Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FINALS > oddities > Flashcards

oddities Flashcards

1
Q

What are the filling pressures like in heart failure

A

Normal or high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What symptoms does left heart failure lead to

A

Lung symptoms: pulmonary oedema, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dysponea, fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What symptoms does right heart failure lead to

A

Body symptoms: pedal oedema, raised JVP, ascites, hepatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Definitive treatment of heart failure

A

TAVI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Acute management of heart failure

A

High flow oxygen, IV GTN, IV furosemide, IV morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who gets pneumococcal and influenza vaccines

A

COPD and HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

2nd line treatment for heart failure

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

3rd line treatment for heart failure

A

Candesartan and hydralazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Causes of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Alcoholic or idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Symptoms of cardiomyopathy

A

Dyspnoea, fatigue, pulmonary oedema and emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

First line treatment of pericarditis

A

Cardiocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Second line treatment of pericarditis

A

Ibuprofen, Omeprazole, Colchicine, Exercise restriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Triad of signs of pericarditis

A

Low BP, Raised JVP, Muffled HS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Treatment of aortic aneurysm

A

Asprin, Ace Inhibitor, Beta blocker, Statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Treatment of aortic dissection

A

ABCDE, labetalol and morphine before surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Treatment post aortic repair

A

HTN below 120, BB and ACEI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lead V1-V4 artery and area

A

LAD, Anterior/ Septal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Leads 2,3,AVF artery and area

A

RCA, inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Leads V5,6 and 1, artery and area

A

Circumflex and lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Stage 2 hypertension values

A

160/100 or 150/95 at home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Angina ongoing treatment

A

GTN, Aspirin, BB, Statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Advice about taking GTN

A

Expect pounding headache and light head

Take, 5 mins, take, 5 mins, take phone ambulance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Signs of VSD and AVSD

A

Systolic murmur and thrill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cardinal sign of coarctation

A

Right arm hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cyanotic structural heart disease without shunts

A

Coarctation, congenital AS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Acyanotic structural heart disease without shunts

A

Pulmonary stenosis, tricuspid regurg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Treatment of structural heart disease

A

Surgery, IE prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Regular broad complex tachycardia

A

VT

Give amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Regular narrow complex tachycardia

A

SVT
Vagal Manouveres
Adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Wolf parkinson white ECG

A

Delta waves (slope on the Q)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Sustained ventricular tachycardia

A

VT/ ectopic lasting more than 30s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Non sustained ventricular tachycardia

A

VT/ ectopic lasting less than 30s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Digoxin antidote

A

Digoxin Immune Fab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

AV node reentrant tachycardia

A

Often young people, most common SVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe sarcoid features

A

Non caseating granulomas
Bilateral lymphadenopathy, fibrosis, fever,arthralgia
Young black woman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Diagnosis of sarcoid

A

Bronchoscopy and biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Features of IPF

A

Clubbing, fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Diagnosis of IPF

A

High resolution chest CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Treatment of IPF

A

IV prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Antifibrinolytic for IPF

A

Perfenidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Active TB 1st investigation

A

CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Active TB diagnostic investigation

A

Sputum for NAAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What do you give to treat isoniazid neuropathy

A

Pyridoxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How long do you treat CNS TB for

A

12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Potts Disease

A

Spinal TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pulmonary Hypertension clinical findings

A

Loud Second Pulmonary HS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Treatment of H Influenza pneumonia

A

Amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Treatment of S Aureus pneumonia

A

Flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Treatment of pulmonary hypertension

A

Diuretics, Calcium Channel Blockers, ?LTOT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Treatment of pseudomonas

A

Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Diagnosis of bronchiectasis

A

High resolution CT Chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Treatment of bronchiectasis

A

Firstly: Exercise and Diet. Then chest Physio, nebulised saline and salbutamol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Exudative pleural effusion

A

High protein, Infection, Cancer, PE, Connective tissue disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Transudative pleural effusion

A

Low protein, cardiac, renal, liver failure, Meigs, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Treatment of pleural effusion

A

Thoracocentesis then furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Treatment of a secondary pneumothorax less than 1cm in size

A

Oxygen and observe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Treatment of a secondary pneumothorax in a patient over 50

A

Chest drain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Wegeners features

A

Nasal, lung and glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Other name of wegeners

A

Granulomatosis with Polyangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Treatment of GPA/ Wegeners

A

IV prednisolone
Methotrexate
Folic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How do you diagnose goodpastures

A

Renal biopsy= cresenteric glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Treatment of goodpastures

A

1- IV pred

Definitive- plasmaphoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Where can mesothelioma involve

A

Pleura, perineum, pericardium and testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Describe pleuritic fluid in mesothelioma

A

Bloody and straw coloured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

PE Wells score over 4

A

Skip D Dimer, go straight to CTPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How long on a DOAC for a provoked PE (not cancer)

A

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When and how do you use fibrinolysis in PE

A

Alteplase when they are haemodynamically unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How do you treat a meconium ileus

A

Constrast enema and lactulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is a gene modulator for CF

A

Ivacafter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What does the FBC of a COPD patient show

A

Secondary polycythaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How do you treat an infective exacerbation of COPD

A

Amoxicillin and Prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What virus can cause a COPD exacerbation

A

Rhinovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which virus commonly causes tonsilitis

A

Adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Name 2 nasal decongestants used for sinusitis

A

Pseudoephidrine, oxymetalozine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Treatment of croup

A

Adrenaline nebulised, dexamethasone, oxygen, fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Treatment of epiglottitis

A

Intubation and IV fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Score used for common cold

A

CENTOR/McIsaac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is needed for diagnosis of pneumonia

A

Chest XR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Pneumonia treatment in penicillin allergic patient

A

Cefuroxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Post influenzae pneumonia cause

A

staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Gram negative hospital acquired pneumonia

A

E Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

ITP, Encephalopathy, Pneumonia, Diagnose on serology

A

Mycoplasma Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Hypernatraemia and Pneumonia

A

Legionella, diagnose with urinary antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Treatment of atypical pneumonia

A

Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Features of adenocarcinoma

A

Non smokers, gynaecomastia, HPOA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What warrants a 2WW for lung cancer

A

40 + and haemoptysis
CXR suspicious of cancer
40 + and 2 symptoms suspicious of cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Asthma questions to ask in hisotry

A

Last 3 months

  • nocturnal waking
  • daily symptoms
  • affecting ADLs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

COPD questions to ask in history

A

Home Oxygen?
How Many Exacerbations?
How Many Rescue Packs?
How Many Admissions?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Diagnostic for cholecystitis when query sepsis

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are 2 things that bile stones can be made of

A

90% cholesterol, 10% calcium bilirubinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What type of cancer is oesophagea

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Where does oesophageal cancer metastasise to

A

Lung and liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Describe two distinct features of gastric cancer

A 
Epigastric pain that doesn't radiate
Tingling feet (from b12 deficiency)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Treatment of gastric cancer

A

Chemo and surgical resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What type of cancer is pancreatic cancer

A

Ductal adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Investigation for pancreatic cancer

A

CT and tumour markers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Where is the pain for pancreatic cancer

A

Epigastric/ RUQ/ LUQ but radiates to the back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What type of cancer is colorectal cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Bowel cancer screening

A

FIT/FOB testing for 60-74 year olds, once every 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Diagnostic investigation for colorectal cancer

A

Colonoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What imaging is used for staging colon cancer

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What imaging is used for staging rectal cancer

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Treatment fo severe colon cancer

A

Radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Treatment of mild rectal cancer

A

Transanal excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

First line treatment of an acute crohns flare

A

IV hydrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Second line treatment of acute crohns flare

A

Azathioprine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Third line treatment of acute crohns fare

A

Infliximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Complications of crohns

A

Fistulae, abscesses, colon cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Extra GI features of crohns

A

Arthropathy, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosm. Uveitis and episcleritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Treatment of a symptomatic hernia

A

Laparoscopic mesh repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Chronic diarrhoea and malabsoprtion diagnosis and management

A

Giardiasis and metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What causes Guillain Barre Syndrome

A

Campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Whats the likely causative organism when the diarrhoea is bloody with abdominal pain

A

Shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Vomitting and diarrhoea within 6 hours of ingesting dodgy food

A

S Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Which two bloods can rule out appendicitis

A

FBC and CRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

How do you treat appendicitis if theyre not for surgery

A

Antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Distinctive blood result of diverticulitis

A

Polymorphonuclear lymphocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Treatment of diverticulitis

A

Increase fibre in diet, analgesia and antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Where is the pain in pancreatitis

A

LUQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Invesigation for acute pancreatitis

A

Serum lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Investigation for chronic pancreatitis

A

Abdominal ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Symptoms of hereditary haemochromatosis

A

Bronze skin, hepatomegaly, diabetes, likely post menopausal if female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Diagnostic investigation for hereditary haemochromatosis

A

HFE gene testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Treatment of hereditary haemochromatosis

A

Desferrioxamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Diagnostic investigation for wilsons disease

A

24 hour urinary copper excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Treatment of wilsons disease

A

Zinc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency first linvestigation

A

Spirometry and LFTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Alpa 1 antitrpysin deficiency diagnostic investigation

A

Plasma alpha 1 antitrpysin level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

First treatment in Alpha 1 antitrpysin deficiency

A

Smoking cessation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Investigation for ascites

A

Ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Investigation for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

A

Ascitic fluid- absolute neutrophil count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Symptoms of volvolus

A

Abdo pain and bilious vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Investigation for volvolus

A

Upper GI contrast CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Treatment of volvolus

