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Command Study > FCTM > Flashcards

FCTM Flashcards

1
Q

What do the following Pushbutton Lights indicate?
Amber
Red
Green
Blue
White
Blank

A

Amber: Indicates that a system is failed

Red: Indicates a failure that may require an immediate corrective action

Green: Indicates that a system operates normally

Blue: Indicates the normal operation of a temporarily selected system

White: Indicates the abnormal position of a pushbutton switch or maintenance/test result indication

Blank: The system is fit to fly.

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2
Q

What is the definition of “Control Law”?

A

Relationship between the pilot on the side stick and the aircraft response

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3
Q

What is the purpose of the flight control protections?

A

Give full authority to the flight crew to enable best performance with instinctive and immediate control

Minimises possibility of over controlling, over stressing or damaging the aircraft

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4
Q

How can you disarm the autopilot on the side stick?

A

Firm pressure

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5
Q

What are the handling characteristics in Alternate law like?

A

Identical in pitch with Normal Law

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6
Q

What are the order of events in an abnormal situation e.g. Memory items, exam etc?

A

Memory Items
OEB Immediate actions
ECAM
QRH
FCOM
OEB

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7
Q

Are ECAM/QRH/OEB procedures Read and Do or Read and other person does?

A

Read and Do

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8
Q

What are the sequence of procedures in the case of abnormal or emergency situations?

A

Memory Items/OEB Immediate Actions
OEB
ECAM
QRH

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9
Q

What is the definition of LAND ASAP RED?

A

Land as soon as possible at the nearest airport at which a safe landing can be made

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10
Q

What does LAND ASAP Amber mean?

A

Consider landing at the nearest suitable airport

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11
Q

What 4 items must be checked by the other pilot before they are adjusted/moved?

A

ENG MASTER
IR MODE SELECTOR
ALL GUARDED CONTROLS
CBS

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12
Q

Is a red guarded control switch reversible if it is actioned?

A

No

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13
Q

Is a black guarded switch if actioned, reversibile?

A

Yes

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14
Q

Should you verify thrust levers before moving them as part of a procedure?

A

Yes

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15
Q

What height should the flight crew wait until before performing READ & DO actions?

A

400ft in the case of Take-off or Go-Around

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16
Q

The ECAM requires you to apply a QRH procedure, what do you do?

A

Keep the procedure displayed on ECAM
Apply the requested QRH Procedure

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17
Q

The PM, when performing an ECAM procedure says “STATUS?” What is the response form the PF?

A

Stop ECAM
Consider normal C/L, system reset or any additional procedures as necessary
Continue ECAM

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18
Q

STOP ECAM - What do you do as PF when you say this?

A

Perform any normal checklist if applicable - Gear up, flaps in etc

Consider any reset - If the reset is successful the STATUS page should disappear

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19
Q

What is the purpose of the STATUS page?

A

Overall technical status of the aircraft in all flight phases

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20
Q

You have an ECAM, and the warning disappears whilst performing the procedure, what do you do?

A

Warning can be considered to be no longer applicable

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21
Q

Whilst performing a QRH procedure the conditions of the application of the procedure disappear, what do you do?

A

Can stop it if it disappears

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22
Q

ECAM/QRH/OEB actions have been completed, what do you do next?

A

Resume normal task sharing
Check the FCOM if time permits - do not prolong the flight to do so unless for safety reasons

Assess the situation - Recall the status page, check any fuel penalty factor, landing distance penalty, consider operational, maintenance and commercial aspects.

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23
Q

What is the purpose of an advisory?

A

To alert the crew to a drifting parameter

The sensor used to trigger an advisory may be different to that used by the FWS to trigger an ECAM

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24
Q

Where can you find advisory conditions?

A

QRH

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25
Q

What does the EMER CANCEL button do?

A

Deletes any spurious caution both the aural alert and the caution for the remainder of the flight

Red Warning - inhibits the aural alert but not the warning

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26
Q

What is the purpose of the QRH summaries?

