OMS rotation pearls Flashcards

1
Q

normal hb1ac

A

below 4 is good
5-6 pre diabetic
over that is diabetes

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2
Q

maximum dose of epi per visit in adult with HTN

A

0.04 mg

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3
Q

if pt has hx of HTN what must be done before and after procedure?

A

take BP and pulse before AND after
document it prior to procedure and prior to discharge

Following any oral surgery procedure in a patient with cardiac or HTN history or an abnormal pre-operative value, a BP and Pulse check must be documented after completion of procedure, prior to discharge

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4
Q

how to manage patient with stage 2 HTN?

what is the BP in these patients?

A

systolic is over 140
diastolic is 90+

  1. Retake and confirm blood pressure and consider other risks factors for the high BP.
  2. Monitor blood pressure during the appointment.
  3. Proceed with the elective dental treatment, avoid pain and intravascular epinephrine
  4. Systolic =180, diastolic >90 ≤99 with a true dental emergency, may be OK to
    proceed with caution
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5
Q

definition of severe HTN and how to manage?

A

systolic 180+ and diastolic 120+

  1. Retake and confirm blood pressure with an alternate device, such as a mercury manometer–type sphygmomanometer.
  2. If the blood pressure is unchanged, consider referring the patient to his/her
    physician or emergency room for evaluation if any symptoms of Hypertensive Emergency.
  3. Typically, no treatment of any type should be undertaken.

**MEDICAL CONSULT VS EMERGENT/ URGENT REFERRAL

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6
Q

** HTN patient rules in the U M OMS clinic

for urgent / emergent tx?
for elective tx?

A

for urgent / emergent tx
- BP must be below 199/114 to be preformed in UMSOD clinic and only in select circumstances

for elective treatment
- BP systolic must be below 160 and diastolic below 100 and ASYMPTOMATIC (not light headed/dizzy/ lethargic)

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7
Q

patient presents with hx if MI.
What questions will you ask?
when would you defer txx?

A

defer tx if MI occurred within the last 2-3 months

more than 3 but less than 6 - typically defer elective tc

over 6 months - typically OK for elective tx BUT must have had a follow up with cardiologist prior

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8
Q

ASA if MI less than 3 months? more than 3 months?

A

more than 3 = ASA III

less than 3 motnhs automatic ASA IV

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9
Q

patient presents with agina
what to ask?
how to manage?
when to defer?

A

When does s/he feel the chest pain
At rest ?
On exertion?

How often does s/he feel the chest pain
How does the chest pain resolve?
-Spontaneously or with medications (nitroglycerin, aspirin, etc)

Does the patient have the medication for the chest pain relieve? Is it present? Has it expired?
When was the last episode?

if episode is in last week or occurs often then needs a med consult if not under active care from cardiologist or unstable

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10
Q

patient presents with CHF
questions to ask and
how to manage?
what do you have to request in a med consult?

A

Ask patient how active he/she is.
Flights of stairs without shortness of breaths? Exercise tolerance? Sleeps flat or upright?

  • usually will require a med consult to request the following
    1. is it systolic or diastolic failure
  • note the EJECTION FRACTION in systolic failure will be decreased

determine the drugs being used and the dosages

requests recommendations from cardiologist for procedures and plan to avoid epinephrine

no more than 0.04 mg

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11
Q

ejection fraction in terms of systolic vs diastolic heart failure

formula for EF and SV?

A

EF = stroke volume / EDV (end diastolic volume)
this determines how efficient the ventricle is at emptying itself or % of EDV that is moved out of ventricle

SV = EDV - ESV (ESV is approximately 50 mL and EDV is approximately 120mL, giving a difference of 70 mL for the stroke volume.)

in systolic heart failure — the ejection fraction

Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF), also called systolic failure: The left ventricle loses its ability to contract normally. The heart can’t pump with enough force to push enough blood into circulation.
Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF), also called diastolic failure (or diastolic dysfunction): The left ventricle loses its ability to relax normally (because the muscle has become stiff). The heart can’t properly fill with blood during the resting period between each beat.

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12
Q

patient presents with aFib?
questions and management

continue or discontinue drug?
include PT/ INR levels

A

ask if pt is taking a blood thinner
- if not ask why that is at it is likely a problem

DO NOT DISCONTINUE IF the blood thinner if it is not patients physician recommendation

warfarin need to request 24-48 hours ma prior to the surgery
get PT/ INR

PT/INR below 3.5 = can usually proceed with extraction of up to 3 teeth

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13
Q

normal PT, PTT and INR values

A
PT= 10-12 seconds
PTT = 20-45 seconds

PT/ INR for warfarin patients is usually 2-3

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14
Q

general management tips for active cardiovascular patients

A
  1. use anxiety reducing protocol
  2. consider nitrous oxide
  3. consider no epi use or the smallest amount of epi needed for profound anesthesia (max 0.04 mg/ epi/adult/ day)
  4. aspirate before injecting
  5. ensure profound anesthesia
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15
Q

no extraction if active cardio disease if?