A

Ladd procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Hep A first line investigation

A

Anti HAV antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Hep A diagnostic investigation

A

HAV RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

First line treatment of Hep B

A

Interferon alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Long term treatment of Hep B

A

Tenofovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Hep C first line investigation

A

Anti HCV antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Hep C diagnostic investigation

A

HCV RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Hep D first line investigation

A

Anti HDV antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Which of the Hepatitises are RNA

A

ACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Hep E first line investigation

A

Anti HEV antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Hep E diagnostic investigation

A

HEV RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What should be calculated for alcoholic cirrhosis

A

Discriminant function (bilirubin and PTT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Treatment of ascites

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Treatment of portal hypertension

A

Propanolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Treatment to prevent hepatic encephalopathy

A

Lactulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What causes UC flares

A

NSAIDs and stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

UC on biopsy

A

No granulomas or inflammation beyond submucosa, reduced goblet cells, crypt abscesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What is mild UC flare

A

Less than 4 stools a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Second line treatment of Acute Severe UC flare

A

IV Ciclosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Third line treatment of Acute Severe UC flare

A

Infliximab trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

PBC and PSC treatment

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

PSC diagnosis

A

ERCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

New painless obstructive jaundice

A

Pancreatic cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Well person, new jaundice after new drug/ antibiotic

A

Acute drug induced liver injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Bloods for coeliac

A

IgA TTG and serum IgA levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Associated symptoms of coeliac

A 
Dermatitis Herpetiformis
Osteomalacia
Enteropathy associated T cell lymphoma of small bowel
Hyposplenism
Anaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What does dermatitis herpetiformis look like

A

Cluster of itchy bumps, eczema like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Anaemia of B12, Folate and IDA after travel

A

Tropical sprue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Investigation for haemorrhoids

A

Anoscopic examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

First line treatment for haemorrhoids

A

Diet and lifestyle change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Second line treatment for haemorrhoids

A

Topical hydrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Third line treatment for haemorrhoids

A

Band ligation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Investigation for anal fistulae

A

MRI and ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Treatment of anal fistulae

A

Fistulotomy and drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Anal fissure symptoms

A

Tearing sensation, blood, defecation pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Anal fissure treatment

A

Lifestyle, topical GTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

GORD treatment

A

8 week PPI and lifestyle measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What do you give if nocturnal symptoms with GORD

A

Rantidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

When do you do an OGD in GORD

A 
Over 55
Weight Loss
More than 4 weeks
OR
Relapsing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What treatment does mallory weiss tear need

A

Resolves spontaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Diagnosis of mallory weiss tear

A

OGD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Plummer vinson syndrome

A

Glossitis, IDA and dysphagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Boerhaave syndrome

A

Retrosternal chest pain, vomiting, surgical emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Eradication of H Pylori

A

Amoxicillin (or metronidazole) + clarithromycin + omeprazole for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Treatment of varices

A

Blood, terlipressin, prophylactic ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Investigation of varices

A

OGD, NILS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Symptoms of scleroderma

A

CREST and fibrosis and renal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

limited systemic sclerosis antibody

A

Anti centromere antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Diffuse systemic sclerosis antibody

A

Anti Scl 70/ antitopoisomerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

First line treatment of IBS

A

Lifestyle and FODMAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

2nd line treatment of IBS

A

Constipation: lactulose
Diarrhoea: loperamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Requirements for IBS diagnosis

A

1 day a week for past 3 months with 2 of

  • altered stool frequency
  • altered stool form
  • pain associated with defecation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Treatment for unstable patient with SBO Sx or AXR suggestive of SBO

A

CAT 1 laparatomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Investigation for stable patient with SBO Sx or AXR suggestive fo SBO

A

CT with contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Features for surgery in small bowel obstruction

A

Bowel ischaemia
Closed loop obstruction
Obstructive lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Tympanic abdomen

A

Large bowel obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Investigation for large bowel obstruction

A

AXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Charcot Marie Tooth

A

Motor inherited neuropathy. Frequently sprained ankles. Foot abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Posterior spinal cord neuropathy

A

Romberg positive, sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Lateral spinal cord neuropahty

A

UMN signs (motor) and spastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Describe alcohol neuropathy and treatment

A

Sensory then motor. Treatment is pabrinex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Important thing to do after giving prednisolone in GCA

A

Opthalmology review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Severe stabbing pain in one side of face

A

Trigeminal neuralgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Treatment of parkinsons

A

Levodopa (dopaminergic) and Carbidopa (decarboxylase inhibitor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Incontinence, dementia and ataxia

A

Symptoms of normal pressure hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Investigation for normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

MRI and CSF flow studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Treatment of normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Diagnosis of huntingtons

A

CAG repeat testing (more than 40)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Treatment of huntingtons

A

Symptomatic- SSRI or haloperidol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

DMARD in MS

A

Interferon beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Acute treatment in MS

A

Methylprednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Symptoms of MS

A

Foot drop, UMN, optic neuritis, Lhermittes electric shock down spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Investigations for Myasthenia Gravis

A

Serum anticholinesterase receptor antibodies

Muscle Specific Tyrosine kinase antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

What imaging might you do in Myasthenia Gravis

A

CT chest looking for thymoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Treatment for MND

A

Riluzole and supportive care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Investigations for meningitis

A

LP, blood cultures, bloods inc lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Who gets amoxicillin added on for meningitis

A

Over 50 or under 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

What do you treat meninigitis with

A

Cefuroxime (+amox) and IV dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Treatment of fungal meningitis

A

Amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Treatment of viral meningitis

A

Aciclovir (as likely HSV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Treatment of CMV

A

Ganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Investigation of encephalitis

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

How long does a TIA last

A

Up to 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Investigation of TIA

A

ECG and bloods (FBC, clotting, U and E, glucose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

Whats the treatment of TIA

A

300mg aspirin

Long term clopidogrel and statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

16-30 year old with spinal cord compression

A

Trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

30-50 year old with spinal cord compression

A

Disc disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

40 plus year old with spinal cord disease

A

Malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Acute onset spinal symptoms

A

Trauma or disc herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Chronic onset spinal symptoms

A

Osteoporosis, osteomyelitis or malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Treatment of spinal cord compression

A

Immobilisation and decompressive laminectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Treatment of spinal malignancy

A

Corticosteroids, surgery and radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

What tissue do most pancreatic cancers come from

A

Exocrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Imaging for abscess

A

Ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Hayfever treatment

A

Daily oral antihistamine, daily nasal steroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Who gets an erythematous rash with amoxicillin

A

Allergic, CLL and infectious mononucleosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Most common brain tumour

A

Astrocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

Investigation for astrocytoma

A

MRI and surgical biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Progression of astrocytoma

A

Pilocytic, diffuse, anaplastic, glioblastoma multiforme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Visible bony growth, brain tumour

A

Meningioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Child, vomiting relieves headache

A

Medulloblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Medulloblastoma imaging

A

CT and MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

Treatment of medulloblastoma

A

Resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

Mild head injury GCS

A

13-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Moderate head injury GCS

A

9-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

Severe head injury GCS

A

<9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

Vision change caused by parietal lobe problem

A

Inferior vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Vision change caused by temporal lobe problem

A

Superior vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

Vision change caused by pitiutary tumour

A

superior quadrant defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Vision change caused by craniopharyngoma

A

Inferior quadrant defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

Treatment of brain bleeds

A

Phenytoin

Removal of anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Treatment of subarrachnoid haemorrhage

A

ABCDE and nimodipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

2nd line epilepsy medication

A

Lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

How long does an epileptic need to be seizure free before they can drive

A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

How long do you have to be seizure free after 1 seizure if not epileptic

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

3 things for Total anterior circulation stroke

A

Honomymous hemianopia, motor, cognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

1st line treatment of stroke

A

Alteplase within 4.5 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Contraindication for alteplase for stroke

A

Bleeding anywhere or neuro disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

Alternative to alteplase for stroke

A

Thrombectomy in 6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Long term medications after stroke

A

Clopidogrel and statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

AF and stroke, anticoagulant choice

A

DOAC not clopidogrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Imaging for stroke

A

Carotid artery doppler and CT head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

Which artery causes locked in syndrome

A

Basilar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Acronym for features of migraine

A

POUNDing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Prophylaxis of Tension headache

A

Amitryptilline and acupuncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

Treatment of acute tension headache

A

NSAID and paracetamol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

Treatment of acute migraine

A

Sumatriptan and ibuprofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Prophylaxis of migraine

A

Propanolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Symptoms of cluster headache

A

autonomic and one sided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

How many counts as chronic tension headache

A

15 a month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

Symptoms of migraine

A

Pounding, pulsatile, 4-72 hours, unilateral N and V, disabling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

When do you operate on varicocele

A

More than 2cm, 20% volume or symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

Hydrocele description

A

Fluid collection which varies in size (operate if 2-21yrs old or infected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

What would you see on Ultrasound of a torsion testes

A

Whirlpool sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

Investigations for ED

A

Sexual health inventory for men
Glucose
Lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

2 line treatment of ED

A

Intracavernous alprostadil suppository

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

3rd line treatment of ED

A

intraurethral alprostadil suppository

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Investigation for renal colic

A

Non contrast KUB CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

Treatment of nephrolithiasis acutely

A

PR diclofenac and ondansetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

Treatment of urice acid renal stones

A

Allopurinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

Treatment of calcium renal stones

A

Indapamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

Treatment of oxalate renal stones

A

Calcium carbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

Treatment of all renal stones

A

Pottasium citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

BHcG is a tumour marker for which

A

Choriocarcinoma or seminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

AFP is a tumour marker for which

A

Non seminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

LDH is a tumour marker for which

A

Tumour burden

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

Investigation for testicular cancer

A

Ultrasound and tumour markers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

