OMB Flashcards
1
Q
What document takes precedence over all others?
A
OFP - NOTAM, CREW BULLETIN, CREW ALERTS
2
Q
What is the maximum bank angle in normal circumstances?
A
30 Degrees
3
Q
Take off is not permitted on what runway conditions?
A
Wet Ice
Water on compacted snow
Dry or Wet Snow over Ice
4
Q
The RWYCC is 0, can you land or take off?
A
No
5
Q
What is the minimum cleared/treated width of a runway?
A
30m
6
Q
What technical limitations will prohibit single engine ops for taxi?
A
Hydraulic
Elec - Gen 1/Apu Gen
Bleed - Eng 1 bleed, APU bleed
Air Con - Pack 1
L/G - NWS, Brakes
7
Q
What are the operational limitations that will prohibit single engine ops for taxi?
A
LVPs
Power Push
Less than 3min warmup/cooldown
8
Q
What are the f/o*** limitations?
A
20kts
550m RVR
ILS Cat 1
NPA Minima
Circling 5km vis
45m runway
no contamination
no windshear
no tailwind
no autoland (normal ops)
9
Q
When do you need to perform a RAIM check?
A
For RNP AR approaches
10
Q
When do you need to perform a battery check?
A
When the aircraft has not been electrically supplied for 6hrs or merry
11
Q
What does the battery voltage of 25.5v or above ensure?
A
Ensures a charge above 50%
12
Q
What is the minimum charge from the batteries for the APU Fire Test and APU Start?
A
50% which equates to 25.5v
13
Q
If the battery voltage is 25.5v how long is the battery charging cycle?
A
Around 20mins
14
Q
How do you perform the battery charge cycle?
A
Set the batteries to AUTO, check the elec page to ensure that battery contacts are closed and the batteries are charging. After 20mins check the batteries again by turning them off to see if they are above 25.5v
15
Q
You will be starting the APU on batteries only. What is the maximum time you should wait before turning the APU on?
A
30mins, as the batteries would have run down. After 35 mins from the batteries being selected to AUTO the charge is only approx 25% of max capacity.
16
Q
What is the maximum time to press the APU test PB?
A
3 seconds as any longer than this the APU Extinguisher may discharge.
17
Q
How long should you wait after selecting the APU Master to on before starting the APU?
A
3 seconds
18
Q
Why is the APU bleed left off for 1 minute after APU starts?
A
To help to allow thermal stabilisation of the APU to help prevent failures
19
Q
What is the full range of the zone controllers for temperature control?
A
18-30 degrees
20
Q
When must you perform a full IRS alignment??
A
First flight of the day
Crew Change
GPS not available and nav aid coverage is poor on route
GPS not available and the flight time exceeds 3hrs
21
Q
When is a fast alignment necessary?
A
If a full alignment does not need to perform and the drift is at or above 5nm
22
Q
What safety equipment is checked in the flight deck?
A
10 Items:
Life Jacket
Axe
Gloves
Extinguisher
ELT
Ropes
Smoke Hood
OXY Masks
TORCH
First aid kit
23
Q
NEO engines do not have fan keys, what do they have?
A
ECAM Alert - FAN COWL NOT CLOSED
24
Q
Each aircraft now has its own iPad. What needs to be checked?
A
Flight mode
Battery above 80%
It is there…
25
Regarding the EFF, what needs to be checked between crew?
OFP
LIDO
Flysmart+
26
Why do we press the RCL for 3 seconds or more?
To recall any emer cancelled warnings or cleared ones from the previous flight
27
You see the OXY Box is in amber. What do you do?
Check FCOM LIMITATIONS for required oxygen
28
What are you checking on the HYD page?
That the hydraulic fluid is in the normal operating range and if not calling MOC to see if a service is required.
29
What is the oil required for a ceo?
9.5qts + 0.5qts per flight hour
30
What is the minimum oil required for a NEO engine?
10.6qts or 8.9+0.5qts per flight hour, which ever is greater
31
When do you record taxi in time into the tech log?
When OAT is less than +3degrees
32
What is required from the crew for A/C Acceptance to be completed?
ECAM recall
HYD
DOOR OXY
ENG OIL
TECH LOG
MEL/CDL
EQRH REGISTRATION
EQRH CONFIG SUMMARY
SECTOR STRIP completed
33
Does AFT or FORWARD C of G provide best performance?