A

Helps the crew in the event of a DUAL HYD or EMER ELEC CONFIG for the 4 flight phases - CRUISE, APPROACH, LANDING, GO AROUND

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27
Q

What are the airbus golden rules?

A

1 - FLY NAV COM
2 - USE APPROPRIATE AUTOMATION AT ALL TIMES
3 - UNDERSTAND THE FMA AT ALL TIMES
4 - TAKE ACTION IF THINGS DO NOT GO AS EXPECTED

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28
Q

What is the NAV part of FLY NAV COM?

A

Know where:
You are
You should be
Should go
Terrain, weather and obstacles are

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29
Q

What does the COMM part of FLY NAV COMM mean?

A

Communicate between:
PF & PM
Flight deck and ATC
Flight deck and CC
Flight deck and ground crew

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30
Q

You use the BIRD to fly, where does it get its data?

A

From IRS so may suffer with inertial errors
Static pressure, therefore if the altitude data is not reliable the bird is not reliable

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31
Q

How do you fly the bird?

A

It suffers with lag, so make an adjustment and wait for the bird to settle

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32
Q

What data does the FPV/BIRD give you?

A

Flight path angle and track

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33
Q

You use the BIRD for a visual, how do you fly a 3 degree path with it?

A

Place the tail immediately below the horizon

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34
Q

What happens if you are using the bird on the approach and select TOGA?

A

FDs are automatically displayed and the bird removed in SRS/GA TRACK(NAV)

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35
Q

What is the long term interface with the AP/FD?

A

MCDU

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36
Q

What is the short term interface with the AP/FD?

A

FCU

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37
Q

What is the recommended practice before engaging the AP?

A

Fly the intended path
Check FMA for the FD engagement and the appropriate modes are selected
Centre the FD bars

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38
Q

What should you do with the FDs if you are not following them and why?

A

Turn them off, in order to achieve the correct speed mode

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39
Q

When is the autothrust active for 2 engines?

A

Between Idle and Climb

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40
Q

How is thrust controlled (2 engines) above the CLB detenT

A

Manually to the thrust lever angles and the ATHR is armed (Blue on the FMA)

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41
Q

At take off is the ATHR on or armed?

A

It is armed until the thrust levers are set to the CLB detenT

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42
Q

With the ATHR engage, what is the maximum thrust that will be provided in CLB, CRZ, DES, APP?

A

MAX CLIMB

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43
Q

When is the ATHR active when single engine?

A

When thrust is between Idle and MCT

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44
Q

When do you get THR LCK?

A

When using the PB to disconnect the ATHR - if the levers are in a detent (CLB or mct)
The message disappears when the crew move the levers out of the detent

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45
Q

What is ALPHA floor?

A

When speed decreases and AoA reaches the ALPHA Floor threshold ATHR ACTIVATES and orders TOGA regardless of THR LEVER POSITION

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46
Q

How do you leave ALPHA FLOOR?

A

Once AoA drops below the ALPHA FLOOR threshold, TOGA is maintained and locked. TOGA LCK appears on FMA, and can only be removed by turning the ATHR OFF with the INSTINCTIVE pb.

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47
Q

When is Alpha Floor available?

A

Normal law
Liftoff to 100ft RA at landing
Inhibited in some cases of engine failure

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48
Q

What data are you comparing for a NAV accuracy check?

A

Bearing and distance to Nav Aid with RAW DATA against FMS computed distances

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49
Q

What is the potential error for a position update on the FMS when overflying a beacon?

A

Approx 4/5nm

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50
Q

What are the FM computed GW and CG used for?

A

FM predictions and speeds
ECAM (GW)
MCDU (GW & CG)
Computation of characteristic speeds - VLS F S GD etc on PFD

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51
Q

What are GW and CG values FAC computed used for?

A

Flight control laws

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52
Q

How does the FM get its GW and CG data?

A

From pilot entered ZFW and ZFWCG in the INIT B page

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53
Q

How does the FAC get its GW and CG data in flight and on ground?

A

In Flight - aerodynamic computations. The computed data is used for minor adjustments on the flight control laws

On Ground - GW FM computed

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54
Q

When would you receive CHECK GW message on MCDU scratch pad?

