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OC-2022 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following LEAST describes an organic compound?
A. It always comes from a living source.
B. It is composed of covalently bonded carbon atoms.
C. Light molecular weight compounds are combustible.
D. None of the above

A

A. It always comes from a living source.

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2
Q

The vital force theory was disproved by the synthesis of which compound?
A. ethanol
B. cyanide
C. urea
D. ammonia

A

urea

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3
Q

What is the hybridization of the carbonyl carbon in acetone?
A. sp
B. sp2
C. sp3
D. sp3d2

A

sp2

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4
Q

Degree of Unsaturation

A

DoU is the no. of pi bonds and rings in a molecule
A. calculate max no. of H
B. subtract the given value divided by 2 to find the no. of rings/pi bond
C. if oxygen, ignore;
d. if halogen, +1
e. if nitrogen, -1

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5
Q

Hydroxyl Group

A

Alcohols, Carboxylic Acids, Phenols

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6
Q

Alkyl Group

A

hydrocarbon chain
Methyl, ethyl, isopropyl

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7
Q

Carbonyl Group

A

C double bond O
Aldehydes, Ketones

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8
Q

Carboxyl Group

A

carbonyl + hydroxyl (C double bond O + OH)

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9
Q

Amino Group

A

NH2 attached to carbon chain

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10
Q

Amide Group

A

carbonyl group + amine

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11
Q

Which of the following is NOT a constitutional isomer with the others? (???)
A. cyclohexene
B. 3-methylpentene
C. 2-hexyne
D. 1-hexene

A

A. Cyclohexene

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12
Q

What is the common name for ethenylbenzene?
A. styrene
B. cumene
C. xylene
D. limonene

A

styrene

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13
Q

Which of the following is a pair of stereoisomers?
A. 2-octene and 3-octene
B. D-glucose and L-gulose
C. cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene
D. hexanoic acid and heptanoic acid

A

C. cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene

Stereoisomers have the same molecular formula and connectivity of atoms but differ in the spatial arrangement of atoms.
Consitutional - diff in connectivity

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14
Q

Which of the following is NOT an aliphatic compound?
A. neopentane
8. cycloheptane
C. 3-heptyne
D. xylene

A

xylene

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15
Q

Which of the following is/are characteristics of an aromatic compound?
I. It is cyclic and planar.
II. It is completely conjugated.
III. It is composed of even- numbered carbon atoms.

A

I and II

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16
Q

Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing boiling point?
A. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanone < butanol
B. n-pentane < 2-methylbutane butanone < butanol
C. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanol < butanone
D. n-pentane 2-methylbutane butanol < butanone

A

2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanone < butanol

Factors Affecting Boiling Point
1. Larger Size of Molecule = high BP
2. High Branching = low BP
3. Polarity - Dipole-dipole = high BP
4. Hydrogen Bonding = high BP

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17
Q

Which of the following solvents will butyric acid be most soluble?
A. CCl4
B. water
C. hexane
D. CH2Cl2

A

water

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18
Q

Among the Ortho, meta and para isomers of xylene, which has the highest boiling point?
A. ortho-xylene
B. meta-xylene
C. para-xylene
D. Ortho-xylene and para-xylene

A

ortho xylene

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19
Q

Which is the most acidic among the following compounds?
A. CH3OH
B. C6H5OH
C. CH3COOH
D. (CH3)3COH

A

CH3COOH

Acetic Acid
Carboxylic acids are generally stronger acids than alcohols

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20
Q

Which functional group is directly responsible for the flavors present in wine?
A. ester
B. ether
C. alcohol
D. anhydride

A

ester

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21
Q

Which of the following is used commonly as refrigerants?
A. alkyl ethers
B. alkyl esters
C. alkyl alcohols
D. alkyl halides

A

alkyl halides

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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT a step in addition polymerization?
A. initiation
B. substitution
C. propagation
D. termination

A

substitution

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23
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reagent for hydrogenation of an alkyne?
A. H2/Pd-c
B. H2/Lindlar
C. Na/NH3
D. BH3/H2O2, NaOH

A

BH3/H2O2, NaOH

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24
Q

Which alkyl halide will most readily react in SN1 reactions?
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. can be any