Investigation for prostatic cancer

A

PR and PSA then TRUS (Transrectal US guided needle biopsy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

Treatment for prostate cancer when more than 10 years to live

A

Brachytherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

Treatment for prostate cancer when high risk

A

Prostatectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

Treatment for prostate cancer when metastatic

A

Androgen deprivation with lueprolin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

third line treatment for BPH

A

Sildenafil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

Non bothersome BPH treatment

A

Watchful waiting and behaviour management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

What does BPH surgery choice depend on

A

TUIP, TURP or prostatectomy dependent on prostate volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

Nephrotic child treatment

A

MCD so give pred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

Young adult nephrotic treatment

A

FSGN so ACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

Older person nephrotic treatment

A

IgA so ACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

Criteria for PCKD in under 30s

A

2 cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

Criteria for PCKD in 30-60 year olds

A

2 cysts in each kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

Criteria for PCKD in 60+ year olds

A

4 cysts in each kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

Other considerations in PCKD

A

ECG and CT head as aneurysm and murmur risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

Pyelonephritis first investigations

A

MC and S of urine, blood culture and bloods (renal US)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

Treatment of chlamydia

A

Azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

Treatment for Gonorrhoea

A

Ceftriaxone and azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

Causative organisms of prostatitis

A

E Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

Treatment of prostatitis

A

Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

Cystitis commonly caused by

A

E Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

Cystitis treatment first line

A

3 days trimethoprim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

Treatment of complicated cystitis

A

Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

ECG changes in hypercalcaemia

A

Reduced QT interval
Osborn J waves
Arrythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

Causes of hypocalcaemia

A

Parathyroidectomy
Vitamin D
Bisphosphonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

Hypocalcaemia ECG

A

Long QT

Arrythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

Treatment of hypocalcaemia

A

IV calcium gluconate (then AdcalD3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

Name a vitamin D supplement

A

Colecalciferol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

Diagnostic investigation of diabetes insipidus

A

Water deprivation test (wont concentrate urine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

Treatment of central diabetes insipidus

A

Desmopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

Treatment of diabetes insipidus

A

Fluid intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

Treatment of SIADH

A

Fluid restriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

1st line investigation for conns

A

Serum aldosterone: renin ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

Diagnostic investigation for conns

A

Fludrocortisone suppresion test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

Treatment of Conns

A

Adrenalectomy or spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

Acute treatment of addisons

A

IV hydrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

Long term treatment of addisons

A

Hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone for life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

Biochemistry in primary hyperparathyroidism

A

PTH high, calcium high, urine calcium low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

Causes of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Low calcium, parathyroidectomy, bisphophonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

Treatment of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Ergocalciferol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

Signs of pseudohypoparathyroidism

A

Short 4th and 5th metacarpals, round face and short

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

Causes of hypoparathyroidism

A

Gland failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

Long term removal of pottasium from blood

A

Calcium resonium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

Progress of ECG changes in hyperkalaemia

A

Peaked T waves, prolonged PR, flat P, wide QRS, sine wave, v fib, asystole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

Upper limit of how much pottasium to give an hour

A

20mmol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

ECG changes in hypokalaemia

A

ST depression, loss of T waves, long PR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

Long acting insulin example

A

Insulin glargine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

Education courses for diabetes

A

DAFNE- T1DM

DESMOND- T2DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

How long do you give 1L of fluid over in DKA

A

2,2,4,4,6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

When do you escalate management of T2DM

A

When HbA1C still over 58

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
331
Q

Treatment of increased sugar after meals in T2DM

A

Acarbose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
332
Q

MODY

A

Maturity onset diabetes of the young

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
333
Q

Investigation for MODY

A

C peptide present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
334
Q

Treatment of MODY

A

Sulfonylurea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
335
Q

LADA

A

Latent autoimmune diabetes in adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
336
Q

Treatment of LADA

A

Metformin, soon progresses to insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
337
Q

Diagnostic test for acromegaly

A

Oral glucose tolerance test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
338
Q

Treatment of acromegaly

A

Transphenoidal surgery

Ocreotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
339
Q

Low ACTH in cushings syndrome suggests

A

Adrenal adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
340
Q

Treatment of cushings disease

A

Pituitary MRI

Transphenoidal surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
341
Q

Renal cancer causes

A

Increased EPO and subsequent polycythaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
342
Q

Ovarian cancer causes

A

Hypoglycaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
343
Q

Medullary thyroid cancer causes

A

Increased calcitonin and subsequent hypocalcaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
344
Q

SCLC causes

A

SIADH
Lambert eaton
Cushings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
345
Q

Carcinoid tumours causes

A

serotonin syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
346
Q

Squamous cancers cause

A

PTHrP relase and hypercalcaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
347
Q

Treatment of toxic multinodular goitre or toxic thyroid adenoma

A

Radioactive iodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
348
Q

Investigation for thyrotoxicosis

A

Radioactive iodine uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
349
Q

Hypothyroid investigation

A

MRI incase pituitary adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
350
Q

Tetracyclines example and side effect

A

Mirtazepine, weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
351
Q

TCA side effects

A

Sedation, anticholingeric, cardiac arrythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
352
Q

SNRIs examples

A

Duloxetine, velafaxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
353
Q

Examples of typical antipsychotics

A

Haloperidol

Chlorpromazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
354
Q

Examples of atypical antipsychotics

A

Olanzapine, risperidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
355
Q

Symptoms of anxiety (3 of which must be present most of the time)

A

Muscle tension, sleep disturbance, fatigue, restlessness, irritability, poor concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
356
Q

Methylphenidate side effect

A

Appetite suppression

Psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
357
Q

Atoxemetine side effect

A

Liver dysfunction

Suicidality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
358
Q

Mild depression

A

2 core and 2 others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
359
Q

Moderate depression

A

2 core and 3 other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
360
Q

Severe depression

A

3 core and 4 others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
361
Q

Step wise medical management of depression

A

SSRI
TCA
SSRI and TCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
362
Q

Define deliberate self harm

A

Self poisoning or injury, irrespective of apparent purpose of teh act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
363
Q

Tuberous sclerosis

A

Cognitive delary
Angiofibromas on cheeks
Ash leaf spots on spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
364
Q

6 components of addiction

A 
Tolerance
Withdrawal
Impaired control
Continued use despite adverse consequences
Compulsion to take
Neglecting other activities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
365
Q

Section 2 of mental health act

A

Assess 28 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
366
Q

Section 3 of mental health act

A

Treatment 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
367
Q

Section 5.2 of mental health act

A

Doctors holding power, 72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
368
Q

Conditions of mental capacity act

A

Assume they have capacity
Maximise their ability to make decisions
Unwise decisions doesnt mean you lack capacity
Anything done must be in best interests
Anything done must be least restrictive option

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
369
Q

PD, isolated and restricted expression

A

Schizoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
370
Q

PD, delusions and hates social interaction

A

Schizotypal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
371
Q

PD, social inhibition and extreme sensitivity

A

Avoidant

372
Q

Cluster A personality disorder

A

Odd- paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal

373
Q

Cluster B personality disorder

A

Dramatic- antisocial, borderline, narcissistic

374
Q

Cluster C personality disorder

A

Anxious- avoidant, dependent, anankastic

375
Q

Tool for autism diagnosis

A

CAST- childhood autism screening tool

376
Q

Treatment of autism

A

Applied behaviour analysis
ASD preschool programme
Psychoeducation

377
Q

Something to remember in the treatment of ADHD

A

Treat coexisting anxiety and depression first

378
Q

Requirements for gender dysphoria diagnosis

A

Desire to live as other gender and seeking body transformation for 2 years
Taken steps regarding presentation to resemble other sex

379
Q

Requirements for gender dysphoria treatment

A

Observe changed sex role officially for 1 year

380
Q

Hormonal treatment for male to female

A

Estradiol valerate and goserelin

381
Q

Hormonal treatmetn for female to male

A

Testosterone

382
Q

schneiderian first rank symptoms

A

3rd person auditory hallucinations
Made acts/ feelings
Thought disorder
Delusional perception

383
Q

Simple schizophrenia

A

Just negative symptoms

384
Q

Hebephrenic schizophrenia

A

Thought disorder and flat affect

385
Q

Catatonic schizophrenia

A

Immobile or agitated behaviour

386
Q

Residual schizophrenia

A

Chronic negative symptoms

387
Q

Bipolar definition

A

Two occasions where the patients moody and activity levels are significantly disturbed

388
Q

Treatment of an eating disorder

A

Structural eating plan with electrolyte and vitamin supplementation. SSRI

389
Q

Describe refeeding syndrome

A

If fed too quickly get low phosphate, pottassium and magnesium as glucose and insulin are increased meaning electrolytes are driven into cells

390
Q

Differences between bulimia and anorexia

A

Bulimia= BMI over 18.5, parotid hypertrophy, slightly older

391
Q

Treatment of syphilis

A

IM benzathine penicillin

392
Q

Describe primary syphilis

A

Painless ulcer, local non tender lyphadenopathy

393
Q

Features of tertiary syphylis

A

Tabes dorsalis, ascending aortic aneurysms, neurosyphilis

394
Q

Name two female sexual disorders

A

Female sexual arousal disorder= less thoughts feeling sand responses
Female orgasmic disorder= absent, infrequent, reduced or delayed orgasm