Aft
34
You calculate RTOW but discover that it is lower than your planned TOW. What can you do?
Try optimum config, choose another runway, or fuel replanning according to OMA and OPS
35
When must you perform a RLDW calculation?
When the runway is contaminated or if the flight crew cannot ensure that RLDW is not limited by maximum structural landing weight
36
What are the requirements for A/C Acceptance?
*ECAM RCL pb PRESS 3 s
*ECAM OXY PRESS CHECK
*ECAM HYD QTY CHECK
*ECAM ENG OIL QTY CHECK
TECHNICAL LOG AND MEL/CDL ITEMS CHECK
AIRCRAFT SELECTION (eQRH) CROSSCHECK
OEB CHECK
AIRCRAFT CONFIGURATION SUMMARY CHECK
37
Does the park brake have to be on before the walk around?
Yes, in order to check the brake wear indicators
38
What passenger load requires the Pack Flow to be set to low?
A319/320 - Less than 130
A321 - Less than 160
39
When is "HI Flow" automatically selected?
If the APU is supplying bleed air, regardless of switch position
40
What are you looking for when performing the ELEC BAT Check?
10seconds after turning batteries back on the charge of the battery is 60amps and decreasing
41
If the date is incorrect on the internal clock, what do you do?
Set the date manually and then leave the clock switch on internal (INT) for the entire flight
42
What is the default Idle factor?
-3.5
43
When is navaid deselection not required?
When GPS Primary
44
How are the characteristic speeds displayed on the MCDU calculated?
Computed from the ZFW and ZFCG entered by MCDU.
45
What are the maximum differences between the altimeters?
±20 ft between both PFDs
±100 ft between ISIS and PFDs
Check that the difference between each altitude indication (in the QNH reference) displayed on PFDs and the airport elevation is less than 75 ft.
46
What are the fuel discrepancy limits after refuelling?
<6 = 400
>6<12 = 500
>12 = 600
47
What is the maximum difference in flex between PF and PM?
1 Degree
48
What is the maximum difference in Speeds between PF and PM?
1kt
49
What do you say to PAX if there is Low Vis?
“Due to low visibility conditions, it is a requirement that all Portable Electronic Devices are switched off until after takeoff”.
50
If the ground crew confirms the pin is installed and the NWS disconnect does not display on the memo what should you do?
Push back but do not start engines in order to avoid gear damage when the yellow system pressurises. Check the MEL for dispatch items.
51
What should you do in the event of a Shear Pin Failure during pushback?
1) If the pushback stops immediately after failure of the shear pin, inspection is not necessary.
2) The nose gear must be inspected if after the failure of a towbar shear pin (during the forward or rearward towing) with subsequent separation and overrun of the towbar by the aircraft, or Push-turn operations, when the towbar arm touches the tractor after a failure of the turning towbar shear pin only.
52
How many KGs of fuel is saved per OETD?
30kgs approx
53
The ground crew report a fuel leak during the engine start, what do you do?
Run engine at idle for 5 mins
If leak disappears after 5 mins then aircraft can be dispatched without maintenance action, if not, call MOC and shutdown the engine.
54
The engine does not start at the first attempt, what do you do?
Leave it, FADEC automatically manages additional attempts
55
During the engine start sequence you get an ECAM - ENG 1(2) START FAULT. What do you do?
Do the ECAM and then refer to the FCOM for additional guidance.
56
What are the conditions that have to be met before the engine master switch can be turned on?
All AMBER crosses and messages have disappeared on the EWD and Engine SD page
57
Approximately how long will DRY CRANKING on a NEO last?
May last up to 1 minute
58
What is the N2% limit when dry cranking?
30%
59
You lose electrical power during the start sequence - what do you do?
Abort start and perform a dry crank for 30 seconds.
60
What is the CEO start sequence?
16% Igniter A/B activates
22% Fuel Flow increases
50% Start valve closes
Igniter Off
61
What is the NEO start sequence?
>20% Igniter starts (when dry cranking finished)
>20% FF Increases
55% Igniter off
63% Start valve closes
62
How many seconds after the second engine started will the pack valve reopen?
30 seconds
63
What temperature must the oil be above for the NEO engine prior to T/O?
19degrees
64
What temperature should you perform ice shedding?
+3degrees or less
65
What is the CEO ice shedding procedure?