A

tertiary

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25
Q

Which of the following compounds is NOT produced from oxidation of alkenes?
A. ester
B. ketone
C. carboxylic acid
D carbon dioxide

A

ester

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26
Q

What is the product from the Friedel-Crafts alkylation of nitrobenzene?
A. ortho-n itrotoluene
B. meta-nitrotoluene
C. para-nitrotoluene
D. ortho-nitrotoluene and para- nitrotoluene

A

meta-nitrotoluene

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27
Q

An unknown alcohol was reacted with the Lucas reagent and the observation was the
immediate appearance of turbidity.
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. can be any

A

tertiary

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28
Q

Pyridinium cholorochromate (PCC) is a mild oxidizing agent. What is the product formed
when 1 -butanol reacts with PCC?
A. butanal
B. 2-butanone
C. butanoic acid
D. tert-butanol

A

butanal
since primary alcohol–> aldehyde

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29
Q

. What is the product when an aldehyde reacts with a Grignard reagent?
A. a secondary alcohol
B. an aldehyde
C. a ketone
D. an alkene

A

a secondary alcohol
grignard reagent- powerful nucleophile > aldehyde to secondary alcohol

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30
Q

. Which of the following indicates a positive observation for the iodoform test?
A. appearance of silver mirror
B. appearance of purple oily layer
C. appearance of yellow precipitate
D. appearance of colorless crystals

A

appearance of yellow precipitate

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31
Q

Acid chlorides are highly reactive derivatives of carboxylic acids that can
A. react with themselves to form ketones.
B. react with amines and alcohols to give amides and esters.
C. be made from alkyl alcohols by reaction with thionyl chloride.
D. be reduced to ketones with hydrogen and a platinum catalyst.

A

react with amines and alcohols to give amides and esters.

Acid + amine = amide
acid + alcohol = ester

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32
Q

What is the funnel used in suction filtration?
A. filter funnel
B. dropping funnel
C. thistle funnel
D. Büchner funnel

A

Büchner funnel

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33
Q

This is done during liquid-liquid extraction to release the pressure build up inside the
separatory funnel during shaking.
A- stirring
B. venting
C. drawing
D. salting out

A

venting
“release pressure”

Shake
Vent
Stand - break emulsion by salting out or stirring
Draw - open stopcok and drain lower layer

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34
Q

This method of distillation is suitable when the components of a mixture to be separated are
thermal-sensitive and could decompose at high temperatures.
A. steam distillation
B. simple distillation
C. fractional distillation
D. none of the above

A

steam distillation

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35
Q

Which of the following can be done to purify a synthesized solid product?
A. extraction
B. distillation
C. recrystallization
D. chromatography

A

recrystallization

  • purify nonvolatile organic solids
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36
Q

In a calibration curve, absorbance is plotted against the _______ of an analyte.
A. pH
B. volume
C. concentration
D. redox potential

A

concentration

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37
Q

. In this chromatographic method, the sample may be gas or liquid injected into a gaseous
mobile phase.
A. gas chromatography
B. affinity chromatography
C. thin layer chromatography
D. high pressure liquid chromatography

A

gas chromatography

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38
Q

It is the more common form of high pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC) where the
stationary phase is nonpolar and the mobile phase is polar.
A. HPLC-MS
B. HPLC-NMR
C. normal-phase
D. reversed-phase

A

reversed-phase

at normal= SP is polar, MP is nonpolar
at reverse = SP is nonpolar, MP is polar

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39
Q

What is the most appropriate type of container to be used for acid and base wastes?
A. metal drums
B. fiber drums
C. polyethylene drums
D. tightly-sealed glass container

A

polyethylene

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40
Q

It is the highest concentration of a substance in the air that will produce a fire or explosion
when source of ignition such as heat, spark or flame is present.
A. lower flammable limit
B. upper flammable limit
C. reactivity limit
D. flash limit

A

upper flammable limit

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41
Q

In an MSDS Data Sheet, which of the following color symbolizes reactivity?
A. blue
B. red
C. yellow
D. white

A

yellow

Blue: Health hazard
Red: Flammability
Yellow: Reactivity (also called instability)
White: Special hazards (e.g., corrosive, radioactive)

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42
Q

According to the GHS, which of the following is not under the pictogram “Gas Cylinder”?
A. compressed gas
B. dissolved gas
C. liquefied gas
D. explosive gas

A

explosive gas

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43
Q

Water is a suitable solvent for the recrystallization of benzoic acid. HOW should be addition of
the solvent?
A. Add benzoic acid to minimum amount of hot water with stirring.
B. Add room temp water to benzoic acid while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves.
C. Add maximum amount Of hot water to benzoic acid while stirring.
D. Add small portions of hot water to benzoic acid while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves.