395
Q

Types of sexual therapy

A

CBT
Systemic
Integrative

396
Q

Treatment of peyronies

A

Watchful wait and traction

397
Q

Treatment of chlamydia

A

Doxycycline 7 days

398
Q

Treatment of gonorrhoea

A

IM ceftriaxone 1g

399
Q

Genital warts

A

Small fleshy protrubrences, HPV. Topical podophyllum or cryotherapy

400
Q

Gential herpes

A

Painful ulcers. HSV2. Aciclovir, saline bathing and analgesia (c-section)

401
Q

Chancroid

A

Painful ulcers and unilateral painful lymphadenopathy. Haemophilus ducreyi. Azithromycin

402
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum

A

Painless pustule. Painful lymphadenopathy. Proctocolitis. Chlamydia trachomatis. Doxycycline

403
Q

Trichomonas Vaginalis

A

Offensive green frothy discharge, strawberry cervix. Microscopy of wet mount. Metronidazole

404
Q

Bacterial vaginosis

A

Fishy. Garderella Vaginalis. Metronidazole

405
Q

Thrush

A

Cottage cheese. Candida albicans. Fluconazole

406
Q

First line treatment of OA

A

Topical diclofenac

407
Q

Second line treatment of OA

A

Paracetamol

408
Q

X Ray signs of RA

A

Loss of joint space
periarticular Erosions
Soft tissue swelling
Soft bones (osteopenia)

409
Q

1st line treatment for RA

A

Methotrexate and NSAIDs

pred for flares

410
Q

2nd line treatement for RA

A

Etanercept

411
Q

Treatment of RA in pregnancy

A

Pred

412
Q

Treatment of spondyloarthritis

A

NSAIDs and physio

413
Q

Treatment of GCA when there are eye signs

A

IV methylpred

414
Q

1st line treatment of psoariatic arthritis

A

NSAIDs

415
Q

2nd line treatment of psoariatic arthritis

A

Methotrexate

416
Q

Investigations for psoariatic arthritis

A

Bloods and XR

417
Q

Presentation of JIA

A

Knee pain in child, more than 6 weeks

418
Q

Imaging of JIA

A

US

419
Q

1st line treatment of JIA

A

NSAIDs and MDT

420
Q

2nd line treatment of JIA

A

Methotrexate

421
Q

Investigations for reactive arthritis

A

Fluid analysis and microscopy

NAAT and stool cultures

422
Q

Treatment of acute reactive arthritis

A

First NSAIDs Second pred

423
Q

Treatment of chronic reactive arthritis

A

Sulfasalazine

424
Q

What are you doing to the fluid in septic arthritis

A

MC and S
Polarising microscopy
WCC

425
Q

Treatment of septic arthritis

A

Abx

Refer to surgeons

426
Q

Second line treatment of osteoporosis

A

Denosumab

427
Q

FRAX

A

Osteoporosis, BMD, FHx, PMHs, corticosteroids, obesty
Smoking, alcohol,
RA (not OA)

428
Q

Pagets on XR

A

Lytic lesions

429
Q

Diagnosis of pagets

A

Bone biopsy

430
Q

Diagnosis of osteomalacia

A

Iliac crest biopsy

431
Q

Treatment of osteomalacia

A

Adcal D3

432
Q

Treatment of vitamin D deficiency

A

Colecalciferol for 8 weeks

433
Q

First line treatment of gout flare

A

Naproxen

434
Q

Second line treatment of gout flare

A

Prednisolone

435
Q

Third line treatment of gout flare

A

Colchicine

436
Q

Pseudogout findings on XR

A

Chondrocalcinosis

437
Q

1st line treatment of pseudogout

A

Intraarticular dexamethasone

438
Q

Treatment of disc disease

A

Ibuprofen and physio

439
Q

How would herniated disc present

A

Dermatomal symptoms

440
Q

Which disease is better when lying down

A

Spinal stenosis

441
Q

Degenerative disc/ compression fracture imaging

A

First XR then MRI

442
Q

Undisplaced fracture treatment

A

Splint

443
Q

Closed displaced fracture treatment

A

Open reduction, internal fixation

444
Q

Treatment of osteomyelitis

A

IV Flucloxacillin

445
Q

Treatment of femoral closed stable and undisplaced fracture

A

Intramedullary nailing

446
Q

Humerus fracture, closed, stable and undisplaced

A

Elevate and ice

447
Q

First line treatment of fibromyalgia

A

amitryptilline

448
Q

Imaging of PMR

A

US

449
Q

Treatment of polymyalgia rheumatica

A

Prednisolone

450
Q

SS = Crest BUT ALSO

A

Renal, fibrosis and carpal tunnel

451
Q

Treatment of raynauds

A

Iloprost or sildenafil

452
Q

Antibodies in antiphospholipid

A

Lupus anticoagulant
Anti cardiolipin
Anti beta 2 glycoprotein 1

453
Q

Treatment of antiphospholipid syndrome

A

Dalteparin acutely

Warfarin long term

454
Q

Antibodies in poly/dermatomyositis

A

Anti Jo

Anti Mi2

455
Q

Treatment of poly/dermatomyositis

A

Prednisolone

456
Q

1st line treatment of lupus

A

Hydroxycholoroquine and suncream

457
Q

Name some social interventions

A

Statutory benefits, care package, supported housing, cultural advocacy, psychoeducation, employment support, arts based and exercise based groups, safeguarding, educational support package, social integration package

458
Q

Rapid tranquilisation in psych

A

Firstly oral/ deescalation then

IM Lorazepam/ haloperidol + promethazine (to avoid SE)

459
Q

Which drugs can cause NMS

A

Metoclopramide, antipsychotics

460
Q

Treatment of serotonin syndrome and NMS

A

Stop meds

461
Q

Investigations for NMS and serotonin syndrome

A

Creatinine kinase and WCC

462
Q

Common SE of lithium

A

Nausea, dry mouth, fine tremor, metallic taste, thisty

463
Q

Signs of lithium toxicity

A

Polyuria, worse tremor, drowsy, confused

464
Q

Investigation of lithium toxicity

A

Lithium level

465
Q

Lithium toxicity treatmetn

A

Supportive care

466
Q

What to tell a patient when theyre starting on lithium

A

Regular blood tests, avoid dehydration, dont suddenly change your salt intake, take care with NSAIDs, Diuretics, SSRIs, epilepsy, antibiotics

467
Q

Drug reaction which happens straight after administration of antipsychotics

A

Acute dystonic reaction

468
Q

Treatment of acute dystonic reaction

A

Medical emergency- procyclidine IM

469
Q

Symptoms of acute dystonic reaction

A

Mouth held open, dysarthria, oculogyric crisis, neck spasm

470
Q

Treatment of extrapyramidal SE from antipsychotics

A

IM Procyclidine

471
Q

Side effects of clozapine

A

Neutropenia

Toxic megacolon

472
Q

Country where hepatitis B is endemic

A

Pakistan

473
Q

Specific name of drug used to treat hep C

A

Ledipasvir

474
Q

Diagnosis of malaria

A

3 thick and thin films 24 hours apart

475
Q

Treatment of malaria if no complications

A

Chloroquine

476
Q

Complications of malaria

A

Acidotic
Renal impairment
Seizures
DIC

477
Q

Treatment of complication. malaria

A

IV artesunate

478
Q

Prophylaxis of malaria

A

Chloroquine and doxycycline

479
Q

Ongoing monitoring of malaria

A

12 hourly blood films for parasitaemia, FBC and clotting

480
Q

Peripheral stigmata of IE and where they are found

A

Janeaway lesions on palms
Oslers nodes on finger pulps
Roth spots on fundoscopy
Splinter haemorrhages in nail beds

481
Q

Criteria for IE

A

Duke criteria

482
Q

Investigation of IE

A

3 blood cultures 30 minutes apart

483
Q

Which organism would cause an IE from UTI

A

Enterococcus

484
Q

Complications of infective endocarditis

A

Heart failure
Pericarditis
Arrythmias
Renal failure

485
Q

Treatment of strep IE

A

6 weeks IV ben pen

486
Q

Treatment of staph IE

A

6 weeks IV fluclox

487
Q

Treatment of MRSA IE

A

6 weeks vancomycin

488
Q

Name of drug used for prep and pep

A

Truvada

489
Q

Antibiotic given as prophylaxis in AIDS

A

Cotrimoxazole

490
Q

Antibiotic given to treat PCP

A

Cotrimoxazole

491
Q

Whatre you looking for on TB sputum culture

A

Acid fast bacilli

492
Q

Bloody diarrhoea without feer

A

E coli

493
Q

Most common cause of gastroenteritis and comes from meat

A

Campulobacter

494
Q

What do you want to do to the stool in infective diarrhoea

A

Microscopy, culture and sensitivities
C Difficile toxin testing
Microscopy for ova, cysts and parasites

495
Q

Treatmetn of travellers diarrhoea

A

Rehydration
Loperamide
Azithromycin

496
Q

Treatment of meningitis is over 65 or immunocompromised

A

Add in amoxicillin to cover for listeria

497
Q

Order of investigations/ treatments in meningitis

A
  1. Blood culture
  2. LP
  3. IV Abx
498
Q

What do you give to household contacts of meningitis

A

Rifampicin or ciprofloxacin

499
Q

How do you test for Mycoplasma or Chlamydia pneumonia

A

Sputum

500
Q

Which antibiotic for cover of atypical pneumonias

A

Clarithromycin

501
Q

Pen Allergic pneumonia treatment

A

PO doxycycline

IV teicoplanin

502
Q

When does it class as hospital acquired pneumonia

A

Been in hospital more than 48 hours

503
Q

Cellulitis but well treatment

A

PO flucox (clinda if pen allergic)

