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command study > OMB > Flashcards

OMB Flashcards

1
Q

What document takes precedence over all others?

A

OFP - NOTAM, CREW BULLETIN, CREW ALERTS

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2
Q

What is the maximum bank angle in normal circumstances?

A

30 Degrees

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3
Q

Take off is not permitted on what runway conditions?

A

Wet Ice
Water on compacted snow
Dry or Wet Snow over Ice

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4
Q

The RWYCC is 0, can you land or take off?

A

No

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5
Q

What is the minimum cleared/treated width of a runway?

A

30m

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6
Q

What technical limitations will prohibit single engine ops for taxi?

A

Hydraulic
Elec - Gen 1/Apu Gen
Bleed - Eng 1 bleed, APU bleed
Air Con - Pack 1
L/G - NWS, Brakes

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7
Q

What are the operational limitations that will prohibit single engine ops for taxi?

A

LVPs
Power Push
Less than 3min warmup/cooldown

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8
Q

What are the f/o*** limitations?

A

20kts
550m RVR
ILS Cat 1
NPA Minima
Circling 5km vis
45m runway
no contamination
no windshear
no tailwind
no autoland (normal ops)

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9
Q

When do you need to perform a RAIM check?

A

For RNP AR approaches

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10
Q

When do you need to perform a battery check?

A

When the aircraft has not been electrically supplied for 6hrs or merry

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11
Q

What does the battery voltage of 25.5v or above ensure?

A

Ensures a charge above 50%

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12
Q

What is the minimum charge from the batteries for the APU Fire Test and APU Start?

A

50% which equates to 25.5v

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13
Q

If the battery voltage is 25.5v how long is the battery charging cycle?

A

Around 20mins

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14
Q

How do you perform the battery charge cycle?

A

Set the batteries to AUTO, check the elec page to ensure that battery contacts are closed and the batteries are charging. After 20mins check the batteries again by turning them off to see if they are above 25.5v

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15
Q

You will be starting the APU on batteries only. What is the maximum time you should wait before turning the APU on?

A

30mins, as the batteries would have run down. After 35 mins from the batteries being selected to AUTO the charge is only approx 25% of max capacity.

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16
Q

What is the maximum time to press the APU test PB?

A

3 seconds as any longer than this the APU Extinguisher may discharge.

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17
Q

How long should you wait after selecting the APU Master to on before starting the APU?

A

3 seconds

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18
Q

Why is the APU bleed left off for 1 minute after APU starts?

A

To help to allow thermal stabilisation of the APU to help prevent failures

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19
Q

What is the full range of the zone controllers for temperature control?

A

18-30 degrees

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20
Q

When must you perform a full IRS alignment??

A

First flight of the day
Crew Change
GPS not available and nav aid coverage is poor on route
GPS not available and the flight time exceeds 3hrs

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21
Q

When is a fast alignment necessary?

A

If a full alignment does not need to perform and the drift is at or above 5nm

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22
Q

What safety equipment is checked in the flight deck?

A

10 Items:
Life Jacket
Axe
Gloves
Extinguisher
ELT
Ropes
Smoke Hood
OXY Masks
TORCH
First aid kit

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23
Q

NEO engines do not have fan keys, what do they have?

A

ECAM Alert - FAN COWL NOT CLOSED

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24
Q

Each aircraft now has its own iPad. What needs to be checked?

A

Flight mode
Battery above 80%
It is there…

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25
Q

Regarding the EFF, what needs to be checked between crew?

A

OFP
LIDO
Flysmart+

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26
Q

Why do we press the RCL for 3 seconds or more?

A

To recall any emer cancelled warnings or cleared ones from the previous flight

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27
Q

You see the OXY Box is in amber. What do you do?

A

Check FCOM LIMITATIONS for required oxygen

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28
Q

What are you checking on the HYD page?

A

That the hydraulic fluid is in the normal operating range and if not calling MOC to see if a service is required.

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29
Q

What is the oil required for a ceo?

A

9.5qts + 0.5qts per flight hour

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30
Q

What is the minimum oil required for a NEO engine?

A

10.6qts or 8.9+0.5qts per flight hour, which ever is greater

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31
Q

When do you record taxi in time into the tech log?