A

Add small portions of hot water to benzoic acid while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves.

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44
Q

Sample preparation technique used prior to instrumental analysis of metals.
A. sieving
B. clean-up
C. acid digestion
D. liquid-liquid extraction

A

acid digestion

breaking down complex matrices through acid to release metals to soln

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45
Q

A simple fractional tube is packed with which of the following?
A. wooden beads
B. plastic beads
C. metal beads
D. glass beads

A

glass beads

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46
Q

. The organic liquid in steam distillation vaporizes at
A. a lower temperature than its boiling point
B. a higher temperature than its boiling point
C. its boiling point
D. none of the above

A

lower temperature than its boiling point

distill before it decompose at normal boiling points

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47
Q

The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography plate is made up of
A. glass
B. wood
C. fiber
D. metal

A

glass

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48
Q

Retardation factor is the ratio of
A. distance moved by substance from base line to distance moved by the solvent from base line
B. distance moved by solvent from base line to distance moved by the substance from base line
C. distance moved by substance from top line to distance moved by the solvent from top line
D. distance moved by solvent from top line to distance moved by the substance from top line

A

distance moved by substance from base line to distance moved by the solvent from base line

RF = dcomponent /dsolvent from the baseline

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49
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding galvanic cells?
A. TO set up this cell, a salt bridge is used.
B. The reactions taking place are non-spontaneous.
C. It converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
D. The electrolytes used in the compartments are different.

A

The reactions taking place are non-spontaneous.

galvanic (or voltaic) cell, the reactions are spontaneous, meaning they occur naturally and release energy.

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50
Q

. During electroplating of silver, the silver ions are reduced at the
A. anode
B. cathode
C. electrolyte solution
D. none of the above

A

cathode

Oxidation - Anode
Reduction - Cathode

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51
Q

A cell is prepared by dipping a copper rod in 1 M cuS04 solution and an iron rod in 2 M
FeS04 solution. Identify the anode and cathode.
A. anode-copper; cathode-iron
B. anode-iron; cathode-copper
C. anode-copper; cathode-copper
D. anode-iron; cathode-iron

A

anode-iron; cathode-copper

iron is mas reactive = oxiation = anode

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52
Q

Which of the following is the principle of Atomic Absorption spectroscopy?
A. Color is measured.
B. Color is simply observed.
C. Medium absorbs radiation and transmitted radiation is measured.
D. Radiation is absorbed by non-excited atoms in vapor state and are excited to
higher states.

A

Radiation is absorbed by non-excited atoms in vapor state and are excited to
higher states.

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53
Q

Which of the following statements about mass spectroscopy is(are) correct?
l. Analyte molecules are converted to gaseous ions.
ll. The ions are separated according to their mass to charge ratio.
Ill. The addition of compound identification mass spectra can be utilized to determine precise
isotopic masses and isotopic ratios.

A

I, Il, and Ill

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54
Q

IR spectroscopy is useful for determining certain aspects of the structure of organic
compounds because
A. All molecular bonds absorb IR radiation.
B. IR peak intensities are related to molecular mass.
C. Each element absorbs at a characteristic wavelength.
D. Most organic functional groups absorb in characteristic region of IR spectrum.

A

Most organic functional groups absorb in characteristic region of IR spectrum.

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55
Q

Determine which compound will have the following IR peaks: 3020-3100 and 1650-1670
cm-1
A. cyclohexane
B. cyclohexene
C. 3-hexyne
D. n-hexane

A

cyclohexene

3020-3100 cm?¹: C–H stretching of sp² hybridized carbons,
1650-1670 cm?¹: C=C double bond stretch, characteristic of alkenes.