504
Q

Treatment of strep cellulitis if unwell

A

IV ben pen

505
Q

Treatment of MRSA cellulitis if unwell

A

IV teicoplanin

506
Q

Treatment of necrotising fasciitis

A

Early aggressive debridement and IV Abx

507
Q

Age defined as elderly

A

85

  • 80+ frail
  • 75+ parkinsons
508
Q

Malnutrition requirements

A

BMI under 18.5
BMI under 20 and 5 percent weight loss in 6m
10 percent weight loss in 6m

509
Q

Considerations in MUST

A

BMI
Weight loss
Acute disease effect i.e. NBM

510
Q

What to do if low risk MUST

A

Repeat weekly

511
Q

What to do if medium risk MUST

A

Observe diet for 3 days

512
Q

What to do if high risk MUST

A

Refer to dietician

513
Q

Investigations to do after a fall

A 
Lying and standing BP
ECG
Bloods inc glucose
Urinalysis
CT head
514
Q

Does gylcaemic control have to get tighter with age

A

No can get looser, as less time for complications to occur

515
Q

What drug does trimethoprim interact with

A

Methotrexate

516
Q

What drug does clarithromycin interact with

A

Warfarin

517
Q

Treatment of Dementia

A

Rivastigmine and Donepezil

518
Q

Treatment of BPSD

A

Haloperidol

Risperidone

519
Q

What changes are happening in alzheimers

A

Atrophy and beta amyloid plaques

520
Q

Alzheimers history

A

Progressive, recent events forgotten first, word finding difficulties

521
Q

What medication would you use in gestational diabetes once diet and exercise failed

A

Insulin

522
Q

Diagnosis of post natal depression

A

Edinburgh post natal depression score

523
Q

1st line treatment of post natal depression

A

Self help and CBT

524
Q

First line treatment of dysfunctional uterine bleeding when not requiring fertility

A

Endometrial ablation

525
Q

BP in pregnancy which requires medication

A

Labetalol at 160/110

526
Q

Treatment of hyperemesis gravidarum without fluid depletion

A

Pyridoxine, supportive care

527
Q

Treatment of hyperemesis gravidarum with fluid depletion

A

IVI

Metaclopramide

528
Q

Hypothalamic cause of amenorrhoea

A

Low GNRH, anorexia, psych

529
Q

Pituitary cause of amenorrhoea

A

High prolactin, endocrine or sheehans

530
Q

What is sheehans syndrome

A

Pituitary necrosis after large obstetric bleed

531
Q

Ovarian causes of amenorrhoea

A

PCOS, turners

532
Q

Adrenal causes of amenorrhoea

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

533
Q

Investigation of CAH

A

17 hydroxyprogesterone

534
Q

Tract causes of amenorrhoea

A

Vaginal septum, Ashermanns syndrome

535
Q

What is ashermanns syndrome

A

Adhesions after surgical miscarriage

536
Q

1st line treatment of amenorrhoea

A

COCP

537
Q

1st line treatment of amenorrhoea if desires fertility

A

Clomifene

538
Q

3 symptoms of PID

A

Uterine tenderness
Cervical motion tenderness
Adnexal tenderness

539
Q

Treatment of PID

A

Ceftriaxone and doxycycline

540
Q

Symptoms of lichen sclerosis

A

Itchy external genitalia (non hairy areas)

541
Q

Treatment of lichen sclerosis

A

Clobetasone topical, avoid perfumes

542
Q

Does thrush smell

A

No, just looks like cottage cheese

543
Q

1st line treatment of thrush

A

Clotrimazole topical

544
Q

2nd line treatment of thrush

A

Oral fluconazole

545
Q

Diagnosis of prolapse

A

Clinical

546
Q

Treatment of prolapse

A

1st supportive and pelvic floor exercises

2nd surgery

547
Q

Ovarian torsion symptoms

A

Severe pain and palpable adnexal mass

548
Q

Investigation of ovarian torsion

A

TVUS and doppler flow

549
Q

Treatment of ovarian torsion

A

Surgery- detorsion or salpingoophrectomy

550
Q

investigation of uterine fibroids

A

TVUS then endometrial biopsy

551
Q

Treatment of uterine fibroids

A

Mifepristone (antihormonal)

552
Q

Surgery for fibroids

A

Myomectomy

553
Q

Investigation of ovarian cysts

A

TVUS, if ?Ca then CA125 and CT

554
Q

Investigation of male infertility

A

Sperm studies

555
Q

Treatment of male infertility

A

Treat cause and assisted reproduction

556
Q

Female infertility treatment

A
  1. diet and exercise
  2. clomifene and counselling
  3. ovarian drilling
557
Q

Placenta praevia investigations

A

TVUS, repeat at 32 and 36. Delivery at 36

558
Q

Placental abruption and more than 37 weeks pregnant

A

Induction

559
Q

Pulsations over the os

A

Vasa praevia

560
Q

Severe abdo pain between contractions

A

Uterine rupture, c section

561
Q

Endometrial cancer 1st line investigation

A

TVUS

562
Q

Diagnostic investigation for endometrial ancer

A

Endometrial biopsy and hysteroscopy

563
Q

1st line investigation for ovarian cancer

A

TVUS

564
Q

1st line investigation for cervical cancer

A

Speculum examination

565
Q

Diagnostic investigation for cervical cancer

A

Colposcopy and biopsy

566
Q

Steps of surgery in cervical cancer

A

Cone biopsy
Trachelectomy
Hysterectomy

567
Q

Diagnosis of ovarian cancer

A

Histopathology after surgery

568
Q

Treatment of threatened or complete miscarriage

A

Paracetamol and counselling

569
Q

Treatment of inevitable, incomplete or missed miscarriage

A

Evacuation

Misoprostol

570
Q

Investigation of miscarriage

A

TVUS

Serum BHcG

571
Q

Grapelike discharge from vagina, increased uterine size and increased blood pressure

A

Hydratiform mole/ molar pregnancy

572
Q

Treatment of hydratiform mole

A

Dilation and cutellage

573
Q

Endometriosis treatment if family desired

A

Clomifene and IVF

574
Q

Treatment of PCOS

A
  1. Weight loss
  2. Metformin
  3. COCP
  4. Clomifene
  5. anti androgens- spironolactone, finasteride
575
Q

First line treatment of menorrhagia

A

IUS, levonorgestrol

576
Q

2nd line treatment of menorrhagia

A

Tranexamic acid if wants kids

COCOP if doesnt

577
Q

Third line treatment of menorrhagia

A

Depot progestogen

578
Q

First line treatment of dysmenorrhoea

A

NSAID, waterbottle, stop smoking

579
Q

Second line treatment of dysmenorrhoea

A

COCP

580
Q

What counts as premature labour

A

24-37 weeks

581
Q

When to induce delivery in premature labour

A

Over 34 weeks

582
Q

1st line treatment of prolonged labour

A

Vaginal prostaglandins

583
Q

2nd line treatment of prolonged labour

A

Amniotomy and syntocin

584
Q

Causes of primary PPH

A

Tone (uterine atony)
Tissue (retained placenta)
Trauma (instrumental, episiotomy)
Thrombin (vascular, coagulopathies)

585
Q

What counts as secondary PPH

A

More than 24 hours

Less than 12 weeks

586
Q

Treatment of secodnary PPH

A

IV Abx and misoprostol

587
Q

Where does MM metastasise to

A

Liver Lung Lymph

588
Q

What is acral MM

A

On palms and soles

589
Q

What is lentigo maligna

A

Large premalignant lesion on face

590
Q

Treatment of MM <1mm thick

A

excision with 0.5cm margin

591
Q

Treatment of MM >1mm thick

A

excision with sentinel lymph node biopsy

592
Q

Diagnosis of skin cancers

A

Biopsy

593
Q

Treatment of BCC

A

Mohs excision, radiotherapy if untreatable

594
Q

Treatment of SCC

A

Surgical excision, radiotherapy if untreatable

595
Q

Causes of pigmentation under nail

A

MM or trauma

596
Q

Diagnsois of fungal infections

A

Skin scrapings/ nail clippings

597
Q

Preciptants of fungal infections

A

Immunosuppressants, moisture

598
Q

Treatment of fungal infections

A

1st- topical terbinafine

2nd- oral fluconazole

599
Q

Molluscum contagiosum

A

Small firm papules with umbilication
Areas of body contact, genitals in adults
Adults= curettage and cry
Children= conservative

600
Q

What causes itch

A 
Renal (urea)
Cholestatic (bile salts)
Haem (PCV, basophils and mast cells)
Endocrine 
Malignant (carcinoid)
601
Q