A

When OAT is less than +3degrees

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32
Q

What is required from the crew for A/C Acceptance to be completed?

A

ECAM recall
HYD
DOOR OXY
ENG OIL
TECH LOG
MEL/CDL
EQRH REGISTRATION
EQRH CONFIG SUMMARY
SECTOR STRIP completed

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33
Q

Does AFT or FORWARD C of G provide best performance?

A

Aft

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34
Q

You calculate RTOW but discover that it is lower than your planned TOW. What can you do?

A

Try optimum config, choose another runway, or fuel replanning according to OMA and OPS

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35
Q

When must you perform a RLDW calculation?

A

When the runway is contaminated or if the flight crew cannot ensure that RLDW is not limited by maximum structural landing weight

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36
Q

What are the requirements for A/C Acceptance?

A

*ECAM RCL pb PRESS 3 s
*ECAM OXY PRESS CHECK
*ECAM HYD QTY CHECK
*ECAM ENG OIL QTY CHECK
TECHNICAL LOG AND MEL/CDL ITEMS CHECK
AIRCRAFT SELECTION (eQRH) CROSSCHECK
OEB CHECK
AIRCRAFT CONFIGURATION SUMMARY CHECK

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37
Q

Does the park brake have to be on before the walk around?

A

Yes, in order to check the brake wear indicators

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38
Q

What passenger load requires the Pack Flow to be set to low?

A

A319/320 - Less than 130
A321 - Less than 160

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39
Q

When is “HI Flow” automatically selected?

A

If the APU is supplying bleed air, regardless of switch position

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40
Q

What are you looking for when performing the ELEC BAT Check?

A

10seconds after turning batteries back on the charge of the battery is 60amps and decreasing

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41
Q

If the date is incorrect on the internal clock, what do you do?

A

Set the date manually and then leave the clock switch on internal (INT) for the entire flight

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42
Q

What is the default Idle factor?

A

-3.5

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43
Q

When is navaid deselection not required?

A

When GPS Primary

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44
Q

How are the characteristic speeds displayed on the MCDU calculated?

A

Computed from the ZFW and ZFCG entered by MCDU.

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45
Q

What are the maximum differences between the altimeters?

A

±20 ft between both PFDs

±100 ft between ISIS and PFDs

Check that the difference between each altitude indication (in the QNH reference) displayed on PFDs and the airport elevation is less than 75 ft.

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46
Q

What are the fuel discrepancy limits after refuelling?

A

<6 = 400
>6<12 = 500
>12 = 600

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47
Q

What is the maximum difference in flex between PF and PM?

A

1 Degree

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48
Q

What is the maximum difference in Speeds between PF and PM?

A

1kt

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49
Q

What do you say to PAX if there is Low Vis?

A

“Due to low visibility conditions, it is a requirement that all Portable Electronic Devices are switched off until after takeoff”.

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50
Q

If the ground crew confirms the pin is installed and the NWS disconnect does not display on the memo what should you do?

A

Push back but do not start engines in order to avoid gear damage when the yellow system pressurises. Check the MEL for dispatch items.

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51
Q

What should you do in the event of a Shear Pin Failure during pushback?

A

1) If the pushback stops immediately after failure of the shear pin, inspection is not necessary.

2) The nose gear must be inspected if after the failure of a towbar shear pin (during the forward or rearward towing) with subsequent separation and overrun of the towbar by the aircraft, or Push-turn operations, when the towbar arm touches the tractor after a failure of the turning towbar shear pin only.

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52
Q

How many KGs of fuel is saved per OETD?

A

30kgs approx

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53
Q

The ground crew report a fuel leak during the engine start, what do you do?

A

Run engine at idle for 5 mins
If leak disappears after 5 mins then aircraft can be dispatched without maintenance action, if not, call MOC and shutdown the engine.

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54
Q

The engine does not start at the first attempt, what do you do?

A

Leave it, FADEC automatically manages additional attempts

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55
Q

During the engine start sequence you get an ECAM - ENG 1(2) START FAULT. What do you do?

A

Do the ECAM and then refer to the FCOM for additional guidance.

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56
Q

What are the conditions that have to be met before the engine master switch can be turned on?