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56
Q

The region of electromagnetic spectrum for NMR is
A. IR
B. UV-Vis
C. Microwave
D. Radio frequency

A

D. Radio frequency

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57
Q

Which list below gives only spin active nuclei?
A. 1H, 2H, 12C
B. 1H, 12C, 19F
C. 1H, 13C, 19F
D. 2H, 12C, 19F

A

H, 13C, 19F

spin active = non zero nuclear spin
if proton and neutron is even = zero nuclear spin

58
Q

Which of the following is(are) application(s) of ion exchange chromatography?
A. Softening Of hard water
B. Demineralization of water
C. Separation and determination of anions
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

59
Q

Which of the following is widely used for the separation/purification of specific
biomolecules? This relies on the highly specific binding between an analyte and its counterpart.
A. Chiral chromatography
B. Affinity chromatography
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Ion exclusion chromatography

A

affinity chromatography

“specific binding”

60
Q

What must be done to the solid samples for it to be introduced into the column without using
solid injection syringes in gas chromatography?
A. dissolved in volatile liquids
B. introduced using sampling loops
C. introduced using rotary sample valve
D. introduced in hot-zone of the column

A

dissolved in volatile liquids

61
Q

Which of the following is NOT an ideal characteristic of a detector used in gas
chromatography?
A. high reliability
B. short response time
C. linear response to the solutes
D. sensitive to the changes in the flow rate of a carrier gas

A

sensitive to the changes in the flow rate of a carrier gas

62
Q

Which of the following detectors is widely used to detect environmental samples like
chlorinated pesticides and polychlorinated biphenyls?
A. Flame ionization detector
B. Electron capture detector
C. Thermionic specific detector
D. Thermal conductivity detector

A

Electron capture detector

halogenated, nitro groups, highly conjugated, aromatic compounds

63
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about the guard column used in liquid chromatography?
A. It extends the lifespan of the separation column.
B. It filters particles that clog the separation column.
C. The size of packing varies with the type of protection needed.
D. It allows entry of particles that cause precipitation upon contact with stationary or mobile
phase.

A

It allows entry of particles that cause precipitation upon contact with stationary or mobile
phase.

64
Q

Which of the following columns are not used in liquid or high performance liquid
chromatography?
A. guard column
B. capillary column
C. analytical column
D. separation column

A

capillary column

65
Q

Electrophiles are
A. electron-poor species
B. electron-rich species
C. positively charged ions
D. electrically neutral species

A

A. electron-poor species

66
Q

Chlorination of alkanes is what type of reaction?
A. elimination
B. rearrangement
C. electrophilic addition
D. free-radical substitution

A

free-radical substitution

67
Q

Which of these compounds exist as cis and trans isomers?
A. dichlorobenzene
B. 1-chloropropene
C. dichloroethyne
D. 1,2-dichloropropane

A

B. 1-chloropropene

Cis-trans
1. FOR ALKENES
2. NOT terminal alkenes
3. NOT disubstituted
4. R1 is not equal to R2 and R3 is not equal to R4

68
Q

Which compound will rapidly decolorize Br2 in CHCl3?
A. Hexane
B. benzene
C. 1-hexene
D. cyclohexane

A

1-hexene

69
Q

Baeyer’s reagent is used to characterize alkenes. Which of the following is Baeyer’s reagent?
A. Neutral solution of HCI
B. Alcoholic solution of carbonate
C. Ammoniacal solution of silver nitrate
D. Aqueous solution of potassium permanganate

A

Aqueous solution of potassium permanganate

70
Q

In what way does the reactivity of CH3C?CH differ from CH3CH=CH2?
A. Propyne is deprotonated by NaNH2, while propene is not.
B. Propyne does not react with bromine, while propene reacts readily with bromine
C. Propyne undergoes catalytic hydrogenation over platinum, while propene does
D. Propyne is readily hydrated at pH = 0, while propene is not.

A

Propyne is deprotonated by NaNH2, while propene is not.

