the treatment of certain cancers.

Dihydropyrimdine dehydrogenase is the enzyme responsible for the breakdown of 5-FU. If a patient has a partial or complete deficiency of this enzyme toxic metabolites of 5-FU can accumulate leading to symptoms of severe overdose i.e. severe diarrhoea and Mucositis and its potential life threatening.

55
Q

Which specific stains are indicative of certain leukaemias?

A

TRAP: tends to be positive in hairy cell leukaemia

Sudan black B Stain and Myeloperoxidase: Tends to be positive in acute myeloblastic leukaemia

Terminal Deoxynucleotidyl trasnsferase stain (TDT): Tends to be positive in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

LAP: Tends to be raised in Polycythaemia Rubra Vera and myelofibrosis and tends to be low in chronic myeloid leukaemia.