A
  1. MI less than 2 months
  2. decompensated CHF
  3. acute coronary syndromes
  4. systolic over 180 and diastolic over 110
  5. severe valvular disease
  6. severe arrythmia
  7. INr over 3.5
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16
Q

major basic difference between 1:50,000 epi and 1:200,000 epi?

A

1: 50,000 epi has MORE concentration of epi in 1.7 mL of lidocaine
1: 200,000 epi has LESS concentration of epi

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17
Q

amount of epi in?
1 carpules of 1:50
1:100
1:200?

A

1: 50
0. 034 mg epi

1: 100
0. 017 mg

1: 200
0. 0085 mg

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18
Q

amount of epi in?
2 carpules of 1:50
1:100
1:200?

A

1:50
.068

1: 100
0. 034

1: 200
0. 017

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19
Q

amount of epi in?
4 carpules of 1:50
1:100
1:200?

A

1:50
.136 epi

1:100
.068 mg epi

1: 200
0. 034

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20
Q

when does patient have to use antibiotic prophylaxis

A
  1. artificial / prosthetic heart valve
  2. hx of infective endocarditis
  3. crdio valvulopathy with regurg
  4. patient have serious heart condition present from birth (congenital) including
    - unrepaired or incompletely repaired
    cyanotic congenital heart disease, including those with palliative shunts and
    conduits
    a completely repaired congenital heart defect with prosthetic material or device, whether placed by surgery or by catheter intervention, during the first six months
    after the procedure
    any repaired congenital heart defect with residual defect at the site or adjacent to the site of a prosthetic patch or a prosthetic device
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21
Q

antibiotic prohy with mitral valve prolapse?

A

if invasive and confirmed murmer = yes

if presence not determined but need for procedure is urgent = yes

(lack of significant mitral regurgitation makes prophylaxis unnecessary )

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22
Q

when to take the antiobotic prophylaxis?

A

30-60 minutes before procedure

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23
Q

antibiotic if able to take oral med?
dose in adult?
child?

A

amoxicillin

adult 2g
so 250-500 mg qid

child 50 mg/ kg

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24
Q

patient cant take oral meds? rx for prophy?

A

ampicillin
2g IM / IV
child = 50mg/kg IM IV

OR
cefazolin/ ceftrixone
1g IM/IV
child = 50 mg IM/ IV

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25
Q

medication and dose if patient allergic to penicillin?

dose for prophylaxis adult and child

A

clindamycin
600 mg

child
20 mg/kg

OR azithromycin or clarithromycin 500 mg
child = 15 mg/kg

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26
Q

questions to ask patient with pulmonary diseases?

A
Frequency & severity
When was last attack?
When was the last  hospitalization?
Current Medications
Ask for response to pain  medications
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27
Q

asthma LA contraindicated? nitrous?

A

No, nitrous not contraindicated for mild and moderate asthma

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28
Q

COPD LA contraindicated? nitrous?

A

LA no contraindication

nitrous – No for unknown status or severe COPD due to risk of pneumothorax
Use semi-supine position or upright position

always take initial Sp)@ as a reference of severity of COPD

caution with oxygen administration and keep SpO2 between 88-92% and use only if necessary

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29
Q

pulmonary emphysema

considerations

A

Oxygen dependent – use wall-oxygen during the procedure

Upright or semi-supine position

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30
Q

SpO2 levels

A

above 95% considered normal

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31
Q

suspect kidney disease if?

med consult for?

A

if patient has long term uncontrolled hypertension and diabetes

med consult for creatine clearance and medication dose adjustment

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32
Q

avoid what drugs in renal insufficiency

A

avoidance of drugs that depend on renal metabolism or excretion

avoid the use of nephrotoxic drugs sucj as NSAIDs

  • like aspirin
  • ibuprofin (advil, motrin)
  • naproxen (aleve)
33
Q

major concerns in liver disease

A
  1. bleeding

2. post-op pain managment

34
Q

liver is involved in?

A
  1. synthesis of coagulation factors

2. drug metabolism

35
Q

severe liver damage usually from what 3 top things?

A
  1. infectious disease (HepB/C)
  2. alcohol abuse – cirrhosis
  3. vascualr / biliary congestion
36
Q

management of patient with hepatic insufficiency

in patients with severe disease screen for?