71
Q

Which of the following is an aromatic compound?
A. acetylene
B. acetone
C. styrene
D. polyethylene

A

styrene

aromatic - cyclic

72
Q

Which of the following is the most activating in electrophilic aromatic substitution?
A. -NO2
B. -NHCOCH3
C. -CN
D. -NH2

A

-NH2

Amino group - strongly activating

73
Q

Which of the following is the rate determining step in electrophilic aromatic substitution?
A. generation of the electrophile
B. addition of the electrophile on benzene’s bond to form a carbocation
C. loss of a proton to re-form the aromatic ring
D. none of the above

A

B. addition of the electrophile on benzene’s bond to form a carbocation

74
Q

Which of the following CANNOT be a product of the reaction of benzene with CH3Cl and
AICl3?
A. toluene
B. isopropyl benzene
C. o-xylene
D. p-xylene

A

isopropyl benzene

ONLY methyl can be added in the rxn NOT OH-

75
Q

Alkyl halides are very reactive towards nucleophiles because
A. they have a nucleophilic carbon and a good leaving group.
B. they have a nucleophilic carbon and a poor leaving group.
C. they have an electrophilic carbon and a good leaving group.
D. they have an electrophilic carbon and a poor leaving group.

A

C. they have an electrophilic carbon and a good leaving group.

76
Q

SN2 means
A. two-step nucleophilic substitution involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile
B. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile
C. two-step nucleophilic substitution involving only the alkyl halide
D. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving only the nucleophile

A

one-step nucleophilic substitution involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile

77
Q

Which of the following alkyl halides can undergo both SN1 and SN2 reactions?
A. CH3X
B. (CH3)2CHX
C. (CH3)3CX
D. (CH3)3CCH2X

A

B. (CH3)2CHX

Secondary halides can undergo both SN1 and SN2 reactions.

78
Q

Which compound has the highest boiling point?
A. CH3CH2CH3
B. CH3OCH2CH3
C. CH3COCH3
D. CH3CH2CH2OH

A

D. CH3CH2CH2OH

79
Q

Which of the following reactions will NOT produce aldehydes?
A. ozonolysis of alkenes
B. hydration of alkynes
C. oxidation of primary alcohols
D. dehydration of secondary alcohols

A

dehydration of secondary alcohols

forms alkenes not aldehydes

80
Q

Carbon is found in the highest oxidation state in which of these classes of organic
compounds?
A. alkynes
B. alcohols
C. aldehydes
D. carboxylic acids

A

carboxylic acids

81
Q

Which reaction could occur between acetic acid and ethanol?
A. addition
B. esterification
C. neutralization
D. oxidation

A

esterification

82
Q

Which of the following reagents can be used to distinguish between phenol and carboxylic
acid?
A. aqueous NaCl
B. aqueous NaOH
C. aqueous FeCl3
D. Tollens reagent

A

aqueous FeCl3

83
Q

Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenols and alcohols because of
A. formation of dimers
B. highly acidic hydrogen
C. intermolecular hydrogen bonding
D. resonance stabilization of their conjugate
base

A

resonance stabilization of their conjugate
base

84
Q

Solvent extraction is more effective when the extraction is repeated with
A. extra solvent
B. large solvent
C. small solvent
D. no solvent

A

small solvent

85
Q

The insoluble impurities during recrystallization are removed by
A. hot gravity filtration
B. vacuum filtration
C. cooling
D. drying

A

hot gravity filtration

86
Q

Steam baths are often used to heat volatile, non-aqueous, flammable solvents because of the
following EXCEPT
A. Can only heat up to 100’C so no
overheating occurs in the compounds of the
sample
B. Flash fires are unlikely in most solvents
C. Overheating is possible
D. Provides instant heat

A

Overheating is possible

87
Q

The beads in a fractional column are for
A. vapors to condense
B. vapors to evaporate
C. vapors to generate
D. all of the mentioned

A

A. vapors to condense

88
Q

Fractional distillation is a process of separation of which of the following?
A. two immiscible liquids
B. one miscible and one immiscible liquid
C. two miscible liquids
D. none of the above

A

two miscible liquids

89
Q

What is the advantage of steam distillation?
A. Reduces decomposition of temperature-sensitive compounds
B. Reduces decomposition of inorganic compounds
C. Increases the decomposition of temperature-sensitive compounds
D. Increases the decomposition of inorganic compounds

A

Reduces decomposition of temperature-sensitive compounds

90
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about steam distillation?
A. very long extraction times
B. very short extraction times
C. high energy consumption
D. no need for subsequent separation steps

A

. very short extraction times

91
Q

Which of the following is the correct way to determine the boiling point of an unknown
compound?
A. Heating a compound to boiling and measuring the temperature of the hot plate.
B. Heating a compound to near boiling and placing the thermometer in the liquid.
C. Boiling a compound and placing the thermometer in the refluxing vapor.
D. Boiling a compound and placing the thermometer in the boiling liquid.