Scabies

A

Linera burrows in webspaces

602
Q

Treatment of scabies

A

Topical permethin and antihistamines, treat whole family

603
Q

Primary prevention of premalignant and malignant skin lesions

A

Sun cream
Avoid sun
Avoid tanning
Cover areas

604
Q

Treatment of actinic keratosis

A

Cryotherapy, fluoracil and emolients

605
Q

Treatment of seborrheic keratosis

A

Cryotherapy and topical beclometasone

606
Q

Treatment of Bowens disease

A

Fluoracil and cryotherapy

607
Q

Treatment of keratoacanthoma

A

Excision biopsy +- radiotherapy

608
Q

Compound naevus

A

Dome shaped papule

609
Q

Dermal naevi

A

Flat patch

610
Q

Junctional naevi

A

Flat patch with sticky up bit

611
Q

Dysplastic naevi

A

ABCDE features

612
Q

First line treatment of acne

A

Topical retinoid- tretinoin

613
Q

Second line treatments of acne

A

Topical benzoyl peroxide, topical clindamycin, COCP

614
Q

Treatment of allopecia

A

Dermovate, cosmetic camouflage, patient support

615
Q

Investigation for allopecia

A

Positive hair pull test

616
Q

1st line treatment of psoarisis

A

Dermovate and calcitriol

617
Q

Ranking of steroids

A 
Hydrocortisone
Eumovate
Betnovate
Dermovate
Oral
618
Q

What happens if you use steroids near eyes

A

Cataracts

Glaucoma

619
Q

Eczema + widespread blistering rash

A

Eczema herpeticum

Aciclovir

620
Q

1st line treatment of eczema

A

Topical hydrocortisone and emolient

621
Q

2nd line treatment. of eczema

A

Eumovate and cetirizine

622
Q

3rd line treatment of eczema

A

Betnovate and chlorphenamine

623
Q

4th line treatment of eczema

A

Dermovate and tacrolimus

624
Q

Erythema multiforme

A

Target lesions

Herpes and mycoplasma pneumonia

625
Q

Cutaneous T cell lymphoma

A

Atrophy, telangectasia, pigmentation

Sezory cells on biopsy

626
Q

Pityriasis rosea

A

Herald patch

Thumb sign

627
Q

Pityriasis vesicolor

A

patches of discoloured skin
Not itchy
harmless

628
Q

Macule

A

Flat area of altered colour- less than 1.5cm

629
Q

Patch

A

Flat area of altered colour- more than 1.5cm

630
Q

Papule

A

Solid rasied palpable lesion less than 0.5cm

631
Q

Nodule

A

Solid raised palpable lesion more than 0.5cm

632
Q

Vesicle

A

Raised clear fluid filled lesion less than 0.5cm

633
Q

Bulla

A

Raised clear fluid filled lesion more than 0.5cm

634
Q

Pustule

A

Pus containing lesion less than 0.5cm

635
Q

Abscess

A

Localised accumulation of pus

636
Q

Wheal

A

Oedematous papule or plaque caused by dermal oedema

637
Q

Causes of conductive hearing loss

A

otitis externa
Obstruction
Cholesteatoma

638
Q

Causes of sensory neural hearing loss

A

Presbycusis
Post bacterial meningitis
Acoustic neuroma

639
Q

Alport syndrome

A

Hearing loss and renal

640
Q

Positive sign of dix hallpike if its BPV

A

Rotary nystagmus

641
Q

Maintenance exercises for BPPV

A

Brandt daroff

642
Q

Treatment of menieres disease

A

1- low salt diet and acetazolamide

2. Promethazine

643
Q

How to prevent menieres disease

A

Beta histine

644
Q

What else do you have to consider in management. of menieres

A

Have to inform DVLA

645
Q

Vestibular neuronitis symptoms

A

URTI and then vertigo

646
Q

Vestibular neuronitis treatment

A

Prochlorperazine

647
Q

Viral labrynthitis symptoms

A

URTI, vertigo, hearing loss and tinnitus

648
Q

Treatment of viral labrynthitis

A

Chrochlorperazine

649
Q

Referral of unilateral nasal polyps

A

2ww

650
Q

Referral of bilateral nasal polyps

A

Routine NET referal

651
Q

Treatment of nasal polyps

A

Flexible endoscopic sinus surgery and polypectomy

652
Q

Infectious mononucleosis causative organism

A

EBV

653
Q

Infectious mononucleosis symptoms

A

sheet of pus on tonsils

654
Q

Treatment of infectious mononucleosis

A

Conservative

No contact sports for 8 weeks

655
Q

What shouldnt you give in infectious mononucleosis and what will happen

A

Maculopapular rash if give amoxicillin

656
Q

First investigation for cholesteatoma

A

Audiogram and otoscopy

657
Q

What will otoscopy find in cholesteatoma

A

Attic crust

658
Q

Diagnostic for cholesteatoma

A

CT scan of petrous temporal bones

659
Q

Symptoms of acoustic neuroma

A

Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, dizziness and numbness

660
Q

Investigation for acoustic neuroma

A

Gadolinium enhanced MRI

661
Q

What could bilateral acoustic neuroma suggest

A

Neurofibromatosis type 2

662
Q

Treatment of TMJ dysfunction

A

Joint rest

663
Q

Treatment of bells palsy

A

Pred and eye protection

664
Q

Treatment of Ramsay Hunt

A

Aciclovir and pred

665
Q

Sinusitis less than 10 days

A

Viral

666
Q

Sinusitis more than 10 days

A

Bacterial (S. pneumoniae, H influenzae)

667
Q

1st line investigation for sinusitis

A

Nasal speculum examination

668
Q

Diagnostic investigation for sinusitis

A

Nasal endoscopy

669
Q

Treatment of sinusitis

A

Co amoxiclav if bacterial
Nasal saline irrigation
Intranasal budesonide

670
Q

What causes mumps

A

RNA paramyxovirus

671
Q

Investigation for mumps

A

Salivary Mumps IgM

672
Q

Gingitivits

A

Gum disease

673
Q

Sialadenitis

A

Staph Aureus
Gland swelling
Airway support and coamoxiclav

674
Q

DeGeorge syndrome

A

mastoiditis and pneumonia

675
Q

Otoscopy and tympanometry to distinguish ear infections

A

Normal in otitis externa

676
Q

1st line treatment of mastoiditis

A
  1. IV antibiotics

2. mastoidectomy and grommets

677
Q

Complications of mastoiditis

A

Abscess, 6th or 7th nerve palsy

678
Q

Cause of acute otitis media

A 
Normally viral (RSV or parainfluenza)
Bacterial: S.pneumoniae, H.influenza, Moraxella
679
Q

Treatment of acute otitis media

A

Regular analgesia

Back up prescription of amoxicillin

680
Q

Treatment of acute otitis media if no improvement in 2 weeks

A

Myringometry and drainage

681
Q

What does ear granulation tissue suggest

A

Otitis externa malignant

682
Q

symptoms of otitis externa

A

Tragal tenderness, otalgia, ear canal inflammation

683
Q

Treatment of bacterial otitis externa

A

Topical ciprofloxacin

684
Q

Treatment of fungal otitis externa

A

Topical acetic acid

685
Q

Treatment of malignant otitis externa

A

Oral and topical clindamycin

686
Q

Bacteria that cause otitis externa

A

Pseudomonas and S Aureus

687
Q

Advice to someone with otitis externa

A

Avoid swimming

688
Q

Describe OM with effusion

A

Glue ear, more than 3 months, conductive hearing loss, not infection. Bulging grey tympanic membrane

689
Q

Treatment of OM with effusion

A

Conservative, hearing aids, grommets

690
Q

Cerebral perfusion pressure calculation

A

MAP - intracranial pressure

691
Q

Which med is used when someone has been on opioids and needs a step down

A

Dihydrocodiene

692
Q

Why do you give adrenaline with lidocaine

A

Causes vasoconstriction so acts for longer locally

693
Q

Stepwise SE of anaesthetic

A 
Numb tongue
Lightheaded
Visual/auditory disturbance
Muscle twitching
Unconscious
Seizures
694
Q

4 components of anaesthesia

A

Lack of consciousness
Analgesia
Amnesia
Muscle relaxant

695
Q

Bloods for a DVT

A 
FBC
U and E
LFT
Clotting
?D dimer
696
Q

Symptoms of fat embolus

A 
Petechial rash
Drowsiness
Oliguria
PE symptoms
Fleck like shadows on CXR
697
Q

Treatment of fat emboli

A

High flow oxygen and stabilise fracture

698
Q

Treatment of severe vomiting in acute abdomen

A

NG

699
Q

Things that are in both a DVT and a PE Wells score

A

Cancer, immobilisation, previous DVT/PE, alternative diagnosis less/more likely

700
Q

Things just in a DVT Wells score

A

Entire leg swollen
Swelling more than 3cm
Unilateral pitting oedema
Superficial oedema

701
Q

Things just in a PE Wells score

A

DVT Sx
Tachycardia
Haemoptysis

702
Q

Antidote to benzodiazepines

A

Flumazenil

703
Q

GCS Motor 1

A

None

704
Q

GCS Motor 2

A

Extension

705
Q

GCS Motor 3

A

Flexion

706
Q

GCS Motor 4

A

Withdraws

707
Q

GCS Motor 5

A

Localised

708
Q

GCS Motor 6

A

Follows commands

709
Q

Treatmetn of bradycardia

A

ABCDE
ECG
500mcg Atropine (then repeat or adrenaline)

710
Q

Treatment of unstable tachycardia

A

Shock x3 then amiodarone

711
Q

Symptoms of second degree burns

A

Blistering

712
Q

Treatment of sunburn/ scald

A

Showers and cold presses
Analgesia
Adequate oral intake
Apply emolients

713
Q

Causes of post op fever

A 
Wind- respiratory
Water- uti
Walk- dvt/pe
Wound- infection
Wonder- drugs?
714
Q