A

attempt to learn the cause
- if it is hep B - then take the necessary precautions

avoid drugs that require hepatic metabolism

screen for bleeding disorders by using tests for determining platelet count, prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and bleeding time

37
Q

NSAID list
max dose?
indications?
not recommended in?

A
  1. ibuprofen
    max dose = 3200 mg day
    (OTC 1200 mg/day due to fillers in them)
  2. naproxen
    1250 mg/day
  3. Diclofenac
    150 mg/day
  4. ketorolac tromethamine *RX only
    40 mg/day

*use with caution - only short term with cardiovasucalr and kidney disease - doses subjected to renal dysfunction severity

38
Q

ibuprofen RX?

over the counter?

A

OTC 200 mg 1-2 tab q4-6 hr

rx
600 mg q4-6 hr
800 mg TID

Ibuprofen 600mg
Disp: 28 tabs
Sig: 1 tab PO q6h, PRN pain with food.
(Available also as 800mg q8h prn pain with food)

39
Q

nproxen dose

A

250-500 mg BID

1250 mg/day

40
Q

diclofenac rx

A

rx only
35 mg TID

diclo potass
50 mg BID or TID

diclo sodium
50 mg BID or TID

150mg/day

41
Q

ketolorac tromethamine indication

dosing?

A

ONLY after IV or IM dosing

10 mg/ TID or QID
40mg/day

potent analgesic for post extraction pain.
no more than 5 days

42
Q

selective NSAID and dosing?

A

Celecoxib
rx only
200 mg BID

400 mg /day

NOT recommended in cardiac disease patients

43
Q

acetaminophen OTC dosing and max

dose adjustment in?

A

500 mg / QID
1000 mg/tab BID

4000 mg/day

doses adjustment in liver disease patients is subjected to hepatic dysfunction status

44
Q

opiod analgesic prescribing more than 3 days requires?

A

review of opiod history of the patient by using MAPS

45
Q
Acetaminophen with codeine
access?
dose?
max dose?
indication?

considerations in liver or kidney disease?

A

schedule III - RX only

acetaminophen / codeine:
300mg/15mg (tylenol #2)
300mg/30mg (#3)
300mg/60mg (#4)

15-60 mg codeine dose q4-6 hour

max acetaminophen dose is 4000mg / day
max codeine dose is 360mg/day

for moderate to severe pain

liver = not recommended in severe disease states
as it is not converted to morphine - leading to poor analgesia
(as it is metaboized by the liver)

kidney = not recommended due to acccumulation
(as it is excreted by the kidneys)

46
Q
acetaminophen with hydrocone is?
access?
dose?
max dose?
indication?

considerations in liver or kidney disease?

A

Norco (like vicodin)
5/325 (hydrocodone 5mg/acetaminophen 325mg
Disp: 12 (twelve) tabs
Sig: 1 tab PO q4-6h, PRN pain.Do not take with ETOH

indicated for severe pain and is a schedule II drug

47
Q

acetaminophen with oxycodone is?

Rx?

A

percocet
Percocet (oxycodone 5mg/ acetaminophen 325mg)
Disp: 12 (twelve) tabs
Sig: 1 tab PO q4-6h, PRN pain. Do not exceed 8 tabs within 24hrs. Do not take with ETOH

schedulel II - rx only

indicated for severe pain
liver disease - dose adjustment is 1/2 to 1/3 orginal

48
Q

morphine not recommended in?

A

kidney disease patients due to metabolites

as clearance is decreased in liver failure - so there is an accumulation of metabolites

49
Q

morphine dose and max

indication?
class?
caution in?

A

schedule II - rx only

15-30 mg q4-6 hrs
1600mg/day

for severe or chronic pain

dose adjustments in liver
not recommended in kidney

50
Q

tramadol rx?
class?
indication?
caution in?

A

Tramadol 50mg
Disp: 12 (twelve) tabs
Sig: 1 tab PO q4-6hrs, PRN pain

schedule IV drug - rx only
max =400 mg/day
for moderatley severe pain

not recommended in liver disease tht is moderate to severe

dose adjustments needed in kidney disease

51
Q

P.O means?

A

oral route of administration

52
Q
subcutaneous abbrev?
intramuscular?
Intravenous?
Intraperitoneal?
Intrathecal?
A
SC/SQ
IM
IV
IP
IT (intrathecal - around the spinal cord)
53
Q

normal blood glucose levels

A

A blood sugar level less than 140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L) is normal. A reading of more than 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) after two hours indicates diabetes. A reading between 140 and 199 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L and 11.0 mmol/L) indicates prediabetes

54
Q

BG levels less than 70 mg/dL?

A

provide oral glucose prior to procedure

emergency / LOC give IM glucagon

55
Q

fasting or post prandial BG levels to consider delaying elective tx?

A

BG levels above 180 or 230 post prandial (meal)

56
Q

BG levels 200+ to 400 consider

A

consider slide scale patient adminstered dose of own insulin if indicated under supervision of faculty

57
Q

BG levels above 400 consider

A

no elective tx

emergent tx for infection in the hospital

58
Q

avoid prescribing what basic drug with patients that have bleeding disorders?

A

avoid prescribing nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

59
Q

antifibrinolytics

A

Antifibrinolytics are medicines that promote blood clotting by preventing or slowing down a process called fibrinolysis, which is the break down of blood clots. Antifibrinolytics are used as a treatment for hemophilia, in surgical procedures to prevent excessive blood loss, and for heavy menstrual bleeding

60
Q

blood tests in hemophelia

A
normal PT (as the extrinsic pathway is not affected) 
normal bleeding time and platalet because platalets not affected in this disease 

*prolonged PTT because extrinsic factors are affected
hemophelia A = factor VIII
hemophelia B= IX factor deficiency

61
Q

main uses for anticoagulants

A

DVT, PE, aFib, stroke, etc

62
Q

vitamin K antagonists
name?
lab test?
surgery?

A

warfarin (coumadin)

PT/INR within 24 hours to surgery

if PT/ INR is below 3.5 may proceed

63
Q

low molecular weight heparins
name?
lab test?
surgery?

A

dalteparin (Fragmin)
Enoxaparin (Lovenox)

lab tests not needed and may proceed with surgery

64
Q

direct thrombin inhibitors
name?
lab test?
surgery?

A

dabigatran (pradaxa)
lab tests not needed and can proceed with surgery

thrombin is an enzyme in blood plasma which causes the clotting of blood by converting fibrinogen to fibrin

65
Q

factor Xa inhibitors

what is factor Xa?

A

activates prothrombin to thrombin
thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin to cause a clot
so can use this agent to inhibit the clotting

apixaban (eliquis)
rivaroxaban (Xarelto)

66
Q

antiplatalet or platalet aggregation inhibitor use?
names?
lab test?
surgery?

A

used for CAD, heart attack, stroke, DVT

aspirin 81 mg
Clopidogrel (plavix)
ticagrelor (brilinta)

lab tests not needed and may proceed with surgery

67
Q

drugs not to be used on pregnant patients?

LA?

A
no nitrous (N2O)
no NSAIDs 

limit epi or no epi and follow the OBGYN clearance / info

consider prilocaine - plain if available - category B but also short duration and risk of methemoglobinemia)

68
Q

If a patient mentions in the list of current medication the following 2 meds, ALWAYS ask what is the reason he/she is taking it.

A

suboxone (buprenorphine)

methadone

69
Q

suboxone use

A

buprenorphine for opiod addiction

70
Q

methadone use

A

heroin and opiod addiction

71
Q

What to do prior to the procedure in patient who is on suboxone or methadon?
cocaine?

A

Discuss with the patient the pain management
If the patient reports not be able to handle post- op pain with NSAIDS
Medical consultation to inform physician about the surgical procedure and the possible post-op pain level

  • do not use epinephrine if a patient has consumed cocaine in the last 24 hours
    postpone the procedure
72
Q

advise patient to bite down for how long after extraction?

A

for at least 30 minutes

73
Q

Oral antral communication protocol if less than 2mm?

A

no surgical tx

blood clot and sinus precautions +/- medications

74
Q
Oral antral communication sinus precaution medications
antibiotic?
pain?
decongestant?
spray?
A

antibiotic: augmentin 850/125 BID x10 days

decongestant
1. oxymethazoline (aphrine nasal spray) 2 sprays in each nostril BID
do not exceed 2 doses in 24-hour period. use for 3 days
2. pseudoephedrine 240 mg/day for 10 days

saline nasal spray -two puffs in each nostril 6 times per day

75
Q

Oral antral communication protocol if 3-6mm?

A

clot-promoting substances (Gelfoam)
figure of eight suture
medications
sinus precautions

76
Q

Oral antral communication protocol if over 7mm?

A

surgical flap repair
sinus precautions
medications

77
Q

Afrin/ Oxymetazoline Hydrochloride % and use with the rx

A

Afrin/ Oxymetazoline Hydrochloride 0.05%
Disp: 15mL bottle
Sig: Spray into both nares twice a day for 3 days.

used in OAC protocol
use in OAC’s that are above 3

78
Q

cimetidine?

implication?

A

cimetidine is a histamine H2 receptor blocker
- decreasing acid made in the stomach

  • has been shown to significantly reduce the metabolic clearance of amide local anesthetics through the liver
  • interaction could occur with LA leading to toxic doses
  • however at therapeutic levels of LA this interaction is unlikely but noteable