A

Boiling a compound and placing the thermometer in the refluxing vapor.

92
Q

The principle of TLC is that
A. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to different degrees.
B. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees.
C. Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees.
D. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees.

A

C. Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees.

93
Q

Which of the following statements about visualization during TLC is TRUE?
A. Spots of colorless compounds are invisible to the eyes.
B. Spots can be detected by putting the plate under ultraviolet light.
C. Spots can be detected by placing the plate in a covered jar containing iodine crystals.
D. All Of the above.

A

D. All Of the above.

94
Q

Amino acids can be detected by spraying the stationary phase with ninhydrin solution. This
can be done in
A. gas chromatography
B. paper chromatography
C. liquid chromatography
D. column chromatography

A

paper chromatography

“spraying the stationary space w/ a solution)

95
Q

Karl Fischer titration, which determines trace amounts of water in a sample, uses which
electrochemical method?
A. Potentiometry
B. Coulometry
C. Voltammetry
D. Iodometry

A

Coulometry
“trace amounts of water”

96
Q

. Which of the following is NOT a common method used for purification?
A. Electrolysis
B. Sublimation
C. Crystallization
D. Chromatography

A

Electrolysis

97
Q

An institution that handles chemicals relies on the to make the initial determination of
whether a waste is hazardous and to label the waste accordingly?
A. Laboratory safety manager
B. Department of Environmental and
Natural Resources
C. Principal Investigator
D. Plant Safety Officer

A

B. Department of Environmental and
Natural Resources

98
Q

What should you do when a waste container has a minor leak?
A. Patch up the container.
B. Transfer to another container.
C. Call your PCO to report in a regulatory body.
D. Put the container with leak in a bigger container.

A

Transfer to another container.

99
Q

A technical document, which is GHS compliant, that contains all the information related to
the health hazard, storage, precautionary measures, emergency procedures, etc. when handling
chemicals.
A. Safety Data Sheet
B. Chemical Data Sheet
C. Material Safety Data Sheet
D. Chemical Safety Data Sheet

A

Safety Data Sheet

not about the material

100
Q

It has the highest temperature characteristics of any glass. Its maximum continuous use
temperature is approximately 9000C. It has a near zero thermal expansion and so is extremely
thermal shock resistant. It is also chemically inert to most substances except for a few substances
including hydrofluoric acid and hot potassium hydroxide.
A. lime glass
B. lead glass
C. borosilicate
D. fused quartz

A

fused quartz

101
Q

Which of the following demonstrates proper drying of cuvette?
A. dry using a desiccator
B. place in an oven to dry overnight
C. blot on absorbing towel or tissue paper and allow to air dry
D. none of the above

A

C. blot on absorbing towel or tissue paper and allow to air dry

102
Q

Which of the following is NOT a limitation of Beer-Lambert’s law?
A. Light must be of a narrow wavelength range and preferably monochromatic.
B. Presence of fluorescent molecule in solution may interfere in the final absorbance of solution.
C. At high concentration, molecules may polymerize and thereby affecting absorption of
solution.
D. Beer-Lambert’s law does not form the quantitative basis for all types of absorption
spectroscopy.

A

D. Beer-Lambert’s law does not form the quantitative basis for all types of absorption
spectroscopy.

103
Q

Which species of the following is used to bombard with the sample for which mass
spectroscopy has been performed?
A. alpha particles
B. neutrons
C. electrons
D. protons

A

electrons

104
Q

In the past, IR spectra had to be acquired one wavelength at a time, which took a long time.
Today spectra can be acquired faster due to the
A. light is faster today that it used to be
B. absence of broad spectrum of wavelength
C. Fourier Transfer algorithm which allows to scan all frequencies at once
D. none of the above