Park brake on/or brakes on
70% N1 for 30 seconds at intervals not greater than 30mins
66
What is the NEO ice shedding procedure?
Park/Foot brake on
50% for 5 seconds at intervals not greater than 60mins
If take off not performed within 120mins then an engine inspection is required
67
What happens if you select WING ANTI ICE on ground?
Performs a 30seconds self test and then closes as long as the aircraft is on the ground.
68
You are in icing conditions of slush/snow or freezing rain - what should you think about when taxiing?
Keep flaps retracted until at holding point to prevent contamination of the mechanism.
69
What is the rudder trim tolerance on ground?
±0.3°
70
You perform single engine taxi. When starting the second engine, when the Yellow pump is turned off, you lose NWS, what do you do?
Stop, set parking brake and wait for the second engine to start.
71
When should you set IGN for T/O?
Heavy rain
Heavy Turbulence
Standing water on RWY
72
How long does it take for the WX radar to fill the screen?
Approx 30 seconds
73
How many degrees of flex are required to be reduced if you need anti ice?
5 degrees
74
How much should you reduce flex for a QNH reduction?
1 degree per 2HPA
75
What are the TREF values for the aircraft?
A319 = ISA+30
A320 (CEO/NEO) = ISA+29
A321 = ISA+15
76
IF TREF or OAT temp is reached, what should you do?
Run a new EFB perf
77
What is the max brake temperature for take off?
300degrees
78
You use brake fans before take off, what is the maximum brake temp before take off?
150degrees
79
What is the take-off technique for tail wind or x-wind >20kts?
50%
70% until 15kts then flex or toga by 40kts
80
At what speed is directional control removed from NWS and pedals?
130kts
81
When is a rolling takeoff not permitted?
RWY/OBS limitation or if TOGA
82
What speed does the target become at acceleration altitude?
It will change from V2+10 to First CLB speed (managed or preselected)
83
MAX REC FL in the MCDU PROG Page gives what buffet margin?
0.3g, this can be overridden to a value of 0.2 by the crew.
84
When must you monitor navigation accuracy?
GPS PRIMARY LOST appears on the ND.
IRS only navigation.
The PROG page displays LOW accuracy.
“NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD” appears on the MCDU.
85
How often should you check RVSM tolerances?
once every hour
86
What is the maximum value that VAPP can be increased to for gusty conditions?
VLS+15
87
What speed does EXPD DESCENT give?
340kts or 0.80M
88
How long do the speed brakes take to retract if used above 315kts/M.75?
Around 25 seconds and will display in amber until they are retracted.
89
What is the correct vertical path criteria?
ILS - Within 1 dot g/s
within 3/4dot on V/DEV bar for NPA
PAPI not showing 4 whites or 4 reds
90
When many the PAPI show incorrect indications?
Difference between FAP and PAPI angle
OAT is significantly higher above ISA which may give 4 whites - follow vertical guidance on FMS
91
What is the correct lateral path?
LOC - within 1 dot
XTRK lower than 0.3nm for NPA using FINAL APP
L/DEV within 1RNP for RNP approaches
Within 30 degrees of final approach track for visual or circling
92
What is the stable approach criteria by 1000ft?
Landing config
<+30KTS Vapp
93
What are the stable approach criteria at 500ft?
Correct vertical and lateral path
ROD in line with approach angle
Vapp +10/-5kts
Bank less than 15degrees
Landing checklist complete
94
What config must the visual part of the circling procedure be?
Flaps 3 gear down
95
What are the stable criteria for circling?
BY 400FT:
Landing config
correct lateral and vertical path
Vapp+10/-5kts
Max bank 15 degrees
within 30degrees of Runway final track
Landing checklist done
96
How do you fly a discontinued approach?
Announce "CANCEL APPROACH"
Press APPR PB or LOC PB
Select lateral mode
Select vertical mode (level off or adjust)
Select SPEED and adjust
The flight plan may no longer have a destination
The aircraft will remain in approach phase
97
What's the limitation when selecting a speed below S speed?
Minimum of 180kts or VLS+10
98
Where is the pseudo Decel point?
Approx 15nm from touchdown
99
NAV ACCURACY is low, what must you do on the approach regarding the displays?
At least one display must be on ROSE LS/VOR depending on the approach
100
At what height does the WHEEL SD page appear?
Below 800ft or at gear extension
101
What are the flight parameters for the approach?
