Miscellaneous Flashcards
What is the most suitable management for a ethylene glycol overdose?
ethanol, fomepizole, haemodialysis
What are Beau’s lines?
Transverse furrows from temporary arrest of nail growth at times of biological stress e.g severe infection, Kawasaki disease, MI, chemotherapy, trauma
What is cachexia?
General muscle wasting from famine, or decreased eating, malabsorption, or increased catabolism.
What is clubbing and what are the causes?
Increased curvature of the nail and loss of the nail fold angle, the nail feels boggy.
Causes:
- Thoracic e.g. Bronchial cancer, emphysema, abscess, bronchiectasis, cystic fibrosis, TB, mesothelioma
- GI e.g. IBD, cirrhosis, GI lymphoma, malabsorption e.g. Coeliac
- CVS e.g. Cyanotic congenital heart disease, endocarditis, aneurysms, infected grafts
What are the contraindications for thrombolysis?
- Previous intracranial haemorrhage
- Ischaemic stroke less than 6month ago
- cerebral malignancy or AVM
- Recent major trauma/surgery/head injury less than 3 wks ago
- GI bleeding less than a month ago
- known bleeding disorder
- aortic dissection
- non-compressible punctures less than 24hrs ago e.g. Lumbar puncture or liver biopsy
- severe liver disease, varices or portal hypertension
- seizures at presentation
- BP greater than 220/130
- Platelets less than 100
- Anticoagulated or INR greater than 1.7
What is the torniquet test?
Tests valve competence in assessment of VVs. Largely replaced by doppler examination.
- Lie patient down
- lift leg and Milk veins
- apply the torniquet just below the level of the SFJ.
- ask patient to stand
- if VVs controlled incompetence is at SFJ
- If not incompetence is below the SJF
- Repeat at SPJ
What is Perthes test?
Assesses competency of deep venous system:
- Ask patient to stand and the VVs should be filled
- Apply torniquet at SFJ and ask patient to walk for 5 minutes
- If deep system occluded legs will become painful and VVs more engorged.
Describe the differences between arterial and venous uclers
Venous ulcers:
- Larger
- Shallow
- Irregular
- Often painless
- Medial gaiter area (lower leg)
Arterial Ulcers:
- Small
- Punched out
- Demarcated
- Painful
- Pressure areas/ between toes
Describe Sensitivity
Sensitivity is the percentage of people who have the disease that test positive.
‘How good a test is at picking up people with the disease’
TP/ TP+FN
Describe Specificity
Specificity is the percentage of people who dont have the disease that test negative
‘How good a test is at not picking up people that dont have the disease’
TN / FP+TN
Describe Positive Predictive Value and its formulae.
‘If your test is positive, the chance you actually have the disease’
TP/FP+TP
PPV = Sensitivity x Prevalence / (Sens x Prev +( 1 - Specificity) x (1 - Prevalence) )
Describe Negative Predictive Value and its formulae
‘If your test is negative, the chance you don’t have the disease’
TN/ FN+TN
NPV = Specificity x (1-Prevalence) / (1 - Sensitivity) x Prevalence + Specificity x (1 - Prevalence)
Describe Absolute Risk
Absolute Risk is the proportion of people in the group with a condition
Number of positives / Number of people
Describe Absolute Risk Reduction
(Absolute risk in control group) - (absolute risk in study group)
Describe Number Needed to Treat
1/ Absolute risk reduction
Describe Relative Risk Reduction
(Absolute risk of study group) / (Absolute risk of control group
Describe Alcohol Withdrawal, its signs, and management
Usually starts 10-72h after last drink. Consider in any new (less than 3d) ward patient with acute confusion.
Signs: Delirium Tremens i.e. Raised Pulse, decreased BP, tremor, fits, visual or tactile hallucinations e.g. of insects crawling under the skin (Formication).
Management:
- Admit and monitor BP, beware BP drop.
- Give Chlordiazepoxide generously for first 3d (10-50mg/6h) if unable to take orally e.g. vomting, diazepam as an alternative 10mg/6h PR or IVI during fits.
- Wean off slowly during 7-10d.
- Vitamins e.g. Thiamine (B1) may needed.
- monitor CIWA score to manage chlordiazepoxide treatment.
Describe Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
Used to quantify the conscious state of a person. 3 types of response are assessed:
Best motor response has 6 grades:
- 6 = Able to obey commands
- 5 = localising response to pain
- 4 = withdraws to pain
- 3 = flexor response to pain
- 2 = extensor posturing to pain
- 1 = no response to pain
Best Verbal response has 5 grades:
- 5 = Orientated
- 4 = Confused conversation
- 3 = inappropriate speech
- 2 = incomprehensible speech
- 1 = none
Eye Opening has 4 grades:
- 4 = spontaneous eye opening
- 3 = eye opening in response to speech
- 2 = eye opening in response to pain
- 1 = no eye opening
Score out of 15 severe injury = GCS less than 8 moderate 9-12 and minor 13-15. In severe injury airway need protection with endotracheal intubationo
Describe Enteral feeding, its indications, types
Feeding via the gut as opposed to parenteral which is via the veins. May be oral, nasogastric, nasoduodenal, nasojejunal, gastrostomy, jejunostomy.
Indications: Dysphagia e.g. stroke patients, supplementary feeding for patients who can not meet all requirements orally, oesophageal aetiology e.g. partial obstruction, fistulae.
Nasogastric (NG): most common, first choice in those with functional GI tract, simple to initiate and manage, beware potential life-threatening pulmonary complications. Aspirate NG placement contents and test pH, 0-5 confirms NGT placement, if not 0-5 X-ray confirmation needed. Bridles may be used as a securing system but must not be used as restraint. Consent must be clearly documented.
Gastrostomy or Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG): formation of a fistula between stomach wall and anterior abdominal wall. Assess by MDT, referral made by medical team. Patient must be consented informed of risks and benefits, if not capacity, formal capacity assessment must be documented and consent form 4 completed by clinician making decision to carry out in best interests.
PEG Contraindications: Ascites, unable to tolerate endoscope, poor life expectancy, coagulation disorders, obesity, GI obstruction.
What does PAPA stand for, and when is it used?
Used to explore patients agenda.
Permission: ask permission to share information
Ask: what does the person already know?
Provide: tailored information based on what you heard.
Ask: what the person thinks of the information and if they understand and would they like more
What does OARS stand for, and when is it used.
Used to demonstrate accurate empathy.
Open ended questions: introduce topic with open question
Affirmations/normalising: praise patient on any achievements and normalise any failures.
Reflections: Credit effort, weigh up advantages and disadvantages
Summarise: Feed back information to patient to ensure understanding.
What are the three enablers?
Agenda setting: identify issues and problems, prepare in advance, find out what’s important to the patient, agree a joint agenda.
Goal setting and action planning: small and achieve able goals SMART goals, build confidence and momentum
Goal follow-up: Proactive instigated by the system, timely, encouragement and reinforcement, review most challenging to achieve, key for maintenance and progress.
What is the cycle of change?
Precontemplation: no intention of changing behaviour.
Contemplation: aware a problem exists but no commitment to action
Preparation: intent upon taking action
Action: active modification of behaviour
Maintenance: Sustained change, new behaviour replaces old.
Relapse: falls back into old pattern and behaviour
Pre contemplation
What is a SMART goal?
Specific, Measurable, Appropriate, Realistic, Time based.