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Command Study > OMA > Flashcards

OMA Flashcards

1
Q

What is the “Regulatory Authority of the Commander”?

A

OMA 1.4
All persons carried in the Aircraft Obey all lawful commands given by the Commander for the safe conduct of the flight

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2
Q

What is the Regulatory Responsibility of the Commander?

A

OMA 1.4.1
Responsable for the safety of the aircraft and persons within
Offload PAX or Cargo due to safety
Ensure A/C is airworthy
Report Events such as Bird Strikes and TCAS
Deviate from Rules if due to safety

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3
Q

What are the Company Responsabilities?

A

Uniform standards
SOPS followed
Perfomance is completed

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4
Q

Are two Pilots aged 60 or more allowed to operate together?

A

No

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5
Q

How many members of the flight deck are required for boarding?

A

At least one member of the flight deck. This may be the first officer or captain.
4.1.1.5

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6
Q

Can you operate with reduced cabin crew from Originating base?

A

No. Only from a transit base and due to unforeseen circumstances. The Network Duty manager must be informed.
4.1.4

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7
Q

How many cabin crew are required for boarding?

A

One less than required providing that:
At least one member of the flight deck is in the flight deck
A qualified CM must be present
All SEP checks completed
No Fuelling
SCCM is responsible for front door
CC2 is present at rear 2 doors
CC3 is in the middle of the cabin
Max of 50pax per CC member until crew member arrives

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8
Q

What is the Alcohol policy?

A

None in the preceding 10hrs
Kept to a minimum in the 14 hours before a duty
Drunk in moderation 24 hrs before a duty

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9
Q

What are the rules for general Anaesthetics and Local??

A

48 hrs and 24HRS

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10
Q

How long should you wait after a vaccination?

A

24hrs

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11
Q

What does Acclimatised mean?

A

The crew member is synced to the local time zone +/-2hrs time zone surrounding the local time at point of departure

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12
Q

What time frame is an early start?

A

0500-0659z

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13
Q

What time frame is a late finish?

A

2300-0159z

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14
Q

What time frame is a night duty?

A

0200-0459

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15
Q

What is a flight duty period?

A

From report to engine shutdown

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16
Q

What is a duty period?

A

From report to 30mins after chocks on

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17
Q

Who can reduce standard report?

A

The commander only. However one crew member must receive a briefing allowance of at least 45mins

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18
Q

Where can you find the maximum daily FDP?

A

OMA 7.1.5.4.1
It is a general table, contractual agreements may be more restrictive

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19
Q

By how many hours can the maximum daily FDP period be extended?

A

1hr. The table in OMA7.1.5.4.1(1) shows the restrictions. Once again, local agreements may be more restrictive.

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20
Q

By how many hours can a captain increase maximum daily FDP?

A

Maximum of 2 hours.

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21
Q

If using commanders discretion, after how many minutes will a report have to be compiled to be sent to the authority?

A

60mins

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22
Q

How do you calculate FDP for delayed report?

A

If under a 4hr delay it is based on original report time, if over 4 hours it is the more limiting of the original report time or the delayed reporting time.

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23
Q

What is MSA

A

Minimum Sector Altitude, based on a reference point usually 25nm radius. They provide 1000ft of clearance down to the intermediate approach segment.

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24
Q

What is MORA?

A

Provide 1000ft of clearance for terrain up to 5000ft and 2000ft clearance above 5000ft within 20nm of route centreline. Minimum value is 2000ft. These are represented on flight plan as MFA (Min Flight Altitude)

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25
Q

What is MGA?

A

Minimum Grid Altitude
Provides lowest safe altitude off track. Minimum value is 2000ft. Provides clearance of 1000ft up to 6000ft and 2000ft clearance above 6000ft. Shown in 100s of ft.

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26
Q

When do we apply low altitude temperature corrections?

A

When the surface temperature is -10 degrees celsius or below.

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27
Q

What do we apply low altitude temperature corrections too?

A

Take the elevation of the aerodrome as the elevation of the altimeter source.

Apply to DA/MDA
MIN Altitudes after FAF
FAF except those with published temp limit

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28
Q

What is the RFFS (Rescue and Fire Fighting Service) required for our 3 aircraft types?

A

A319/320 - 6
A321 - 7

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29
Q

What is the minimum acceptable RFFS downgrade for Departure or Destination?

A

5 - and it will be on OFP if permitted

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30
Q

What level of downgrade of RFFS is acceptable for Departure or destination if notified by ATC/NOTAM/ETC for a period of less than 72 hrs?

A

2 downgrades

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31
Q

What is the minimum level required for planning purposes for RFFS for Take-off ALT, Dest Alt, and Enroute Alt?

A

Non UK - 4
UK - 5

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32
Q

Can we fly to isolated aerodromes?

A

No

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33
Q

What is the maximum distance required for an Adequate Aerodrome?

A

A319 – 380 nm

A320 – 400 nm

A321 – 400 nm

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34
Q

What is the Maximum distance required for a Take Off Alternate?

A

320nm

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35
Q

What time period must be considered for WX reports and forecasts for destination and alternates?

A

+/-1 hour

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36
Q

When is a take-off alternate required?

A

When a return to departure is not possible due to met conditions taking into consideration one engine inop or MEL items from dispatch.

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37
Q

What are the planning requirements for a Take-Off Alternate?

A

within 320nm

Weather at or above applicable minima for expected approach

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38
Q

When are two destination alternates required?

A

When reports or forecast at destination are below minima

No Met information available

Wind or runway state causes performance to not be guaranteed

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39
Q

Why do destination alternates require different planning minima?

A

To mitigate the risk that they fall below operating minima due to unforeseen weather deteriorations

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40
Q

What are the planning minima for type B approaches for destination alternates with the new fuel procedure?

A

DA/H + 200ft
RVR/VIS +550m

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41
Q

What are the planning minima for 3d type a approaches for destination alternates with the new fuel procedure?

A

DA/H + 200ft
RVR/VIS + 800

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42
Q

What are the planning minima for two or more type A approaches based on separate nav aids for destination alternates?

A

DA/H or MDA/H+200
RVR Vis + 1000

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43
Q

What are the planning minima for other type A approaches for destination alternates?

A

DA/H MDA/H +400
RVR/VIS +1500

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44
Q

What are the planning minima for circling approaches for destination alternates?

A

MDA/H + 400 ft
VIS + 1 500 m

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45
Q

When can you plan a flight without a destination alternate?

A

Destination has two separate landing runways

Planned flight does not exceed 6hours or if requiring inflight replanning does not exceed 4 hrs

Weather is at least:
ceiling 2000ft or curling +500 whichever is greater and visibility on ground is 5km

Additional fuel is carried

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46
Q

What are the Planning Minima for Destination Alternate and Fuel ERA Aerodromes (Flight Monitoring Function not Available)

A

Type B instrument approach operations
DA/H + 200 ft
RVR/VIS + 800 m

Type A instrument approach operations
DA/H or MDA/H + 400 ft
RVR/VIS + 1500 m

Circling approach operations
MDA/H + 400 ft
VIS + 1500 m

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47
Q

What are TYPE A and TypeB approaches?

A

Type A Instrument Approach Operation: An instrument approach operation with an MDH or a DH at or above 250 ft.

Type B Instrument Approach Operation: An operation with a DH below 250 ft. Type B instrument approach operations are categorised as:

  1. Category I (CAT I): a DH not lower than 200 ft and with either a visibility not less than 800 m or an RVR not less than 550 m;
  2. Category II (CAT II): a DH lower than 200 ft but not lower than 100 ft, and an RVR not less than 300 m;
  3. Category III (CAT III): a DH lower than 100 ft or no DH, and an RVR less than 300 m or no RVR limitation.
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48
Q

If no RVR reported, what is the min RVR/VIS for T/O?

A

500 m (day)
Nil**

400 m (day)
Centre line markings or
Runway edge lights or
Runway centre line markings

400 m (night)
Runway end lights*** and
Runway edge lights or runway centre line lights.

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49
Q

What is the minimum RVR and facilities for LVTO?

A

125m and
Centre line markings; and
Runway end lights; and
Runway edge lights (spaced 60 m or less); and
Runway centre line lights (spaced 15 m or less).

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50
Q

How far down the runway does the minimum RVR apply for take off?

A

The minimum RVR value specified in Table 8.1.3.3(2) should be achieved for all reporting points representative of the parts of the runway from the point at which the aircraft commences the take-off until the calculated accelerate-stop distance from that point.

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51
Q

Why is the minimum RVR value 125m for LVTO?

A

The value of 125 m RVR for take-off with 15 m centre line lights spacing has been selected because flight deck geometry means that this will provide at least a 90 m visual segment for the large majority of aircraft types. In a 90 m visual segment the pilot is expected to be able to see six centre line light intervals (seven centre line lights) at 15 m spacing once lined up on the runway centre line.

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52
Q

What is the lowest ILS CAT 1 system minima

A

200ft
550/125/75

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53
Q

What is the lowest SA CAT 1 system minima?

A

150ft
400/125/75

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54
Q

What is the lowest CAT II system minima?

A

100ft
300/125/75

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55
Q

What is the lowest SA CAT II system minima?

A

100ft
350/125/75

56
Q

What is the lowest CATIII with DH below 100 but above 50ft system minima?

A

<100>=50ft
175/125/75

57
Q

What is the lowest CAT III DH less than 50ft or no DH system minima?

A

<50 or NO DH
Fail Operational required
75/75/75

58
Q

Is multiple RVR required for CAT 1 OR SA CAT1??

A

No

59
Q

What is the minimum RVR for aircraft using roll out guidance?

A

75m at the midpoint

60
Q

When can you NOT use CMV? (there are 2 cases)

A

1) Cannot be used to satisfy take-off minima

2) Cannot be used for the purpose of continuing an approach in LVOs

61
Q

Can you continue an approach if, after passing 1000ft there is a failure of a ground aid?

A

Yes, at the commanders discretion

62
Q

What are the requirements for a visual approach?

A

> 2500 cloud ceiling or circling minimum if it is higher
5km Vis

63
Q

What is contingency fuel for?

A

To cover possible deviations between planned and actual flying conditions.

64
Q

When can contingency fuel be used?

A

Any time after flight commencement e.g. after pushback or engine start

65
Q

If SCF is available what will the fuel figure be?

A

The greater of:
Cont95 or Cont99 for selected city pairs

or

An amount to fly at holding speed for 5mins at 1500ft overhead the destoination

66
Q

IF SCF is not available what is the contingency fuel?

A

Greater of:
5% of planned trip fuel
or
5mins at 1500ft overhead airfield at holding speed.

67
Q

What is final reserve fuel?

A

Fuel to fly at holding speed for 30 mins at 1500ft

68
Q

What does Reduced Contingency fuel require?

A

Selection of Fuel ERA (and therefore planning minima for it)

If SCF is available contingency fuel can be reduced to the greater of:
Cont90 and an amount to fly 5mins 1500ft cat holding speed
and
some fuel as per OMA

69
Q

How far should a Fuel ERA be?

A

Circle drawn with radius of 20% of total flight distance with the centre of the circle drawn at a distance 25% of flight plan distance from the alternate.

70
Q

What age are adults classified from?

A

12yrs

71
Q

What age are children classified from?

A

2-12yrs

72
Q

What is a “Level 1” defect?

A

It affects the airworthiness of the aircraft.

73
Q

What is a “Level 2” defect?

A

Does not affect airworthiness

74
Q

How long is a daily inspection valid for?

A

48Hrs in addition to the remaining part of the day that it was carried out on.

It must be certified after the last flight of the day

It must be certified after 1800z

The Daily inspection must remain valid for the intended flight or series of flights

75
Q

if the Daily Inspection is certified after the last flight of the day at 2245 UTC on Tuesday 17th September its validity commences at 0001 UTC on Wednesday 18th September and expires at 2359 UTC on Thursday 19th September. If on the final sector, the on-block time is predicted to be later than 2359 UTC due to unforeseen circumstances in flight (holding etc.), what can you do?

A

the flight may continue to the planned destination or alternate aerodrome.

76
Q

What do you do if the CRS (Certificate release to service) is left blank?

A

Call MOC, it may indicate an open defect.

77
Q

When can a commander defer a defect?

A

After talking to MOC

78
Q

When is “FOR INFO” used in the tech log?

A

When it is not a DEFECT

You must inform MOC before inserting a “FOR INFO” to ensure that it is appropriate

79
Q

If you perform a QRH reset what must you do with the tech log?

A

Insert “CREW RESET” with the info on the reset, sign and date, but cross out “Action Taken” and CRS column.

80
Q

What documents must be carried on board an Austro AOC?

A

Certificate of Airworthiness
Certificate of Registration
Radio License

81
Q

Who is responsible for observing the correct fuelling procedures?

A

The Commander

82
Q

What are the pre-conditions regarding fuelling with passengers onboard?

A

Emergency exit lights working
All doors disarmed
Door 1Left open and connected to stairs or airbridge
Door 2Left should be open with stairs, but may be closed providing that the area around it is kept clear
Must have full cabin crew
Pax must be briefed

83
Q

Does easyJet carry deceased PAX?

A

No

84
Q

Can we carry “Waste” in the hold?

A

Yes, at some airports that do not collect inbound aircraft waste. There are procedures to follow about this.

85
Q

Can we carry Human Organs?

A

Yes, ICC will be contacted (most likely at short notice) It should be carried in the flight deck.

86
Q

What are the three types of de/anti-ice fluid?

A

Type 1 - Unthickened
Type ii - Thickened
Type IV - Thickened (advanced)

87
Q

When operating in class E airspace below 10,000ft what shall you do?

A

Do not rely on TCAS
Fly 250kts or less
Turn on landing lights

88
Q

On a visual approach what height must you maintain until established on a final descent path?

A

1500ft aal or 500ft above terrain or obstacles

89
Q

What is NADP1?

A

Acceleration begins at 3000ft above ground level

90
Q

What is NADP2?

A

Acceleration beings at 800ft (when updated in flysmart)

91
Q

What is the minimum navigation error (in percent) that an aircraft operating in RNP airspace must achieve?

A

RNPx 95%

92
Q

On any RNP approaches can you accept a Direct to the FAF?

A

NO

93
Q

On any RNP approaches can you accept a Direct to the fix at which a RF leg starts?

A

NO

94
Q

What do you say if you cannot continue due to equipment failure for an RNAV?

A

“UNABLE RNAV DUE EQUIPMENT”

95
Q

What is RVSM?

A

RVSM airspace is above FL290 up to FL410 and provides 1000ft clearance instead of 2000ft

96
Q

What equipment should be operating normally for RVSM airspace?

A

2 primary Altimeters
One AP
One Altitude alerting system
Trasnponder

97
Q

What is the maximum difference in altitude that the Primary altitude indicators can differ by before entering RVSM airspace?

A

200ft

98
Q

When can you disregard an EGPWS alert?

A

If during daylight VMC you determine that it is nuisance and can see the terrain and flight path ahead is clear

99
Q

Do you need to report an EGPWS alert if it is nuisance?

A

Yes

100
Q

How often should you make fuel checks?

A

At least once per hour or once per flight if flight is less than one hour

101
Q

In case of diversion from destination to destination alternate in flight, are pre-planning flight rules applicable?

A

No, actual approach and weather conditions are

102
Q

What does “Minimum Fuel” mean?

A

All options have been reduced to one airfield for landing and that any changes to the current clearance would result in the aircraft landing with less than reserve fuel.

103
Q

How far laterally should you avoid a thunderstorm?

A

20nm

104
Q

You encounter volcanic ash in flight, what do you do?

A

Make 180degree turn
Notify ATC
Apply volcanic ash QRH procedure
Write an ASR

105
Q

How does a large temperature inversion effect performance?

A

Shortly after take off can seriously degrade take off perf.

106
Q

What is the wake separation on departure from an a380 departing from the same position?

A

3mins

107
Q

What is the wake separation on departure from an a380 departing from an intermediate position?

A

4mins

108
Q

What is the wake separation on departure from a HEAVY departing from the same position?

A

2mins

109
Q

What is the wake separation on departure from a HEAVY departing from an intermediate position?

A

3mins

110
Q

What is the wake separation on final approach from an A380?

A

7nm

111
Q

What is the wake separation on final approach from a Heavy?

A

5nm

112
Q

What is the separation on approach vs a Medium?

A

Minimum is 2.5nm

113
Q

What is the minimum separation time landing after and A380?

A

3mins

114
Q

Can a PAX sit on the cabin crew seat?

A

Yes, prior to dispatch with Duty pilot authorisation

Inflight, at commanders discretion and with SCCM permission.

115
Q

What is the automation policy?

A

Crew need to brief
2 flight duties within a 14day period

116
Q

What is the minimum RVR for an instrument approach converted to a visual straight-in approach?

A

RVR not less than 800m

(OMA 8.4.2.1)

117
Q

What is the minima for a visual approach?

A

5km vis
2500ft cloud base (or circling if higher)

118
Q

What is the minimum RVR required for landing for aircraft with Roll-Out Guidance?

A

Midpoint and stop end 75m

119
Q

What is the minimum RVR for landing for aircraft with no rollout guidance?

A

Midpoint 125m
Stop end 75m

120
Q

Can you use VNAV for a non-precision overlay approach when the temperature is less than-10degrees?

A

No

121
Q

Can we use LPV or LP minima from LIDO?

A

NO

122
Q

What visual reference and minima is required for a CAT 1 ILS?

A

Minima is 200ft
Min vis is 550m
One visual reference for the intended runway is distinct and visible

123
Q

Are we permitted to carry out SA CAT 1?

A

No

124
Q

What is the stable approach criteria for circling?

A

Below 400ft TDZE:

Max Bank 15 degrees
Within +/-30 degrees of final approach track

125
Q

Can we circle to land without vertical guidance at night?

A

no

126
Q

When is a take off a LVTO?

A

Below 550m RVR

127
Q

What is the minimum RVR required for take off?

A

125m RVR

128
Q

Are easyJet approved to conduct SA CAT II Ops?

A

Yes

129
Q

What minima and visual references are required for a CAT II

A

100FT
300M RVR

3 Consecutive lights & a lateral element

130
Q

What is the minima required for a CAT III with DH <100>50ft?

A

RVR 175m
Fail passive or Fail Operational System
3 Consecutive lights

131
Q

What is the minima required for a CAT III with DH <50 or No DH?

A

RVR 75M
Fail Operational system
with DH<50 1 light

132
Q

When the RVR is less than 125m what should be the taxi speed?

A

10kts MAX

133
Q

When you have no operating cabin crew, what is the maximum number of passengers you can carry?

A

19

134
Q

When is green light boarding?

A

-30

135
Q

What’s the earliest time you can depart from the gate?

A

10mins ahead of schedule

Command Study (9 decks)

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