Speed
Pitch
Bank
ROD
Speed = +10/-5kts
Pitch = <-2.5 or >+10
Bank = >7degrees
ROD = >1000ft
102
Can Austro AOC fly LTS CAT1 or OTS CAT 1?
NO
103
When can a SA CAT 2 be performed?
Published SA CAT 2 minima are used.
CAT 2, CAT 3 SINGLE or CAT 3 DUAL is displayed on FMA.
At least one AP is coupled for approach and automatic landing.
Required visual references for SA CAT II are identical to standard CAT II.
104
When can a CAT 2 be performed?
Published CAT 2 minima are used.
At least one AP is coupled for approach and automatic landing.
CAT 2, CAT 3 SINGLE or CAT 3 DUAL is displayed on FMA.
The autoland capability has been demonstrated for CAT II and CAT III ILS quality beam.
105
When canCAT III Approach with DH <100 ft to ≥ 50 ft
CAT III fail passive ILS approach can be performed?
Absolute minima are DH 50 feet and RVR 175 m.
At least one AP is coupled for approach and automatic landing.
CAT 3 SINGLE or CAT 3 DUAL is displayed on FMA.
106
When can Category III with DH <50 ft or no DH
CAT III fail operational ILS approach can be performed?
Both AP are coupled for approach, automatic landing and roll-out.
CAT 3 DUAL is displayed on FMA.
If not DH is used the minimum RVR is 75 m.
The autoland capability has been demonstrated for CAT III ILS quality beam.
107
The ECMA and FMA says CAT 3 DUAL but the tech log says it's not available. What takes precedence?
Tech log
108
What limits the approach minimum?
Crew qualification
Aircraft technical status
Airport status
Go Around performance
109
What should you brief as LVOs?
Task sharing and callouts
Management of degraded guidance
Low visibility procedures at the airport
110
You arm both APs for a cat 3 dual approach but CAT1 is displayed. Why?
You may be above 5000ft AGL, once below it should display CAT 3 DUAL
111
What are the flight parameters for an ILS approach?
LOC - 1/2 DOT
G/S - 1/2 DOT
112
You get an untimely flare during an Autoland, what do you do?
Go around or continue visually (if visual) by disconnecting AP and set both FDs to off
113
You are above 1000ft on a LVO, you get an amber caution or landing capability degradation, what do you do?
Complete ECAM
Check approach and landing capability
if required: check RVR/DH and rebrief
If unable to complete by 1000ft go around
114
You are below 1000ft on a LOW VIS approach. When can you disregard a failure?
Any system not monitored by FMGS for FMA landing capability may be disregarded.
115
Below 100ft (Alert Height) the red Autoland light comes on, what do you do?
Not visual - go around
Visual - can complete a manual landing
116
Can we use FLS?
No, not yet
117
Your aircraft has SBAS but SLS is not available, how do you fly the RNP approach?
NAV/FPA, FLS shall not be used. Use L/NAV minima as FINAL APP GUIDANCE is not available
118
What approaches use FINAL APP?
RNP approaches with LNAV or LNAV/VNAV minima.
Conventional approaches based on VOR or NDB using FINAL APP guidance.
119
What equipment is required to start an RNP Approach?
CHECK
120
You are on an approach and want to use FINAL APP, when can you not use it?
Must not be used when the actual OAT is below the minimum temperature indicated on the approach chart, or
Must not be used when temperature corrections are required (FINAL APP mode may not engage).
121
Can you use QRH from a remote station for an RNP approach?
NO
122
On aircraft with FLS, how do you select FINAL APP?
PERF APPR Page, select FINAL APP
123
What is the max difference between chart and MCDU for vertical path?
0.1degrees
124
You see "TOO STEEP PATH" after the FDP, can you use FINAL APP?
No, use NAV/FPA or TRK/FPA
125
What is the max discrepancy between altimeters for a FINAL APP?
100ft
126
When can you arm approach on a NPA?
Cleared
TO waypoint is the FDP
127
The FDP is less than 2nm after the previous fix on a NPA, what can you do?
Arm APPR mode when level at Final Descent Altitude (Alt or Alt Cons) and the FDP arrow is properly sequenced by the FMGC
128
As PM what are you monitoring on a FINAL APP?
XTK error on ND
V/Dev on PFD
Check altitudes crossing at FAF and waypoints on charts
Monitor RAW data
129
What are the parameters for a FINAL APP?