A

C. Fourier Transfer algorithm which allows to scan all frequencies at once

105
Q

What compound is possibly shown in an infrared spectrum with peaks of 3000 and 1650 cm?
A. cyclohexane
B. cyclohexene
C. benzene
D. acetone

A

B. cyclohexene

should be an alkene

106
Q

What is the correct increasing order of stretching frequencies for C?C, C=C and C-C?
A. C-C > C=C > C?C
B. C?C > C=C > C-C
c. C-C > C=C < C?C
D. C?C < C-C > C=C

A

C?C > C=C > C-C

stretching frequencies = bond length = high order = short bond length

107
Q

NMR spectroscopy indicates the chemical nature of the ______ and spatial positions of ____
A. Electrons, Protons
B. Neutrons, electrons
C. Nuclei, electrons
D. Nuclei, neighboring nuclei

A

D. Nuclei, neighboring nuclei

108
Q

In the IR spectrum of compound, there is a strong absorption at 1718 cm-I in addition to
bands at 2978 and 2940 cm-1 and bands below 1500 cm-1. The 1 H NMR spectrum shows two
signals: a quartet and a triplet with relative integrals of 2:3. Determine the molecular formula of
compound X.
A. CH3CH2CO2H
B. CH3CH2OCH2CH3
C. CH3CH2COCH2CH3
D. CH3CH2OH

A

CH3CH2COCH2CH3

quartet = ch2
triplet =ch3

109
Q

Chromatography is used to
A. Separate two or more compounds based on their polarities.
B. Separate two or more compounds based on their masses.
C. Separate two or more compounds based on how strongly they interact with other compounds.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

110
Q

Which type of chromatography is used for structural analysis?
A. Affinity chromatography
B. Partition chromatography
C. Column chromatography
D. Paper chromatography

A

D. Paper chromatography

111
Q

Which of the following can be separated using column chromatography?
A. sugar derivatives
B. hydrolyzed peptides
C. inorganic complex ions
D. chlorophylls and carotenoids

A

chlorophylls and carotenoids

112
Q

Affinity chromatography is used for the analysis and isolation of
A. starch
B. tyrosinase
C. antibodies
D. all of the mentioned

A

all of the mentioned

113
Q

Which of the following is useful for the separation of low molecular weight gases?
A. Gas-solid chromatography
B. Gas-liquid chromatography
C. Liquid-liquid chromatography
D. Thin layer chromatography

A

Gas-solid chromatography

114
Q

The analysis and separation of industrial products like soap and synthetic detergents is done
using
A. Thin layer chromatography
B. Gas chromatography
C. Partition chromatography
D. Ion exchange chromatography

A

Gas chromatography

115
Q

Ion exchange particles carry fixed positive or negative charges. A sulfonic acid type resin has
S03-H+ groups were H+ can be exchanged for
A. cations
B. anions
C. small cations and large anions
D. small anions and large cations

A

A. cations

116
Q

Which of the following is NOT an application of high performance liquid chromatography?
A. Separation of pharmaceutical drugs
B. Analysis of proteins, drugs and explosives
C. Separation of lipids, fatty acids and steroids
D. Elimination of undesirable substances from blood

A

Elimination of undesirable substances from blood

117
Q

How many different structural isomers exist for dichloropropane, C3H6Cl2?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

4

118
Q

How many different alcohols (not including stereoisomers) have the molecular formula
C4H10O?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

4

119
Q

All of the formulas below correspond to stable compounds EXCEPT
A. CH20
B. CH30
C. CH202
D.CH40

A

B. CH30

120
Q

Which of the following is(are) polar?
I. CO
ll. COCl2
Ill. CH2Cl2

A. I only
B. I and Il only
C. I and Ill only
D. Il and Ill only

A

D. Il and Ill only

121
Q

Identify the incorrect statement regarding cycloalkanes.
A. They have sp3 hybridized carbons.
B. They have tetrahedral bond angles.
C. Their stability varies directly with their respective size.
D. They undergo reactions similar to that of alkanes.

A

They have tetrahedral bond angles.

122
Q

. Select the incorrect statement regarding alkenes.
A. In alkenes, the carbons are connected by bonds.
B. Alkenes have almost same physical properties as that of the alkanes.
C. Alkenes are less reactive than alkanes.
D. Alkenes undergo polymerization reaction.