A

All AMBER crosses and messages have disappeared on the EWD and Engine SD page

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57
Q

Approximately how long will DRY CRANKING on a NEO last?

A

May last up to 1 minute

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58
Q

What is the N2% limit when dry cranking?

A

30%

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59
Q

You lose electrical power during the start sequence - what do you do?

A

Abort start and perform a dry crank for 30 seconds.

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60
Q

What is the CEO start sequence?

A

16% Igniter A/B activates
22% Fuel Flow increases
50% Start valve closes
Igniter Off

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61
Q

What is the NEO start sequence?

A

> 20% Igniter starts (when dry cranking finished)
20% FF Increases
55% Igniter off
63% Start valve closes

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62
Q

How many seconds after the second engine started will the pack valve reopen?

A

30 seconds

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63
Q

What temperature must the oil be above for the NEO engine prior to T/O?

A

19degrees

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64
Q

What temperature should you perform ice shedding?

A

+3degrees or less

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65
Q

What is the CEO ice shedding procedure?

A

Park brake on/or brakes on
70% N1 for 30 seconds at intervals not greater than 30mins

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66
Q

What is the NEO ice shedding procedure?

A

Park/Foot brake on
50% for 5 seconds at intervals not greater than 60mins
If take off not performed within 120mins then an engine inspection is required

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67
Q

What happens if you select WING ANTI ICE on ground?

A

Performs a 30seconds self test and then closes as long as the aircraft is on the ground.

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68
Q

You are in icing conditions of slush/snow or freezing rain - what should you think about when taxiing?

A

Keep flaps retracted until at holding point to prevent contamination of the mechanism.

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69
Q

What is the rudder trim tolerance on ground?

A

±0.3°

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70
Q

You perform single engine taxi. When starting the second engine, when the Yellow pump is turned off, you lose NWS, what do you do?

A

Stop, set parking brake and wait for the second engine to start.

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71
Q

When should you set IGN for T/O?

A

Heavy rain
Heavy Turbulence
Standing water on RWY

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72
Q

How long does it take for the WX radar to fill the screen?

A

Approx 30 seconds

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73
Q

How many degrees of flex are required to be reduced if you need anti ice?

A

5 degrees

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74
Q

How much should you reduce flex for a QNH reduction?

A

1 degree per 2HPA

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75
Q

What are the TREF values for the aircraft?

A

A319 = ISA+30

A320 (CEO/NEO) = ISA+29

A321 = ISA+15

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76
Q

IF TREF or OAT temp is reached, what should you do?

A

Run a new EFB perf

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77
Q

What is the max brake temperature for take off?

A

300degrees

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78
Q

You use brake fans before take off, what is the maximum brake temp before take off?

A

150degrees

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79
Q

What is the take-off technique for tail wind or x-wind >20kts?

A

50%
70% until 15kts then flex or toga by 40kts

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80
Q

At what speed is directional control removed from NWS and pedals?

A

130kts

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81
Q

When is a rolling takeoff not permitted?

A

RWY/OBS limitation or if TOGA

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82
Q

What speed does the target become at acceleration altitude?

A

It will change from V2+10 to First CLB speed (managed or preselected)

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83
Q

MAX REC FL in the MCDU PROG Page gives what buffet margin?

A

0.3g, this can be overridden to a value of 0.2 by the crew.

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84
Q

When must you monitor navigation accuracy?

A

GPS PRIMARY LOST appears on the ND.

IRS only navigation.

The PROG page displays LOW accuracy.

“NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD” appears on the MCDU.

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85
Q

How often should you check RVSM tolerances?

A

once every hour

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86
Q

What is the maximum value that VAPP can be increased to for gusty conditions?

A

VLS+15

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87
Q

What speed does EXPD DESCENT give?

A

340kts or 0.80M

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88
Q

How long do the speed brakes take to retract if used above 315kts/M.75?

A

Around 25 seconds and will display in amber until they are retracted.

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89
Q

What is the correct vertical path criteria?

A

ILS - Within 1 dot g/s
within 3/4dot on V/DEV bar for NPA
PAPI not showing 4 whites or 4 reds

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90
Q

When many the PAPI show incorrect indications?