XTK = >0.1NM
V/DEV = >1/2 DOT
130
On a FINAL APP, what does one dot correspond to on the vertical profile?
100ft, and half dot 50ft
131
On an RNP approach, for what deviation below the vertical path would you go around for?
V/DEV >3/4 DOT - Equates to 75ft
132
On an RNP approach you lose GPS Primary on one ND. What do you do?
Continue with the AP on the side that still has GPS Primary
133
On an RNP Approach, you have NAV ACCURACY DOWNGRADE on one FMGS, what do you do?
Switch the AP to the side that still has good NAV ACCURACY
134
What cases would lead to a go around for a FINAL APP type approach?
GPS PRIMARY LOST ON BOTH NDs
XTK >0.3nm
NAV FM/GPS POS DISAGREE on ECAM.
NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD on both FMGS.
135
Before commencing an RNP AR procedure, what do you need to check?
AOC Approval
Crew Qualified
A/C Status - SUMMARY
MEL
RAIM CHECK
136
You will be performing an RNP AR approach, what do you need to check in the descent before the approach?
GPS 1+2 both in NAV mode.
Both need to be available before the IAF otherwise RNP AR is not allowed
Terrain on both NDs unless WX radar is needed on one side
137
During an RNP AR approach, what do you do on the initial approach?
Check RNP value is correct, and if performing an RNP AR approach below 0.3 RNP manually insert it.
Check baro ref - maximum discrepancy between them is 100ft
138
On an RNP approach, what do you do at the INTERMEDIATE/FINAL APPROACH stage?
Ensure that AP is engage (1 is needed for the approach)
Check LDEV is displayed on PFD
Press APPR PB when when cleared for the approach and TO Waypoint is the Final Descent Point
Check Final Arms and that VDEV is displayed on the PFD
When Final App engages set Go-Around Alt
Monitor Prog page
139
What are the flight parameters for and RNP AR approach?
L/DEV >1/2 Dot (1 dot = 0.1nm and full scale deflection is ± 0.2 NM)
V/DEV >1/2 Dot = 50ft
140
On an RNP AR approach, when must you go around?
L/DEV reaches 1RNP (On ND)
V/DEV reaches 3/4 dot below glide (75ft)
141
On an RNP AR approach, BEFORE passing the initial approach fix, you have a system failure. What should you do?
Discontinue the approach, refer to FCOM PRO SPO 51 PBN RNP AR to re-assess the aircraft capability
142
On an RNP AR approach, after passing the IAF, what system failures could you continue with?
The approach may be continued in case of single failure of:
GPS PRIMARY LOST on one ND (use appropriate remaining AP/FD)
NAV ACCURACY DOWNGRADE on one FMGS (use appropriate remaining AP/FD)
GPS (MMR)
FMGS
EFIS DU
MCDU
AP (remaining AP shall be engaged if available)
143
On an RNP AR approach what failures would lead to a go-around after the IAF?
Discontinue the approach in the following cases, if external visual references are not sufficient to proceed visually:
FINAL APP does not engage
Loss of GPWS TERRAIN function in case of inconsistencies affecting obstacles or terrain computation
FM/GPS POSITION DISAGREE
FMS1/FMS2 POS DIFF
GPS PRIMARY LOST on both NDs
Dual NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD
Dual loss of FMGC or dual loss of FINAL APP mode
Dual AP failure if the RNP < 0.3 NM.
144
What is the minimum equipment to start an RNP Approach?
The minimum equipment required to start RNP APCH operations is:
One FMGC
One GPS
Two IRS
One MCDU
One FD
One PFD on the PF side
Two NDs (the temporary display of ND information via the PFD/ND switch is permitted on PM side)
Two FCU channels
145
On an FPA approach what are the flight parameters?
Approach using NAV MODE: XTK > 0.1 nm (ON ND)
Approach using LOC MODE: LOC ½ dot
Approach using TRK MODE:
VOR: ½ dot or 2.5°
NDB: 5°
146
How do you fly a circling approach?
Fly a stabilised approach, at F speed config 3 and Gear Down
100ft above circling minima push to level
turn 45 degrees towards downwind leg and start 30seconds timer when wings level
Turn downwind
activate secondary (be aware Go around is now gone for the instrument approach)
When abeam leg threshold, start timer. 3 seconds per 100ft AAL
Turn downwind (level turn)
AP and FDs off
when established on final descent path take flaps 3 and landing checklist
147
What equipment is needed for an RNAV Visual?