When to increase flow when giving oxygen

A

Not at target sats or RR over 30

715
Q

How much water do you need to give a day

A

30ml/kg

716
Q

How much K, Na, Cl do you need to give a day

A

1ml/kg

717
Q

What can you see on mallampati 4

A

Hard palate

718
Q

What can you see on mallampati 3

A

Soft palate and uvula base

719
Q

What can you see on mallampati 2

A

Soft palate, uvula, fauces

720
Q

What can you see on mallampati 1

A

Soft palate, uvula, fauces, pharyngeal pillars

721
Q

How do you manage COCP around surgery

A

Stop 4 weeks before, bridging POP, start 2 weeks after

722
Q

Which drugs do you keep going through operations

A

Beta blockers and steroids

723
Q

What would you give in massive blood loss

A

Warm NaCl
4 units warm O-
tranexamic acid

724
Q

What would you give to treat low Hb

A

Red cells

725
Q

What would you give to treat high APTT and high PT

A

Fresh frozen plasma

726
Q

How would you treat low platelets

A

Platelets

727
Q

What would you give to treat low fibrinogen

A

Cryoprecipitate

728
Q

What do you do if someone is unable to maintain their airway despite airway adjuncts in an emergency setting

A

Rapid sequence induction

729
Q

How do you treat open pneumothorax

A

Simple adhesive dressing

730
Q

What imaging in trauma if the patient is unstable

A

CXR

731
Q

What imaging in trauma if the patient is stable

A

CT

732
Q

What imaging in trauma if its a child

A

CXR or US

733
Q

How do you treat pelvic fracture after high energy trauma

A

Pelvic binder

734
Q

What should you give if someone has been involved in major trauma

A

Tranexamic acid

735
Q

What should you give if someone on warfarin has undergone trauma

A

Prothrombin complex

736
Q

Investigations for acute heart failure

A

CXR, ECG, BNP, Troponin

737
Q

Dose of salbutamol given in acute asthma

A

5mg

738
Q

Dose of prednisolone given in acute asthma

A

30mg

739
Q

4 symptoms of horners syndrome

A

Miosis
Ptosis
Enopthalmos
Anhydrosis

740
Q

What causes Horners syndrome

A

Loss of sympathetic nerve supply to the eye

741
Q

What does papilloedema look like

A

Swollen optic disc on fundoscopy

742
Q

Bilateral grittiness and discomfort around eye margins

A

Blepharitis, hot compresses twice dialy

743
Q

Outer eye lid gland infection- tender

A

Stye, hot compresses and analgesia

744
Q

Inner eye lid gland infection- non tender

A

Chalazion, hot compresses and eye hygeine

745
Q

Name an antiVEGF

A

Afibercept

746
Q

Investigation for diabetic retinopathy

A

Fundus photographs

747
Q

Progression of findings in Diabetic retinopathy

A 
Microaneurysms
Blot haemorrhages
In every quadrant
Hard exudates
Cotton wool spots
Neovascularisation
748
Q

Acute closed angle glaucoma

A

Sight threatening

IV azetazolamide

749
Q

Symptoms of acute closed angle glaucoma

A

Sudden pain
Halos around lights
Nausea and vomitting
Headache

750
Q

Diagnosis of acute closed angle glaucoma

A

Gonioscopy

751
Q

Open angle glaucoma

A

Optic disc cupping on fundoscopy

752
Q

Open angle glaucoma symptoms

A

Peripheral vision loss and patches of missing vision

753
Q

Treatment of open angle glaucoma

A

Latanoprost (prostaglandin antagonist)

Timolol

754
Q

What does severe pain, reduced acuity, semidilated pupil and hazy cornea suggest

A

Glaucoma

755
Q

Small fixed pupil, ciliary flush, photphobia, HLAB27, hypopyon

A

Anterior uveitis, prednisolone eye drops

756
Q

Severe pain especially on movements and tenderness of eye, Rheumatoid

A

Scleritis, prednisolone eye drops

757
Q

Purulent discharge from the eye

A

Conjunctivitis, chloramphenicol eye drops

758
Q

What is keratitis and who gets it

A

Inflammation of the cornea, people who wear contact lenses

759
Q

investgation for keratitis

A

Corneal scraping

760
Q

Dendritic pattern keratitis

A

Herpes, aciclovir

761
Q

Eye signs after trauma/ coughing

A

Subconjunctival haemorrhage

762
Q

Eye signs post eye surgery

A

Endopthalmos

763
Q

Faded colour vision, glare, halos around lights

A

Cataracts

764
Q

Investigation of cataracts

A

Silt lamp examination of anterior chamber

765
Q

1st investigation of age related macular degeneration

A

Amsler grid

766
Q

Age related macular degeneration on fundoscopy

A

Drusen, neovascularisation

767
Q

Diagnostic of ARMD

A

Optical coherence tomography

768
Q

Treamtnet of ARMD

A

Observe, anti VEGF

769
Q

Investigation for CRVO and CRAO

A

Fluorescin angiogram

770
Q

Treamtent of CRVO and CRAO

A

Supportive

771
Q

Dense shadow starts peripherally and progresses to centre, straight lines appear curved, central vision loss

A

Retinal detachment

772
Q

Define health

A

A state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing, not merely the absence of disease

773
Q

What are the three domains of public health

A

Health protection
Health improvement
Improving services

774
Q

Define health protection

A

Measures to control infectious disease risk and environmental hazards e.g. notifiable diseases, contact tracing for STI

775
Q

Define health improvement

A

Social interventions aimed at preventing disease, promoting health and reducing inequality e.g. 5 a day campaign, screening

776
Q

Define improving services

A

Organisation and delivery of safe, high quality service e.g. auditing and implementing reccomendations

777
Q

Categories of determinants of health

A

Genetic
Lifestyle
Environmental
Health care

778
Q

Genetic determinants of health

A

Age
Gender
Ethnicity

779
Q

Lifestyle determinants of health

A

Smoking status
Wealth
Employment

780
Q

Environmental determinants of health

A

Housing
Socioeconomic status
Access to education

781
Q

Health care determinants. ofhealth

A

Economic factors
Access
Quality

782
Q

What is the inverse care law

A

The availability of medical or social care tends to vary inversely with the need of the population served

783
Q

Define equality

A

Equal shares

784
Q

Define equity

A

What is fair and just

785
Q

Define horizontal equity

A

Equal treatment for equal need

786
Q

Define vertical equity

A

Unequal treatment for unequal need

787
Q

Describe a health needs assessment

A

Needs assessment, planning, implementation, evaluation

Review health issues affecting a population which leads to agreed priorities and resource allocation which will improve health and reduce inequalities

788
Q

3 types of health needs assessments

A

Epidemiological
Comparative
Corporate

789
Q

Epidemiological health needs assment

A

Looks at current service and population served and suggests improvements

790
Q

Comparative health needs assessment

A

Compares services received by one population with another

791
Q

Corporate health needs assessment

A

Considers the views of key stake holders

792
Q

Define need

A

The ability to benefit from an intervention

793
Q

Define supply

A

What is provided

794
Q

Define demand

A

What people ask for

795
Q

Define felt need

A

Individual perceptions of deviations from normal health

796
Q

Define expressed need

A

Seeking help to overcome variation in normal health

797
Q

Define normative need

A

Professional defines intervention for expressed need

798
Q

Define comparative need

A

Comparison between severity, interventions and cost

799
Q

Describe maslows heirachy of need

A 
Physiological
Safety
Love
Esteem
Self actualisation
800
Q

What are three approaches to resource allocation

A

Egalitarian
Maximising
Libertarian

801
Q

Describe a egalitarian approach

A

Provide all care that is necessary and required to everyone

802
Q

Describe a maximising approach

A

Based solely on consequence

803
Q

Describe a libertarian approach

A

Each individual is responsible for own health

804
Q

6 things. tolook for when assessing the quality of a service

A

Access, Appropriate, Acceptible

Equity, efficient, effective

805
Q

Define health behaviour

A

Behaviour aimed at preventing disease

806
Q

Define illness behaviour

A

Behaviour aimed at seeking remedy

807
Q

What are the steps of the transtheoretical model

A

PC PAM

Precontemplation, contemplation, planning, action, maintenance (relapse)

808
Q

What are steps of the theory of planned behaviours

A

Attitudes, subjective norms and percieved behaviour control affect intention which affects behaviour

809
Q

What does intention to behaviour depend on

A

P PAIR

Prepatory action, percieved control, anticipated regret, implementation intentions, relevance to self

810
Q

What is the health belief model

A 
Percieved susceptibility
Percieved severity
Health motivation
Percieved benefits
Percieved barriers
All affect likelihood of action
811
Q

What are absolute rights

A

Never acceptable
Article 3- right to protection
Article 4- prohibition of slavery
Article 7- protection from retrospective criminal penalties

812
Q

What is diversity

A

Appreciating the differences between people and treating peoples values, beliefs, cultures and lifestyles with respect

813
Q

Kahneman and Tversky

A

Intuitive- understand instantly without conscious reasoning

Analytical- measured and calculated

814
Q

Define screening

A

Identifying apparently well individuals who have (or are at risk of having) a particular disease

815
Q

Screening criteria categories

A

Wilson and junger

Disease, test outcome

816
Q

Wilson and junger screening criteria- disease

A

Important
Natural history known
Early treatment better than late

817
Q

Wilson and junger screening criteria- test

A

Acceptable to the population
Facilities available
Simple, safe, precise

818
Q

Wilson and junger screening criteria- outcomes

A

Ongoing feasbility
Treatment available
Cost benefit analysis

819
Q

Randomised control trial advantages

A

Infer causality, less bias

820
Q

RCT diasadvantages

A

time consuming, expensive, not always ethical

821
Q

Describe cohort study

A

Longitudinal prospective, records exposures and conditions in a population as they develop

822
Q

Describe case control

A

Retrospective observational, comparing experiences of those with and without the disease

823
Q

Cross sectional study

A

Snapshot of those with and without the disease looking at associations at a particular time

824
Q

Factors to assess causality

A 
Biological plausibility
Temporal relationship
Dose response
Strength of association
Specificity
Consistency
Coherence with existing themes
Reversibility
825
Q

Define confounders

A

Risk factors other than those being studied which influence the outcome

826
Q

Define bias

A

Systematic error that results in a deviation from the true effect of an exposure on an outcome

827
Q

Give three types of bias

A

Selection
Information (measurement, observer, recall, reporting)
Publication

828
Q

4 questions for medical negligence

A

1) Was there a duty of care
2) Was there a breach in that duty
3) Was the patient harmed
4) Was the harm due to the breach in care

829
Q

Bolam rule

A

Would a reasonable doctor do the same

830
Q

Bolitho rule

A

Would that be reasonable

831
Q

Types of error

A 
Fixation and loss of perspective
Communcation breakdown
Poor team working
Playing the odds
Bravado
Ignorance
Mis triage
Lack of skill
System error
Sloth
832
Q

Swiss cheese error model

A

Shows how several latent failures of failed or absent defenses lead to active failure

833
Q

The three bucket model

A

Error involves interaction between
Self
Context
Task

834
Q

Never events

A

Serious, largely preventable patient safety incidents that should not occur if available, preventative measures have been implemented.