A

If GW FM computed and FAC computed differs from a given threshold

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55
Q

When does the FAC compute its GW and CG data in flight?

A

Low altitude, below 14625, low speed, below 250kts, flight parameters stabilised. If these conditions are not met it uses the last memorial GW minus fuel used

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56
Q

Are Alpha Prot, Alpha max or VSW affected by incorrectly entered ZFW/ZFWCG data?

A

No, they are based on aerodynamic data

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57
Q

You see the CHECK GW message on the MCDU, what do you do?

A

If an obvious entry error detected update on fuel page

If FM and LTS GW are correct then FAC should be checked by MOC

IF FM and LTS match but it looks like the LTS looks wrong, then get characteristic speeds from QRH

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58
Q

What is the purpose of ROPS?

A

Designed to alert the crew to a potential runway overrun situation in dry or wet conditions

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59
Q

ROPS is comprised of 2 functions, what are they and when do they start working?

A

ROW - From 400ft until the start of braking
ROP - from braking until aircraft stops

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60
Q

When would ROPS not prevent an overrun situation?

A

Failure affecting landing performance or thrust reverser availability

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61
Q

You have an AMBER RWY TOO SHORT message on the PFD, what do you do?

A

Consider a go around

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62
Q

You have a RED RWY TOO SHORT message on the PFD, what do you do? When do you get an aural alert?

A

Perform a go around
Below 200ft

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63
Q

What do you do if you hear “BRAKE, MAX BRAKING, MAX BRAKING”?

A

Apply max braking on the pedals
Apply Max reverse

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64
Q

You hear “SET MAX REVERSE” and “KEEP MAX REVERSE”, what do you do?

A

Set - Apply and keep max reverse
Keep - Keep it as long as possible

Below 70kts AND the Max reverse message is no longer displayed AND the flight crew determine that they can stop, you can set idle reverse

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65
Q

What do the FAC computers provide regarding the rudder?

A

Yaw Damping and Rudder Travel limitation

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66
Q

On a TCAS, how many seconds do you have for a CLIMB message?

A

Follow the green within 5 seconds

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67
Q

On a TCAS how many seconds do you have for a CLIMB NOW message?

A

2.5 seconds

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68
Q

How do you fly a TCAS?

A

TA - PF “TCAS I HAVE CONTROL”

RA - Disconnect AP, smoothly and firmly follow VSI green indicator within 5 seconds and request FDs off

PM - Switches off FDs and monitors, notify ATC,

PF - FLY THE GREEN

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69
Q

Why must both FDs be turned off when APs are disconnected on a TCAS?

A

Ensure autothrust speed mode
To avoid possible confusion between FD bar orders and TCAS aural and VSI orders

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70
Q

What do you do if a CLIMB RA is generated when in config 3 or Full?

A

Go around and follow SRS
AP and FD can be kept on for the go around
During the go around check that the VSI is out fo the red and if not take control for example when reaching the FCU go around altitude

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71
Q

Do the FD come back automatically (if previously selected off) for an AP TCAS?

A

Yes, they do not flash and the triple click does not sound
The autothrust arms or becomes active if it was off
Hug AUTOMATICALLY ENGAGES if FDs were off previously

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72
Q

AP TCAS is speed protected, what is the lowest it will fly?

A

VLS-5 and VMAX

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73
Q

You fly near to thunderstorms, how much of a margin should you give laterally and vertically?

A

20nm and 5000ft minimum

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74
Q

How long must the IRS be off for a full alignment?

A

5seconds

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75
Q

How do you perform a quick alignment?

A

Off and on again within 5 seconds

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76
Q

Why is the maximum brake temperature for take off 300degrees?

A

Ensures, that in the event of an hydraulic leak that no fluid will ignite if it touches the brakes

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77
Q

Brake fan can influence the actual brake temperature by how many degrees?

A

50-150degrees. Therefore if the brake fans are being used and the brakes are above 150degrees, take off must be delayed

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78
Q

What happens if both pilots use tiller or pedals for steering?

A

Inputs are added until maximum is reached

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79
Q

One tyre is deflated, what is the maximum taxi speed?

A

7th

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80
Q

You have two tyres deflated, what is the maximum taxi speed?

A

3kts

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81
Q

What is the main purpose of TAKEOFF PITCH TRIM SETTING?

A

Provide constant rotation characteristics

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82
Q

You tail strike during the takeoff roll, what do you do?

A

Avoid pressurised flight and return to departure station for MOC

83
Q

What two protections may intervene at heavy weights?

A

Auto retraction system (210 kts)

Alpha Lock function

84
Q

What is ALPHA LOCK?

A

Alpha/Speed Lock will prevent slat retraction at high AOA or low speed when the flap lever is moved from 1 to 0. Alpha lock pulses on the EWD slat indication. The inhibition is removed when alpha and speed fall below normal values. This is normal for take-off at heavy weights. If triggered continue with normal acceleration allowing for further slat retraction.

85
Q

How is VMAX on the PFD calculated for flaps/slats?

A

Lever position

86
Q

How is over speed warning calculated for slats/flaps?

A

Actual slats/flaps position. Always report an over speed

87
Q

How might the go-around phase be unduly activated?

A

Above acceleration altitude and thrust is set to TOGA with at least CONFIG 1

88
Q

What is SOFT CRUISE?

A

With the AP it will maintain an altitude of +/-50ft to optimise fuel consumption

89
Q

When should you insert wind entries?

A

When they are 30degrees or 30kts different

90
Q

How do access position reports in the MCDU?

A

Prog Page - REPORT

91
Q

What is cost index 0 and 999?

A

Max range = 0
Min time = 999

92
Q

What is GREEN DOT Speed?

A

OPTIMUM LIFT DRAG SPEED

93
Q

When is the OPT FL only meaningful?

A

When wind and temperature are accurate

94
Q

What deflection will the rudders give you whilst taxing regarding the NWS?

A

6 degrees

95
Q

What is the freezing point of Jet a1?

A

-47degrees

96
Q

What is the average cooling rate of JET A1?

A

3degrees per hour and a max of 12 in most extreme cases

97
Q

You encounter fuel temperatures reaching their minimum limit, what do you do?

A

Descend and/or increase MACH

98
Q

How is VAPP computed?

A

Flap config and TWR wind from the perf page, but it takes into account GW

99
Q

What is the lowest VAPP the Flight deck can input into the PERF page?

A

VLS

100
Q

What is the maximum increase in VAPP that you can do?

A

VLS+15

101
Q

How is the VOLMET, METAR & TAF wind referenced?

A

TRUE

102
Q

How is the ATIS and ATC wind referenced?

A

the same as the runway

103
Q

When is VAPP calculated before landing?

A

By the activation of the approach phase using current GW

104
Q

If you manually insert VAPP does GS MINI work?

A

Yes

105
Q

What is VREF?

A

VLS config full

106
Q

Why is VREF with an increase of more than 20knots not having an approach correction?

A

In order to not indefinitely increase the approach speed as it has a direct impact on landing distance

107
Q

Why is auto brake LO preferred?

A

Helps keep brakes below 400 degrees where oxidation takes place

108
Q

Where is TOD of descent calculated from?

A

From 1000ft at VAPP

109
Q

What is the maximum RWYCC for a specially prepared WINTER runway?

A

RWYCC 4

110
Q

What RWYCC will lead to a runway closure?

A

RWYCC 0

111
Q

When is an upgraded RWYCC used by an airport?

A

RCAM leads to a 0 or 1
Indications give a braking action of good
Maximum upgrade is to RWY CC 3
FLIGHT CREW MUST NEVER UPGRADE ON THEIR OWN INITIATIVE

112
Q

How is VAPP computed without a failure?

A

VLS+APPR CORR

113
Q

How is VAPP calculated WITH a failure?

A

VREF (Which is VLS config Full) + Differential VREF + APP correction

114
Q

What is VREF?

A

VLS config full

115
Q

Why is there a differential VREF?

A

To give a buffer margin due to the actual configuration of the aircraft

116
Q

Why is the APP Correction when calculating VAPP with a failure limited to 20kt?