1 FMS.
1 GPS or 2 DME to update FM position.
Additional requirement if indicated on the approach chart.
148
On an RNAV visual, when must you disconnect AP?
At the minimum height of the use of AP according to FCOM for the a/c
149
When is the RETARD call triggered on a manual landing?
20ft
150
On landing, when are the ground spoilers extension inhibited?
Both thrust levers above IDLE detent
or
One thrust lever above idle and one is at idle
151
When must touchdown be achieved?
First 1000m or first 1/3 of the runway which ever is less if there are no runway markings
152
When must you perform a fullstop landing?
At reverse thrust selection
153
On landing, the ground spoilers do not extend. What do you do?
Verify both thrust levers are set to idle or Rev detent
Set both thrust reversers to max and fully press the brakes
154
On a manual landing, will the ground spoilers extend if not armed?
yes, at reverse thrust application.
155
When will the auto brake not engage?
If the ground spoilers do not extend
156
On snow covered grounds when should the reversers be stowed?
25kts
157
On an Autoland, what happens at 350ft?
LAND on FMA, also check ILS course
158
LAND on FMA is a trigger to check what?
ILS course. If it differs from 5degrees on the runway track then an Autoland is not allowed
159
On an Autoland what happens at 40ft?
FLARE on FMA
160
On an Autoland what happens at 30ft?
Thrust comes back to idle
161
On an Autoland what happens at 10ft?
RETARD
162
On an Autoland, at touchdown the NWS or Antiskid fails, what do you do?
Set AP to off at touchdown
163
Why do you need to disengage the AP after rollout on an Autoland?
You wont be able to taxi off the centreline
164
How do you fly a soft go-around?
TOGA then FLX/MCT
165
On a go around on an RNP AR approach, what is needed immediately?
NAV
166
You have both APs on during an approach, during the go around, which AP disengages?
AP2
167
After a go around, how do you prepare for a second approach?
By selecting ACTIVATE APP PHASE on the PERF page
168
Who can fly a baulked landing?
Captain only
169
How do you perform a baulked landing?
TOGA
Adjust pitch to establish a climb away from the ground - de rotate or holding pitch
170
What ECAM can you disregard during a baulked landing?
CONFIG FLAPS NOT IN T/O CONFIG
171
When should you keep the flaps out after landing?
Icing conditions or snow or slush on runway - check them once engines are shutdown
172
To avoid rudder travel limit unit damage, what must you ensure once you park the aircraft?
That the flaps are retracted before you turn of the ADIRS
173
On SETWA aircraft when should you start APU?
1 min before reaching stand
174
On aircraft without SETWA when should you start APU?
If taxi is expected to be greater than 3mins. Delay APU start until 1 min after selection of REV IDLE
175
When does cooling period begin for the engines after landing?
After selection of Idle rev.
176
What is the danger of SETWA?
Losing gen 1 and being in the emer elec config.
You lose NWS, normal brakes.
Stop the aircraft and start the APU
177
After landing you notice the brakes are hot, when is maintenance action needed?
Temp difference between two brakes on one gear is >150 and one of those brakes is above OR below 600
Difference between average temperature of left and right gear is >200degrees
One brake exceeds 900degrees
178
When should you use brake fans?
If temp is expected to exceed 500degrees
Short turn around time
After 5mins or approaching the gate
179
You pull onto stand, and before setting parking brake you notice that the brake indicator is not in the green band, what do you do?
Ensure that chocks are installed before shutdown of engine 1 (Green hydraulic system)
180
On stand, once chocks are in place, the temperature of one brake is above 500degrees (350 with fans on) what do you do?
Release brakes
181
When can you turn off the beacon?
Less than 10% n1
182
When can you turn off the seatbelts?
Main door slides are disarmed on the DOOR page
183
Where can you find the IRS perf graph?
Post flight OMB
184
You find a fuel discrepancy during the post flight, what do you do?
Call maintenance. There may be a fuel leak
185
You are at the end of sector 3 of 4, you notice a MAINTENANCE message on the STATUS page, what do you do?
Check the MEL
Check MEL during transits, and at the end of the day record the message in TECH log
186
How do you inform the next crew of taxi in time in icing conditions?
FOR NEXT CREW: TAXI-IN TIME XX MIN
187
You take over an aircraft and read “FOR NEXT CREW: TAXI-IN TIME XX MIN” what do you write in the action column?
Noted
188
On ground in a hot environment you get this ECAM: “AIR L (R) WING LEAK”, what do you do?
Check OMB post flight
Ensure area is clear
Blimp pump override on
Flaps 1 (slats only extend)
When extended blue pump override off
Select flaps 0 - prevents inadvertent flap deployment if hydraulics are powered
189
You are closing the aircraft at the end of the day - where can you find procedures for adverse weather?
FCOM PRO NOR SUP ADVWXR
190
When can you turn off IR mode selectors?
When passengers have disembarked.
Wait 10seconds before removing a/c electrical supply to ensure last position is memorized
191
When is the APU fully shutdown?
2mins after AVAIL light goes out
AMBER XX displayed on APU page
192
The batteries are off and the APU is running, what protection have you lost on the APU?
Fire extinguishing
193
Regarding standard calls, is it FLAP or FLAPS?
FLAPS GOD DAMN IT!
194
When do you call SPEED on Approach?
-5/+10kt
195
When do you call sink rate on Approach?
>-1000fpm
196
When do you call BANK on approach?
>7degrees
197
When do you call pitch on approach?
Lower than -2.5
Greater than 10 (7.5 on 321)
198
When do you call LOC or GLIDE?
1/2dot
199
When do you call CROSSTRACK?
>0.1nm in FINAL APP
200
When do you call V-DEV?
1/2 dot in FINAL APP
201
When do you call COURSE?
1/2dot VOR
5 Degrees NDB
202
On an RNP AR Approach when do you call LAT-DEV?
L/DEV = 1/2dot
203
On an RNP AR APP when do you call VDEV?
1/2dot
204
On an RNP AR App when do you call BANK?
>30degrees
205
On a go-around when do you call pitch?
>20 up or <10 Up
206
On a go-around when do you call SINK RATE?
If there is no climb
207
What is a steeper angle approach?
Anything between 3.5 and 4.5 degrres
208
What approach is not allowed above 3.5 degrees?
Autoland
CATII/III
209
Can you dispatch with an iPad missing?
Yes, but no less than 2.
210
Away from base, all iPads fail, what do you do?
Check OMB procedure and talk to duty pilot
211
You perform a successful reset, what do you write in TECH LOG?
CREW RESET and what it was, cross out action taken and CRS
212
You perform and unsuccessful reset, what do you do?
Write it in the tech log as an open defect and has to be fixed by maintenance
213
Who do you call after an overwieght landing?
MOC
214
During take off - when is T/O inhibit active?
80kt to 1500ft or 2min after liftoff
215
What are the uninhibited ECAM cautions above 100kt?
F/CTL SIDESTICK FAULT
ENG FAIL
ENG REVERSE FAULT
ENG REVERSE UNLOCKED
ENG 1(2) THR LEVER FAULT
216
Above 100kt during the take off roll you exceed the EGT REDLINE, what do you do?
It should not result in a RTO
217
Your tyre fails between V1 and V1-20ft, what may you consider?
Continue
218
When does the DECEL light come on?
80% of decel rate
219
You reject the takeoff prior to 72kts, what wont happen?
No spoilers
220
You come to a complete stop with AUTOBRAKE MAX, how can you taxi?
Disarm ground spoilers
221
When should you vacate the runway after an RTO or emergency on landing?
When it is clear that no EVAC is required
222
During an emergency EVAC are the agents required to be discharged?
Only if there are positive signs of fire
223
What ECAM must be relied on regarding pressure?
CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT
It can be triggered by a cabin pressure sensor different from the one on the SD
224
How do you deactivate the mask mic after using the oxy mask?
Close the left door
225
After an emergency descent how do you let the CC know it is safe to move around?
SCCM Alert call
226
What is the TCAS ALERT PREVENTION FUNCTION?
Limits the final 2000ft of a climb to 1500fpm
227
What do you say passing 2000ft for a planned emergency landing?
Cabin Crew Take Up Landing Positions
228
What do you say at 500ft for an emergency landing?
BRACE BRACE
229
An unplanned emergency landing is imminent, what do you say?
Attention crew BRACE BRACE
230
What does the captain do in the event of an EVAC?
Last person to leave FD
Last person to leave cabin
EVAC via rear door
Takes control on the ground until emergency services arrive