  • wrong route chemo
  • wrong site surgery
  • escape of a mental health patient
835
Q

Consequences of never events

A

Financial penalty
CQC visit
Reputation loss

836
Q

Define domestic abuse

A

Any incident or pattern of incidents of controlling, coercive, threatening behaviour, violence or abuse between those who are 16 and over who are/have been intimate partners or family members irrespective of gender or sexuality

837
Q

Types of domestic abuse

A 
Psychological
Physical
Sexual
Financial
Emotional
838
Q

Which tool is used to assess risk in domestic abuse

A

DASH tool

839
Q

What is an IDVA

A

Independent advocate to help domestic abuse victim access help

840
Q

What. isa domestic homicide review

A

Review after someone dies from domestic abuse

841
Q

wHAT. ISA marac

A

MultiAgency Risk Assessment Conference- MDT meeting about domestic abuse

842
Q

Risk factors to think about in breast cancer

A 
Early menarche
Late menopause
Children
Breast feeding
HRT
843
Q

Most common type of breast cancer

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

844
Q

Breast cancer screening

A

50-70 every 3 years

845
Q

Treatment for oestrogen or progesterone receptor positive breast cancers

A

Tamoxifen

846
Q

Whats another name for herceptin

A

Tastuzumab

847
Q

Mammogram shows calcification

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ

848
Q

Mammogram shows irregular spiculated mass

A

Breast ancer

849
Q

Where does breast cancer metastasise to

A

LLB: liver lung brain

850
Q

What drug would you give to a post menopausal woman with breast ancer

A

Anastrozole, letrozole= aromatase inhibitors

851
Q

What is stage 4 breast cancer and what should you give

A

Metastatic, bisphophonates

852
Q

Lump behind nipple and clear/ blood stained discharge

A

Duct papilloma

853
Q

Menopause age, areola lump, milky thick nipple discharge

A

Duct ectasia

854
Q

Pagets disease

A

Nipple eczema, indicates underlying breast cancer

855
Q

Treatment of non cyclical mastalgia

A

NSAID, check for cardiac/MSK pain

856
Q

Treatment of cyclical mastalgia

A

Proper bra

Short term tamoxifen

857
Q

Mastitis and breast feeding

A

Peripheral breast.

Flucloxacillin and keep breast feeding

858
Q

Mastitis and not breast feeding

A

Central breast

Flucloxacillin and metronidazole

859
Q

G6PD on peripheral blood film

A

Blister and bite cells, Heinz bodies

860
Q

Treatment of G6PD

A

Folic acid
Avoid fava beans
Blood transfusion

861
Q

Symptoms of hereditary spherocytosis

A

Pallor
Jaundice
Splenomegaly

862
Q

Treatment of hereditary spherocytosis

A

Splenectomy
Vaccinations
Blood transfusions

863
Q

Describe patients with ITP

A

Low platelets
Not ill
Bleeding
Purpura

864
Q

How do you treat ITP

A

Prednisolone and IVIG

865
Q

Whats the difference between ITP and TTP and DIC

A

ITP doesnt have schistocytes and theyre not ill

866
Q

Treatment of TTP

A

Plasma exchange

867
Q

Signs of TTP

A

Schistocytes on blood film but other clotting fine or raised

868
Q

Signs of DIC

A

Schistocytes on blood film and abnormal clotting, thrombin excess

869
Q

Investigations for acute leukaemias

A
  1. Peripheral blood film

Gold= bone marrow biopsy

870
Q

Investigations for chronic leukaemias

A
  1. Peripheral blood film

Gold= flow cytometry

871
Q

Symptoms of leukaemia

A

SOB
Fatigue
Splenomegaly
Lymphadenopathy

872
Q

Age groups for leukaemias acronyms

A 
ALL CeLLmates have CoMmon AMbitions
under 5, over 45
over 55
over 65
over 75
873
Q

ALL

A

Most common in children.

Downs syndrome

874
Q

CLL

A

Most common in adults

Warm haemolytic anaemia, Richters transformation into lymphoma, smudge and smear cells

875
Q

AML

A

Auer rods and blasts

Can come from myeloproliferative disorder

876
Q

CML

A

Philadelphia chromosome

877
Q

Painless lymphadenopathy and mediastinal mass

A

Hodgkins lymphoma

878
Q

Diagnosis of lymphoma

A

Excisional lymph node biopsy

879
Q

Treatment of hodgkins

A

ABVD

880
Q

Scan for lymphoma staging

A

CT PET

881
Q

Symptoms. of non hodgkins lymphoma

A

Lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, B symptoms (night sweats, weight loss, fever, amalaise)

882
Q

Treatment of non hodgkins lymphoma

A

RCHOP

883
Q

Treatment of hyeprcalcaemia

A

Saline

IV Pamidronate

884
Q

ECG in hypercalcaemia

A

Short QT

885
Q

When to suspect myeloma

A

Over 60 and bone/ back pain

886
Q

Myeloma diagnostic investigation

A

Serum/ urine electrophoresis for light chains/ bence jones protein

887
Q

Treatment of myeloma

A

Stem cell transplant or Thalidomide

Dexamethasone

888
Q

Consequences of myeloma

A 
Calcium
Renal
Anaemia
Bone pain
Bleeding
infection
889
Q

Fibroadenosis

A

Multiple breast lumps and pain prior to menstruation or menopause

890
Q

Symptoms of PCV

A

Red cheeks
Headaches
Raised haematocrit and haemoglobin

891
Q

Treatment of PCV

A
  1. Hydroxycarbamide

2. Phlebotomy

892
Q

Treatment of DVT if pregnant

A

LMWH

893
Q

DIC treatment

A

Fresh frozen plasma

894
Q

What are the clotting studies results in haemophilia

A

Increase APTT but normal bleeding time

895
Q

What are the findings in antiphospholipid investigations

A

Lupus anticoagulant antibodies

Increased APTT

896
Q

Treatment of von willebrands disease

A

Mild: tranexamic acid

More severe: desmopressin

897
Q

Treatment of B12 anaemia

A

Hydroxocabalamin

898
Q

Hypersegmented polymorphonuclear and megalocytes

A

B12 and folate

899
Q

Treamtent of raised ICP

A

IV mannitol and prednisolone

900
Q

Signs of raised ICP

A

High BP
Low pulse
Low resp rate

901
Q

Symptoms of SVC obstruction

A

Oedema of the face and upper extremities

902
Q

Investigations. of SVC obstruction

A
  1. CXR

2. CT

903
Q

Imaging of SBO

A

CT

904
Q

Imaging of LBO

A

AXR

905
Q

Investigation of seizures

A

Video telemetry and EEG

906
Q

Which anticonvulsant if elderly

A

Lamotrigine

907
Q

Side effects of chemotherapy

A 
Mucosal irritation
Myelosuppresion
Infertility
Mouth ulcers
Alopecia
908
Q

ECOG 0

A

Fully active

909
Q

ECOG 1

A

Light work

910
Q

ECOG 2

A

Ambulatory

911
Q

ECOG 3

A

Limited self care

912
Q

ECOG 4

A

Disabled

913
Q

ECOG 5

A

Dead

914
Q

Duodenal atresia investigation and finding

A

Abdominal XR= double bubble

915
Q

Treatment of GORD in child

A

Upright positioning
Feed thickeners
Fundoplication

916
Q

Small bowel biopsy findings in Coeliac

A

Villous atrophy
Crypt Hyperplasia
Increased intraepithelial lymphocytes

917
Q

Fanconi

A

Thirsty and weeing lots
Damage to PCT
Electrolyte losses

918
Q

Scan to look for renal scarring

A

DMSA

919
Q

Rate of chest compressions in child

A

100-120

920
Q

Fluid used for replacement in children

A

0.9% saline + 5% dextrose + 10mmol KCl

921
Q

Amount of fluid to give to rehydrate child stat

A

10ml/kg

922
Q

Perthes

A

4-8 year old

AVN of femoral head

923
Q

Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

A

10-15 years old

Displacement of femoral head posterio-inferiorly

924
Q

Developemntal dysplasia of hip

A

Neonate girl

925
Q

Treatment of intermittent/ exercise induced asthma

A

Salbutamol

926
Q

How do you assess severity of asthma in an under 5

A

Same as over 5 just without peak flow

FINALS (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions