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767 > OMB/Limitations > Flashcards

OMB/Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Aeroplane dimensions

A

W 156’ (47.57m)
H 52’ (15.85m)
L nose to tail 159’ (48.51m)

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2
Q

No SG for fuel

A

SG 0.78 should be used

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3
Q

B767 type of operation

A

VFR
IFR
Icing conditions

Min crew Pilot and co-pilot

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4
Q

767 Performance category

A

A

Assumed one engine inoperative cruise speed 400kts.

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5
Q

Main deck cargo door operation

A

Operation 40kts
Open 60kts

Lower cargo door 40kts

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6
Q

Cabin differential

A

Max 9.1psi
Max during climb 8.6 +/- 0.10psi
Max for T/O and LND 0.125psi

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7
Q

A/P engaged

A

Not below 400’

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8
Q

Disengage
APP V/S
APP ILS

A

300’ ARTE

180’ ARTE

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9
Q

Auto land

A

All Engines

HW 25kts XW 25kts TWC 15kts

3.1-2.5 degree GS

F25/30

3 HYD SYS

2 GEN SYS (APU May be used)

IRS in NAV

2 AP and LAND 2 or LAND 3 at and below 600’

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10
Q

Starter duty cycle

A

5 min on followed by 1/2 min off per min on

2x consecutive on req 10min cooling

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11
Q

Engine warm up

A

3 mins prior to departure

70% N1 before full power.

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12
Q

Lower EICAS display

A

Should not be blanked during T/O

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13
Q

ENG RPM limits

A

N1 117.5

N2 110.5

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14
Q

EGT limits

A

T/O 940
Max cont. 895
Start GND/FLT 870 transient 40sec
750 unlimited

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15
Q

ENG oil

A

Min 10psi
Min 160
Max 15min 175

Dispatch 17 Quarts

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16
Q

Max Fuel temp

A

49 deg C

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17
Q

Min fuel Temp

A

-45 or 3 deg above freezing point

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18
Q

Max Fuel

A

L/R main 43097

Centre 32376

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19
Q

Max allowable Fuel imbalance L/R

A

2500lbs 48000lbs or less

1500lbs above 79800lbs

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20
Q

Speed brakes

A

> F5 should be avoided and not below 1000’

Can be used to F20

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21
Q

Flap speeds

A 
1       240kts
5      220kts
15     210kts 
20    195kts
25    190kts
30    162kts
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22
Q

T/O flap

A

1,5,15,20

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23
Q

Landing Gear Retract

A

270

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24
Q

Landing Gear

A

Retract 270/0.82

Extend nml 270/0.82

Extended nml 270/0.82

Extend alt 250/0.75

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25
Q

Oxygen

A

Min psi for recharging by engineering 1200psi, provides 30 mins O2 for ALL seats 100%.

2 hrs at 25000’ smoke/fumes event

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26
Q

Start Valve open min duct psi

A

21psi

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27
Q

Start Aborts

A

ENG oil psi light not extinguished idle

No EGT 25secs.

No N1 rotation in 30secs. (N2 stabilised)

EGT rapid or limit

Tailpipe fire

Abnormal acceleration

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28
Q

Taxi technique speeds

A

Recommend 20kts

Max 30kts DHL

90 deg turn 10kts.

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29
Q

180 deg turn

A

39.3m

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30
Q

T/O procedure rotation and target SPD

A

At Vr 2-2 1/2 deg/sec toward 15 deg.

V2 + 20 to 1000’

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31
Q

Low level Alt CAP suggested call

A

CLB thrust
VREF 30+80
SPD mode.

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32
Q

Min speeds FL200 below and FL200 +

A

VREF 30+80

VREF 30+100

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33
Q

Max rate CLB

A

F up manoeuvre SPD + 50kts until intc 0.78

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34
Q

Cruise speed

A

ECON

Less than 1 hr 290kts or 0.78 whichever is lower

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35
Q

Map integrity and Fuel checks

A

As soon as practical after TOC and hourly until TOD

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36
Q

Des speeds

A

0.78/290 FL100/10000’

Below 10000’ 250kts.

37
Q

Auto brakes

A

1/2 normal
3/4 wet or slippery or auto land.
Max when stopping dist req.

38
Q

AT manual THR landing speed bug

A

VREF 30 + 5 min. Max 15

Any TWC VREF 30 + 5 max

39
Q

Rushed approaches.

A

ROD not exceed 3000fpm with 3000’ of MSA

Aircraft should be on a 3 deg slope by 15nm from TD

ROD for 3 deg slope is 1/2 GS x 10

40
Q

AP use busy departures TMA or PRNAV

A

Must be engaged ASAP after passing 1000’

41
Q

NML 2 ENG CLB SPD

A

V2 + 15-25

42
Q

NPA limits

A

No part of the aircraft below MDA

LNAV maybe used if extracted from FMC otherwise HDG sel.

In marginal conditions CPT PF

Add 50’ to NPA minima

43
Q

Circling APP

A

CAT C 4.2nm
Wings level by 300’

Lost VIS make an initial CLB turn towards the Aerodrome OH, followed by a turn as req to establish on the MAP procedure.

44
Q

LVO CAT II/IIIA/IIIB and T/O min.

A

CAT II RVR 300 DH 100

CAT IIIA RVR 200 DH 50

CAT IIIB RVR 75 DH 0

Take off 150m

45
Q

VIS < 1000m or rain min AUTO BRAKE

A

3

46
Q

Autoland CAT I, II, IIIA equipment?

IIIB additional

A

RHS ASA

2 EADIs from separate symbol generators

3 HYD SYS

2 IDGs one maybe APU

CPT Stab trim

IIIB
2 EADIs from L/R SYMB GEN
Rudder pedal NWS
Atobrakes
RAD alt 0
47
Q

Approach Ban

A

The approach shall be discontinued at 1000’ AAL. If TDZ RVR is not reported, mid point may be substituted at certain Aerodromes.

48
Q

ENG Failure CAT II/III

A

If prior to selection of LND FLAP GA

> 200’RA DH 50 200m
<200’RA DH 0

49
Q

LVO VIS ref requirements

A

CAT PAR NPA any 1 of many vis clues

CAT II 3 consecutive lights + lateral element

CAT IIIA 3 consecutive lights

CAT IIIB zero

50
Q

Auto throttle failure after AUTOLAND 3

A

Control manually idle at 45’

51
Q

Autobrake NWS failure RVR min

A

200-125-75

52
Q

Narrow RWY operations

A

Less than 45m

Min 28

XW 25 dry 18 wet

No autoland

CPT only

53
Q

Run up to a min ____ for approx ____ duration are intervals of ____ mins

A

60% N1 30sec 30 min

54
Q

ENG run up required when?

A

EAI is req OAT 3deg

55
Q

Max motoring definition

A

N2 acc less than 1% in approx 5 secs

56
Q

Weather radar monitoring technique

A

PM 160nm

PF 80nm

57
Q

WX/TS and T avoidance

A

20nm Above FL200 and 5-10nm below FL200

Avoid single magenta areas of T not associated with precipitation by at lease 5nm

58
Q

EAI fuel consumption

A

EAI only 200lbs/hr

EAI and WAI 310lbs/hr

59
Q

Lido/mPilot yellow exclamation mark

A

May continue if cycle will be valid for the remainder of flight.

60
Q

Lido/mPilot red X

A

EFB may not be used.

61
Q

Circuit breaker policy

A

Maybe rest after a short cooling period of 2 mins at CPT discretion or by the direction of a checklist

Tripped fuel pump breakers are NOT to be reset.

62
Q

STD engine failure procedure

A

Aircraft can CLB unrestricted straight ahead to 1500’

63
Q

NON STD engine failure procedure

A

Unable to CLB unrestricted to 1500’

V2 CLB max bank angle 15deg

Lateral TRK must be flown accurately

64
Q

ENG failure after V1 target pitch attitude

A

12.5 deg

65
Q

ENG failure at altitude

A

Trim
Disconnect AT
Sel CON TMSP
Set CON manually

QRH

66
Q

Damp runway

A

Moisture does not give shiny appearance

67
Q

Wet runway

A

Covered less than 3mm. Reflective appearance.

68
Q

Contaminated runway

A

More than 25% of the surface covered

69
Q

Max tyre SPD

A

225mph

70
Q

Max reduced thrust assumed temp

A

25%

71
Q

Assumed temp thrust not allowed when?

A

Anti skid inop
Snow, slush or standing water
Potential windshear

72
Q

Net takeoff flight path must?

A

Clear all obstacles by the req margin
Clean up to the en route configuration
Maintain prescribed min climb gradients

73
Q

4 segment profile

A

1st gear up

2nd CLB to min flap retraction

3rd acc to flaps up

4 final CLB to 1500’

74
Q

Single ENG CLB gradient

A

2.4%

75
Q

Screen height wet___ dry___

A

15’ 35’

76
Q

Flight planning dry runway landing

A

Full stop LND from 50’ above RWY threshold within 60% of LDA no reverse max manual braking.

77
Q

Flight planning wet runway

A

LDA at least 115% of req landing dist cal for dry RWY

78
Q

App CLB limit gradient

A

2.1% under all the following

Crit ENG inop
Live ENG at GA THR
Gear up
SPD not greater than 1.4 x Vsr

79
Q

Guideline nml LND F30 below 280000lbs 3000’AMSL ISA +30 autobrake 2 any runway longer than______’ is adequate

A

9000’

80
Q

Max total main deck load

A

94000lbs

81
Q

One fitting main deck barrier fitting damaged max payload?

Two fittings damaged?

A

56400lbs

0

82
Q

Departure without load sheet?

A

Not allowed and station copies must be retained for 3 months

Must be computer generated or not allowed.

83
Q

Quick turn around limit specifies?

A

Max landing masses at F25/30 at least 58 mins must elapse from the time the aircraft comes to a complete stop before a T/O can commence.

84
Q

Contaminated and slippery runway performance data is?

A

Advisory and should be avoided

85
Q

Slippery runway landing

A

Both reversers and FULL braking must be available

86
Q

TOW change more than _____ lbs a new OFP should be requested.

A

11000lbs

87
Q

Rudder ratio XW limit

A

15kts

88
Q

Main Cargo door warning. Alt limit _____ ‘

A

10000

89
Q

C HYD SYS QTY and C HYD SYS PRESS EICAS.

Don’t? Otherwise expect?

A

Retract the gear or flaps on DEP. keep speed 220Kts

Gear disagree and flap disagree EICAS

767 (9 decks)

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