A

Difference between FAP and PAPI angle

OAT is significantly higher above ISA which may give 4 whites - follow vertical guidance on FMS

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91
Q

What is the correct lateral path?

A

LOC - within 1 dot
XTRK lower than 0.3nm for NPA using FINAL APP
L/DEV within 1RNP for RNP approaches
Within 30 degrees of final approach track for visual or circling

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92
Q

What is the stable approach criteria by 1000ft?

A

Landing config
<+30KTS Vapp

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93
Q

What are the stable approach criteria at 500ft?

A

Correct vertical and lateral path
ROD in line with approach angle
Vapp +10/-5kts
Bank less than 15degrees
Landing checklist complete

94
Q

What config must the visual part of the circling procedure be?

A

Flaps 3 gear down

95
Q

What are the stable criteria for circling?

A

BY 400FT:

Landing config
correct lateral and vertical path
Vapp+10/-5kts
Max bank 15 degrees
within 30degrees of Runway final track
Landing checklist done

96
Q

How do you fly a discontinued approach?

A

Announce “CANCEL APPROACH”
Press APPR PB or LOC PB
Select lateral mode
Select vertical mode (level off or adjust)
Select SPEED and adjust
The flight plan may no longer have a destination
The aircraft will remain in approach phase

97
Q

What’s the limitation when selecting a speed below S speed?

A

Minimum of 180kts or VLS+10

98
Q

Where is the pseudo Decel point?

A

Approx 15nm from touchdown

99
Q

NAV ACCURACY is low, what must you do on the approach regarding the displays?

A

At least one display must be on ROSE LS/VOR depending on the approach

100
Q

At what height does the WHEEL SD page appear?

A

Below 800ft or at gear extension

101
Q

What are the flight parameters for the approach?
Speed
Pitch
Bank
ROD

A

Speed = +10/-5kts
Pitch = <-2.5 or >+10
Bank = >7degrees
ROD = >1000ft

102
Q

Can Austro AOC fly LTS CAT1 or OTS CAT 1?

A

NO

103
Q

When can a SA CAT 2 be performed?

A

Published SA CAT 2 minima are used.

CAT 2, CAT 3 SINGLE or CAT 3 DUAL is displayed on FMA.

At least one AP is coupled for approach and automatic landing.

Required visual references for SA CAT II are identical to standard CAT II.

104
Q

When can a CAT 2 be performed?

A

Published CAT 2 minima are used.

At least one AP is coupled for approach and automatic landing.

CAT 2, CAT 3 SINGLE or CAT 3 DUAL is displayed on FMA.

The autoland capability has been demonstrated for CAT II and CAT III ILS quality beam.

105
Q

When canCAT III Approach with DH <100 ft to ≥ 50 ft
CAT III fail passive ILS approach can be performed?

A

Absolute minima are DH 50 feet and RVR 175 m.

At least one AP is coupled for approach and automatic landing.

CAT 3 SINGLE or CAT 3 DUAL is displayed on FMA.

106
Q

When can Category III with DH <50 ft or no DH
CAT III fail operational ILS approach can be performed?

A

Both AP are coupled for approach, automatic landing and roll-out.

CAT 3 DUAL is displayed on FMA.

If not DH is used the minimum RVR is 75 m.

The autoland capability has been demonstrated for CAT III ILS quality beam.

107
Q

The ECMA and FMA says CAT 3 DUAL but the tech log says it’s not available. What takes precedence?

A

Tech log

108
Q

What limits the approach minimum?

A

Crew qualification

Aircraft technical status

Airport status

Go Around performance

109
Q

What should you brief as LVOs?

A

Task sharing and callouts

Management of degraded guidance

Low visibility procedures at the airport

110
Q

You arm both APs for a cat 3 dual approach but CAT1 is displayed. Why?

A

You may be above 5000ft AGL, once below it should display CAT 3 DUAL

111
Q

What are the flight parameters for an ILS approach?

A

LOC - 1/2 DOT
G/S - 1/2 DOT

112
Q

You get an untimely flare during an Autoland, what do you do?

A

Go around or continue visually (if visual) by disconnecting AP and set both FDs to off

113
Q

You are above 1000ft on a LVO, you get an amber caution or landing capability degradation, what do you do?

A

Complete ECAM
Check approach and landing capability
if required: check RVR/DH and rebrief

If unable to complete by 1000ft go around

114
Q

You are below 1000ft on a LOW VIS approach. When can you disregard a failure?

A

Any system not monitored by FMGS for FMA landing capability may be disregarded.

115
Q

Below 100ft (Alert Height) the red Autoland light comes on, what do you do?

A

Not visual - go around

Visual - can complete a manual landing

116
Q

Can we use FLS?

A

No, not yet

117
Q

Your aircraft has SBAS but SLS is not available, how do you fly the RNP approach?

A

NAV/FPA, FLS shall not be used. Use L/NAV minima as FINAL APP GUIDANCE is not available

118
Q

What approaches use FINAL APP?

A

RNP approaches with LNAV or LNAV/VNAV minima.

Conventional approaches based on VOR or NDB using FINAL APP guidance.

119
Q

What equipment is required to start an RNP Approach?

A

CHECK

120
Q

You are on an approach and want to use FINAL APP, when can you not use it?

A

Must not be used when the actual OAT is below the minimum temperature indicated on the approach chart, or

Must not be used when temperature corrections are required (FINAL APP mode may not engage).

121
Q

Can you use QRH from a remote station for an RNP approach?

A

NO

122
Q

On aircraft with FLS, how do you select FINAL APP?

A

PERF APPR Page, select FINAL APP

123
Q

What is the max difference between chart and MCDU for vertical path?

A

0.1degrees

124
Q

You see “TOO STEEP PATH” after the FDP, can you use FINAL APP?

A

No, use NAV/FPA or TRK/FPA

125
Q

What is the max discrepancy between altimeters for a FINAL APP?

A

100ft

126
Q

When can you arm approach on a NPA?

A

Cleared
TO waypoint is the FDP

127
Q

The FDP is less than 2nm after the previous fix on a NPA, what can you do?

A

Arm APPR mode when level at Final Descent Altitude (Alt or Alt Cons) and the FDP arrow is properly sequenced by the FMGC

128
Q

As PM what are you monitoring on a FINAL APP?

A

XTK error on ND
V/Dev on PFD
Check altitudes crossing at FAF and waypoints on charts
Monitor RAW data

129
Q

What are the parameters for a FINAL APP?

A

XTK = >0.1NM
V/DEV = >1/2 DOT

130
Q

On a FINAL APP, what does one dot correspond to on the vertical profile?

A

100ft, and half dot 50ft

131
Q

On an RNP approach, for what deviation below the vertical path would you go around for?

A

V/DEV >3/4 DOT - Equates to 75ft

132
Q

On an RNP approach you lose GPS Primary on one ND. What do you do?

A

Continue with the AP on the side that still has GPS Primary

133
Q

On an RNP Approach, you have NAV ACCURACY DOWNGRADE on one FMGS, what do you do?

A

Switch the AP to the side that still has good NAV ACCURACY

134
Q

What cases would lead to a go around for a FINAL APP type approach?

A

GPS PRIMARY LOST ON BOTH NDs

XTK >0.3nm

NAV FM/GPS POS DISAGREE on ECAM.

NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD on both FMGS.

135
Q

Before commencing an RNP AR procedure, what do you need to check?

A

AOC Approval
Crew Qualified
A/C Status - SUMMARY
MEL
RAIM CHECK

136
Q

You will be performing an RNP AR approach, what do you need to check in the descent before the approach?

A

GPS 1+2 both in NAV mode.

Both need to be available before the IAF otherwise RNP AR is not allowed

Terrain on both NDs unless WX radar is needed on one side

137
Q

During an RNP AR approach, what do you do on the initial approach?

A

Check RNP value is correct, and if performing an RNP AR approach below 0.3 RNP manually insert it.

Check baro ref - maximum discrepancy between them is 100ft

138
Q

On an RNP approach, what do you do at the INTERMEDIATE/FINAL APPROACH stage?

A

Ensure that AP is engage (1 is needed for the approach)

Check LDEV is displayed on PFD

Press APPR PB when when cleared for the approach and TO Waypoint is the Final Descent Point

Check Final Arms and that VDEV is displayed on the PFD

When Final App engages set Go-Around Alt

Monitor Prog page

139
Q

What are the flight parameters for and RNP AR approach?

A

L/DEV >1/2 Dot (1 dot = 0.1nm and full scale deflection is ± 0.2 NM)

V/DEV >1/2 Dot = 50ft

140
Q

On an RNP AR approach, when must you go around?

A

L/DEV reaches 1RNP (On ND)

V/DEV reaches 3/4 dot below glide (75ft)

141
Q

On an RNP AR approach, BEFORE passing the initial approach fix, you have a system failure. What should you do?

A

Discontinue the approach, refer to FCOM PRO SPO 51 PBN RNP AR to re-assess the aircraft capability

142
Q

On an RNP AR approach, after passing the IAF, what system failures could you continue with?

A

The approach may be continued in case of single failure of:

GPS PRIMARY LOST on one ND (use appropriate remaining AP/FD)

NAV ACCURACY DOWNGRADE on one FMGS (use appropriate remaining AP/FD)

GPS (MMR)

FMGS

EFIS DU

MCDU

AP (remaining AP shall be engaged if available)

143
Q

On an RNP AR approach what failures would lead to a go-around after the IAF?

A

Discontinue the approach in the following cases, if external visual references are not sufficient to proceed visually:

FINAL APP does not engage

Loss of GPWS TERRAIN function in case of inconsistencies affecting obstacles or terrain computation

FM/GPS POSITION DISAGREE

FMS1/FMS2 POS DIFF

GPS PRIMARY LOST on both NDs

Dual NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD

Dual loss of FMGC or dual loss of FINAL APP mode

Dual AP failure if the RNP < 0.3 NM.

144
Q

What is the minimum equipment to start an RNP Approach?

A

The minimum equipment required to start RNP APCH operations is:

One FMGC

One GPS

Two IRS

One MCDU

One FD

One PFD on the PF side

Two NDs (the temporary display of ND information via the PFD/ND switch is permitted on PM side)

Two FCU channels

145
Q

On an FPA approach what are the flight parameters?

A

Approach using NAV MODE: XTK > 0.1 nm (ON ND)

Approach using LOC MODE: LOC ½ dot

Approach using TRK MODE:

VOR: ½ dot or 2.5°

NDB: 5°

146
Q

How do you fly a circling approach?

A

Fly a stabilised approach, at F speed config 3 and Gear Down

100ft above circling minima push to level

turn 45 degrees towards downwind leg and start 30seconds timer when wings level

Turn downwind

activate secondary (be aware Go around is now gone for the instrument approach)

When abeam leg threshold, start timer. 3 seconds per 100ft AAL

Turn downwind (level turn)

AP and FDs off

when established on final descent path take flaps 3 and landing checklist

147
Q

What equipment is needed for an RNAV Visual?

A

1 FMS.

1 GPS or 2 DME to update FM position.

Additional requirement if indicated on the approach chart.

148
Q

On an RNAV visual, when must you disconnect AP?

A

At the minimum height of the use of AP according to FCOM for the a/c

149
Q

When is the RETARD call triggered on a manual landing?

A

20ft

150
Q

On landing, when are the ground spoilers extension inhibited?

A

Both thrust levers above IDLE detent

or

One thrust lever above idle and one is at idle

151
Q

When must touchdown be achieved?

A

First 1000m or first 1/3 of the runway which ever is less if there are no runway markings

152
Q

When must you perform a fullstop landing?

A

At reverse thrust selection

153
Q

On landing, the ground spoilers do not extend. What do you do?

A

Verify both thrust levers are set to idle or Rev detent
Set both thrust reversers to max and fully press the brakes

154
Q

On a manual landing, will the ground spoilers extend if not armed?

A

yes, at reverse thrust application.

155
Q

When will the auto brake not engage?

A

If the ground spoilers do not extend

156
Q

On snow covered grounds when should the reversers be stowed?

A

25kts

157
Q

On an Autoland, what happens at 350ft?

A

LAND on FMA, also check ILS course

158
Q

LAND on FMA is a trigger to check what?

A

ILS course. If it differs from 5degrees on the runway track then an Autoland is not allowed

159
Q

On an Autoland what happens at 40ft?

A

FLARE on FMA

160
Q

On an Autoland what happens at 30ft?

A

Thrust comes back to idle

161
Q

On an Autoland what happens at 10ft?

A

RETARD

162
Q

On an Autoland, at touchdown the NWS or Antiskid fails, what do you do?

A

Set AP to off at touchdown

163
Q

Why do you need to disengage the AP after rollout on an Autoland?

A

You wont be able to taxi off the centreline

164
Q

How do you fly a soft go-around?

A

TOGA then FLX/MCT

165
Q

On a go around on an RNP AR approach, what is needed immediately?

A

NAV

166
Q

You have both APs on during an approach, during the go around, which AP disengages?

A

AP2

167
Q

After a go around, how do you prepare for a second approach?

A

By selecting ACTIVATE APP PHASE on the PERF page

168
Q

Who can fly a baulked landing?

A

Captain only

169
Q

How do you perform a baulked landing?

A

TOGA
Adjust pitch to establish a climb away from the ground - de rotate or holding pitch

170
Q

What ECAM can you disregard during a baulked landing?

A

CONFIG FLAPS NOT IN T/O CONFIG

171
Q

When should you keep the flaps out after landing?

A

Icing conditions or snow or slush on runway - check them once engines are shutdown

172
Q

To avoid rudder travel limit unit damage, what must you ensure once you park the aircraft?

A

That the flaps are retracted before you turn of the ADIRS

173
Q

On SETWA aircraft when should you start APU?

A

1 min before reaching stand

174
Q

On aircraft without SETWA when should you start APU?

A

If taxi is expected to be greater than 3mins. Delay APU start until 1 min after selection of REV IDLE

175
Q

When does cooling period begin for the engines after landing?

A

After selection of Idle rev.

176
Q

What is the danger of SETWA?

A

Losing gen 1 and being in the emer elec config.

You lose NWS, normal brakes.

Stop the aircraft and start the APU

177
Q

After landing you notice the brakes are hot, when is maintenance action needed?

A

Temp difference between two brakes on one gear is >150 and one of those brakes is above OR below 600

Difference between average temperature of left and right gear is >200degrees

One brake exceeds 900degrees

178
Q

When should you use brake fans?

A

If temp is expected to exceed 500degrees

Short turn around time

After 5mins or approaching the gate

179
Q

You pull onto stand, and before setting parking brake you notice that the brake indicator is not in the green band, what do you do?

A

Ensure that chocks are installed before shutdown of engine 1 (Green hydraulic system)

180
Q

On stand, once chocks are in place, the temperature of one brake is above 500degrees (350 with fans on) what do you do?

A

Release brakes

181
Q

When can you turn off the beacon?

A

Less than 10% n1

182
Q

When can you turn off the seatbelts?

A

Main door slides are disarmed on the DOOR page

183
Q

Where can you find the IRS perf graph?

A

Post flight OMB

184
Q

You find a fuel discrepancy during the post flight, what do you do?

A

Call maintenance. There may be a fuel leak

185
Q

You are at the end of sector 3 of 4, you notice a MAINTENANCE message on the STATUS page, what do you do?

A

Check the MEL

Check MEL during transits, and at the end of the day record the message in TECH log

186
Q

How do you inform the next crew of taxi in time in icing conditions?

A

FOR NEXT CREW: TAXI-IN TIME XX MIN

187
Q

You take over an aircraft and read “FOR NEXT CREW: TAXI-IN TIME XX MIN” what do you write in the action column?

A

Noted

188
Q

On ground in a hot environment you get this ECAM: “AIR L (R) WING LEAK”, what do you do?

A

Check OMB post flight

Ensure area is clear
Blimp pump override on
Flaps 1 (slats only extend)
When extended blue pump override off
Select flaps 0 - prevents inadvertent flap deployment if hydraulics are powered

189
Q

You are closing the aircraft at the end of the day - where can you find procedures for adverse weather?

A

FCOM PRO NOR SUP ADVWXR

190
Q

When can you turn off IR mode selectors?

A

When passengers have disembarked.

Wait 10seconds before removing a/c electrical supply to ensure last position is memorized

191
Q

When is the APU fully shutdown?

A

2mins after AVAIL light goes out

AMBER XX displayed on APU page

192
Q

The batteries are off and the APU is running, what protection have you lost on the APU?

A

Fire extinguishing

193
Q

Regarding standard calls, is it FLAP or FLAPS?

A

FLAPS GOD DAMN IT!

194
Q

When do you call SPEED on Approach?

A

-5/+10kt

195
Q

When do you call sink rate on Approach?

A

> -1000fpm

196
Q

When do you call BANK on approach?

A

> 7degrees

197
Q

When do you call pitch on approach?

A

Lower than -2.5
Greater than 10 (7.5 on 321)

198
Q

When do you call LOC or GLIDE?

A

1/2dot

199
Q

When do you call CROSSTRACK?

A

> 0.1nm in FINAL APP

200
Q

When do you call V-DEV?

A

1/2 dot in FINAL APP

201
Q

When do you call COURSE?

A

1/2dot VOR

5 Degrees NDB

202
Q

On an RNP AR Approach when do you call LAT-DEV?

A

L/DEV = 1/2dot

203
Q

On an RNP AR APP when do you call VDEV?

A

1/2dot

204
Q

On an RNP AR App when do you call BANK?

A

> 30degrees

205
Q

On a go-around when do you call pitch?

A

> 20 up or <10 Up

206
Q

On a go-around when do you call SINK RATE?

A

If there is no climb

207
Q

What is a steeper angle approach?

A

Anything between 3.5 and 4.5 degrres

208
Q

What approach is not allowed above 3.5 degrees?

A

Autoland

CATII/III

209
Q

Can you dispatch with an iPad missing?

A

Yes, but no less than 2.

210
Q

Away from base, all iPads fail, what do you do?

A

Check OMB procedure and talk to duty pilot

211
Q

You perform a successful reset, what do you write in TECH LOG?

A

CREW RESET and what it was, cross out action taken and CRS

212
Q

You perform and unsuccessful reset, what do you do?

A

Write it in the tech log as an open defect and has to be fixed by maintenance

213
Q

Who do you call after an overwieght landing?

A

MOC

214
Q

During take off - when is T/O inhibit active?

A

80kt to 1500ft or 2min after liftoff

215
Q

What are the uninhibited ECAM cautions above 100kt?

A

F/CTL SIDESTICK FAULT
ENG FAIL
ENG REVERSE FAULT
ENG REVERSE UNLOCKED
ENG 1(2) THR LEVER FAULT

216
Q

Above 100kt during the take off roll you exceed the EGT REDLINE, what do you do?

A

It should not result in a RTO

217
Q

Your tyre fails between V1 and V1-20ft, what may you consider?

A

Continue

218
Q

When does the DECEL light come on?

A

80% of decel rate

219
Q

You reject the takeoff prior to 72kts, what wont happen?

A

No spoilers

220
Q

You come to a complete stop with AUTOBRAKE MAX, how can you taxi?

A

Disarm ground spoilers

221
Q

When should you vacate the runway after an RTO or emergency on landing?

A

When it is clear that no EVAC is required

222
Q

During an emergency EVAC are the agents required to be discharged?

A

Only if there are positive signs of fire

223
Q

What ECAM must be relied on regarding pressure?

A

CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT

It can be triggered by a cabin pressure sensor different from the one on the SD

224
Q

How do you deactivate the mask mic after using the oxy mask?

A

Close the left door

225
Q

After an emergency descent how do you let the CC know it is safe to move around?

A

SCCM Alert call

226
Q

What is the TCAS ALERT PREVENTION FUNCTION?

A

Limits the final 2000ft of a climb to 1500fpm

227
Q

What do you say passing 2000ft for a planned emergency landing?

A

Cabin Crew Take Up Landing Positions

228
Q

What do you say at 500ft for an emergency landing?

A

BRACE BRACE

229
Q

An unplanned emergency landing is imminent, what do you say?

A

Attention crew BRACE BRACE

230
Q

What does the captain do in the event of an EVAC?

A

Last person to leave FD
Last person to leave cabin
EVAC via rear door
Takes control on the ground until emergency services arrive

command study (9 decks)

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