A

In order to not indefinitely increase the approach speed and therefore the landing distance

117
Q

When performing a LDG PERF what data must be cross checked by the crew?

A

RWY IDENT
RWY LENGTH
WX
GW LDG
FLAPS
FLD
VAPP

118
Q

Where is T/D calculated from (relating to profile)?

A

A position 1000ft on the final approach and back at VAPP

119
Q

What is the default holding speed?

A

The lowest of:

Max Endurance
ICAO holding speed
Speed constraint

120
Q

How is LAST EXIT UTC/FUEL calculated?

A

Flight lvl 220 if ALT is less than 200nm, FL310 otherwise
Weight is the same as destination
Constant Wind
Constant ISA
Airway or Direct distance

121
Q

How is an approach divided?

A

3 parts - Initial, Intermediate, Final

122
Q

What should you do as part of the initial approach?

A

Check NAV ACCURACY, select approach type and strategy

123
Q

What should you do as part of the INTERMEDIATE APPROACH?

A

Manage A/C deceleration according to the strategy
Select flying reference
Manage final path interception

124
Q

What should you do as part of the FINAL APPROACH?

A

Monitor correct guidance of intended approach modes
Monitor trajectory according to strategy
Be stable at 1000ft

125
Q

Do you set thrust levers to TOGA as part of a discontinued approach?

A

No - danger here is no further approach is slewed

126
Q

When do the SPEEDBRAKES auto retract on the approach regarding config?

A

A319/320 - CONF FULL
A321 - CONF 3

127
Q

How do you fly a G/S intercept from above?

A

APPR PB armed - GS BLUE LOC GREEN
FCU ABOVE A/C ALTITUDE
Select VS -1500 initially and max 2000
Config 2 gear down

128
Q

What is DH?

A

Decision height:
The wheel height above the runway by which a go around must be flown if visual references not obtained
Based on RA

129
Q

What is ALERT HEIGHT?

A

Alert height is 100ft
Above this, any failure of one of the redundant parts of the auto land system would lead to a go-around
Below this, any failure affecting the fail operational criteria would continue to landing EXCPET if the RED AUTOLAND light goes on

130
Q

When is ALERT HEIGHT RELEVANT?

A

CAT 3 DUAL on FMA

131
Q

What is FAIL PASSIVE?

A

A single failure will lead to the AP disconnection without significant out of trim condition or deviation

132
Q

What is fail operational?

A

In case of a single failure, AP will continue to guide the aircraft and will continue as a fail-passive system. Below Alert height, any failure will still lead to an approach by the remaining part of the AUTO SYSTEM.

133
Q

Is there a capability downgrade below Alert height?

A

NOTHING IS DISPLAYED as a downgrade below AH

134
Q

What happens at the following Heights on a LVO?
700
400
350
200
40
30
10

A

700 - FMS frozen
400 - FCU frozen
350 - LAND must be displayed - ensures correct guidance
200 - Red Autoland light may become active
40 - FLARE
30 - THR IDLE in green
10 - RETARD

135
Q

What causes the RED AUTOLAND light to come on?

A

Both AP trip off
Excessive beam deviation
Loc or gs transmitter fails
RA discrepancy of 15ft is sensed

136
Q

What does FLS stand for?

A

FMS Landing System

137
Q

What is the final descent point? FDP

A

Way point from which starts the FMS coded segment with FPA. There may be differences between the chart and the box

138
Q

When should FPA be present on the FCU latest by?

A

1nm before FDP - You need to pull at 0.3nm

139
Q

Why do you need to ensure that THRST LVRS are at IDLE at touchdown?

A

To ensure Spoiler extension at touchdown

140
Q

You are landing on a contaminated runway, what reverse must you take?

A

MAX

141
Q

What is the factor used for RLD DRY?

A

ALD * 1.67

142
Q

What is the factor for RLD Wet?

A

ALD*1.15

143
Q

Is reverse thrust taken into account for ALD?

A

No

144
Q

What is the decel rate with full pedal braking and anti skid?

A

10kt per second

145
Q

When does the green decel light come on?

A

When actual decel is 80% of the selected rate

146
Q

What is the PARTIAL LIFT DUMPING?

A

When the a/c touches down with at least one main landing gear, and at least one thrust lever is in the reverse sector, the spoilers auto deploy to ensure that the aircraft will sit down on the ground and then fully deploy

147
Q

When is the last time that you can initiate a go-around?

A

Before the selection of reverse thrust

148
Q

You go to TOGA with the flaps lever not in 0, what happens?

A

SRS + GO AROUND TRACK (NAV)
Spoilers retract
Pitch to 15degress (12.5 single engine)
FD re-engage with HDG/VS

149
Q

Why should thrust levers go to TOGA during a go/around?

A

In order to activate SRS mode and go around phase

150
Q

What happens if you are clean and go to TOGA for a go-around?

A

No go-around mode activates, and aircraft will accelerate

151
Q

During a go-around what speed will SRS give you?

A

VAPP or IAS at TOGA, whichever is higher (limited to VAPP+25 or +15 single engine) until acceleration when the speed will increase to green dot

152
Q

How can you quickly disengage SRS?

A

Pull open climb

153
Q

You are in SRS mode during a go around, and pull open climb, what is the new speed target with managed speed?

A

Green dot

154
Q

What is the maximum permissible amount of ice under the wing?

A

3mm under wing tank

155
Q

At what speed does antiskid deactivate?

A

20kt

156
Q

What is the first warning to appear before getting ALPHA FLOOR?

A

SPEED SPEED SPEED

157
Q

What are the three effective tools to help escape windshear?

A

ALPHA FLOOR
SRS AP/FD
High AOA protection

158
Q

What does predictive windshear look like?

A

Windshear ahead
Go-around windshear ahead
W/S AHEAD on PFD

159
Q

What does reactive windshear look like?

A

Windshear windshear windshear
WINDSHEAR on PFD

160
Q

You encounter windshear with no FD displayed, what pitch do you select?

A

17.5 degrees and if necessary further backstick to prevent altitude loss

161
Q

During windshear with AP engaged, when may it drop out?

A

WHEN AoA goes above alpha prot

162
Q

What windshear alerts can you disregard?

A

Windshear ahead
Go-around windshear ahead

Only if there are no signs of possible windshear conditions
Reactive windshear is operational

163
Q

When are predictive windshear alerts inhibited?

A

Above 100kts and up to 50ft (so high speed part of take off roll up to 50ft)

164
Q

You get a predictive windshear during the climb out, what do you do?

A

Set toga and monitor the speed, change config as long as windshear is not encountered

165
Q

You get a “go-around windshear ahead” what do you do?

A

Set toga and go around unless having briefed that the airfield has issues and no hazard exists

166
Q

You encounter severe turbulence during take off, when is it recommended to change config?

A

TARGET SPEED +20 (limited to VFE-5)

167
Q

What happens when you have a single FMGC failure?

A

AP on affected side drops out
Use same range ring as other ND to have access to MAP

168
Q

What happens if you have a double FMGC failure?

A

AP/FD disconnect
ATHR Disconnects
May be possible to recover them, so try
Need to move the thrust levers to regain manual control
Switch of FDs and use the bird
RMPs can be used to tune the navaids
QRH reset - if it works, refer to FMGC reset and re sync from FCOM DSC to reload both FMGC as required
NAV Backup may be available - uses basic IRS nav

169
Q

Loss of braking - how do you recover?

A

Max reverse (if needed to stop urgently - be aware of stalls)
A/SKID and NWS off - release the pedals and command it off, then press the pedals - the ABCU will limit the pressure to 1000psi - monitor though
Parking brake - if still no braking use quick sharp successive applications

170
Q

Emergency Elec config - what causes it?

A

The loss of AC BUS 1+2

171
Q

What happens automatically with EMER ELEC config?

A

RAT auto deploys, powering the blue hydraulic system which drives the emergency generator. The emergency generator supplies both AC and DC ESS BUS

172
Q

When does the RAT stall?

A

Below 125kts, emergency generator is no longer powered. The emergency generation network is automatically transferred to the batteries and AC SHED ESS and DC SHED ESS BUS are shed.

173
Q

In EMER ELEC config, what happens below 100kt?

A

DC BAT BUS auto connects and below 50kt the AC ESS BUS is shed

174
Q

What PFD is available in emer elec?

A

PFD 1

175
Q

What is the min approach speed for the RAT?

A

140kts

176
Q

What is the max level to start the APU on batteries?

A

FL250

177
Q

How many minutes does the APU reduce battery life for, when starting on batteries?

A

3.5mins, battery flight time is more than 30mins

178
Q

You lose an engine just before rotation, what speed does SRS command?

A

The speed at which the engine failed, limited to V2 or V2+15

179
Q

You encounter an engine failure during the cruise, what do you do?

A

Thrust levers MCT
Disconnect ATHR
HDG
Descent to EO Cieling
.78/300kts
Approaching level off and when vs becomes less than 500ft, set vs to 500ft and ATHR on

180
Q

What do you do if you have an engine stall?

A

Apply QRH stall procedure

181
Q

You get a tailpipe fire, what do you do?

A

QRH Procedure

182
Q

No reversers work, what do you do?

A

Don’t select anything

183
Q

What can lead to a FLAP/SLATS fault?

A

Double SFCC failure
G+Y OR G+B failure
WTB

184
Q

What are the consequences of abnormal flaps and slats?

A

Laws may change
Selected speed used
Early stabilised approach used
Approach attitude changes
Speeds and landing distances increase
Modify the go around procedure

185
Q

Your flaps or slats fail at Takeoff, what do you do?

A

Pull speed knob to stop accelerating past VFE

186
Q

On selection of flaps/slats on the approach, they fail, what do you do?

A

Pull speed knob
Delay approach to complete ECAM
QRH procedure
Arrival brief

187
Q

What height can the AP be used down to for flaps or slats fault?

A

500ft

188
Q

When does the PTU kick in?

A

When pressure difference is greater than 500psi

189
Q

Why if you have Lo pressure in yellow or green must you turn off the PTU?

A

It will overheat within 2 mins and you will lose the other system

190
Q

What will a single hydraulic failure lead to regarding capability?

A

Cat 3 single

191
Q

What do you lose in case of a dual hydraulic failure?

A

Loss of AP
Flight control law degradation
Abnormal landing config
Extensive ECAM

192
Q

Why must you stabalize at VAPP before dropping the landing gear with a G+Y Hydraulic failure?

A

The stabalizer is lost, and auto trim function is provided through the elevators. Gear down leads to the loss of the auto trim function but it memorises the mean position of the elevator and becomes the reference for center stick position. If missed this could cause problems for go-around

193
Q

How many green triangles per wheel are required to show the gear is down and locked?

A

1

194
Q

Is it sufficient to rely on the LDG GEAR DN memo?

A

Yes

195
Q

Why is antiskid turned off for landing with abnormal LDG GEAR?

A

Because it has nothing to reference itself against and could lead to a brake released scenario

196
Q

On engine shutdown, for how long does hydraulic pressure last?

A

30 seconds

197
Q

You have a tyre burst, what do you do for performance for landing?

A

BRAKES-BRAKES RELEASED 1 (2,3,4) RELEASED

198
Q

Why during an evac, do you need to check Diff Pressure?

A

If the system has failed during the flight just to check once more

199
Q

How long must you press the take over PB to remove control from the other pilot?

A

40seconds

200
Q

When is the over speed alert triggered?

A

VMO+4 MMO+0.006

201
Q

What is the definition of a stall?

A

When the AoA increases beyond a point such that the lift begins to decrease

202
Q

What may you feel during a stall?

A

Buffet and a pitch up effect

203
Q

AoA stall depends on what?

A

Aircraft config - slats, flaps, speed brakes
Mach and Altitude
Wing Contamination

204
Q

When must you apply the stall procedure?

A

Stall warnings - aural and visual
Stall Buffet

Command Study (9 decks)

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