A

Alkenes are less reactive than alkanes.

123
Q

When ethyne is subjected to ozonolysis, what is the end product?
A. formic acid
B. acetic acid
C. oxalic acid
D. glucose

A

formic acid

124
Q

Which of the compounds below will react readily with chlorine by addition?
I. C2H2 (ethyne)
ll. C2H4 (ethene)
Ill. C6H6 (benzene)

A. I only
B. I and Il only
C. Il and Ill only
D. l, Il, and Ill

A

I and Il only

Benzene typically participates in electrophilic aromatic substitution rather than addition reactions.

125
Q

What is the order of reactivity of the following compounds in EAS?
l. benzene
ll. toluene
Ill. phenol
IV. benzoic acid

A

Phenol > Toluene > Benzene > Benzoic Acid

•	Phenol: Hydroxyl (-OH) = Electron-donating group
•	Toluene: Methyl (-CH₃) = Electron-donating group
•	Benzene: Less reactive than toluene (no substituent)
•	Benzoic Acid: Carboxyl group (-COOH) = Electron-withdrawing group
126
Q

What are the reagents needed in bromination of benzene via EAS?
A. Bromine in H20
B. Bromine in CH3Cl
C. Bromine in CH2Cl2
D. Bromine and FeBr3

A

Bromine and FeBr3

127
Q

What occurs during an electrophilic aromatic substitution?
A. [1] addition [2] hydrolysis
B. [1] elimination [2] addition
C. [1] addition [2] deprotonation
D. [1] substitution [2] rearrangement

A

C. [1] addition [2] deprotonation

128
Q

Which of the following is NOT true for SN1 reactions?
A. They occur through a single step concerted reaction.
B. They are favored by polar protic solvents.
C. Tertiary alkyl halides generally react through this mechanism.
D. Concentration of nucleophile does not affect the rate of such reactions.

A

A. They occur through a single step concerted reaction.

Sn1 - two step - polar protic
Sn2 - one step - polar aprotic

129
Q

A low concentration of nucleophile favors
A. SN1
B. SN2
C. Both SN1 and SN2
D. Neither SN1 nor SN2

A

D. Neither SN1 nor SN2

130
Q

Which statement(s) about substitution reactions are correct?
l. The reaction between NaOH and I-chloropentane predominantly follows an SN2 mechanism.
ll. The reaction between NaOH and 2-chloro-2-methylbutane predominantly follows an SN2
mechanism.
Ill. The reaction between NaOH with I-chloropentane occurs at a slower rate than with I
bromopentane.
A. land Il
B. I and Ill
C. Il and Ill
D. I, Il and Ill

A

B. I and Ill

131
Q

Which of the following alcohols would be most soluble in water?
A. Propanol
B. Hexanol
C. Pentanol
D. Butanol

A

propanol

as the carbon length increases = hydrophobic nature increases
short carbon = less hydrophobic

132
Q

The major reason that phenol is a better Bronsted acid than cyclohexanol is
A. it is a better proton donor.
B. the pi electrons stabilize the phenoxide ion by resonance.
C. the phenyl group is an electron withdrawing group by induction, which stabilizes the anion
formed in the reaction.
D. the cyclohexyl group is an electron donating group by induction, which destabilizes the anion
formed in the reaction.

A

the pi electrons stabilize the phenoxide ion by resonance.

133
Q

When aldehydes and ketones react via nucleophilic addition, they are converted to
A. alkanes
B. alkenes
C. ethers
D. alcohols

A

D. alcohols

134
Q

What is the IUPAC name for CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO?
A. pentanal
B. I-pentanol
C. I-pentanone
D. pentanoic acid

A

A. pentanal

135
Q

Which of these compounds contain a carboxy group?
A. propanol
B. propanal
C. propanone
D. propanoic acid

A

D. propanoic acid

136
Q

Which family of compounds is most frequently used as flavoring agents?
A. acids
B. alkenes
C. esters
D. ethers

A

C. esters

137
Q

Calculate the percent yield when 0.5 mol of acetic acid reacts with 1 mol of alcohol produces 0.25 mol of ethyl acetate.
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%

A

B. 50%

limiting reactant: acetic acid

138
Q

. Which of the following compounds are basic?
A. alkenes
B. alkynes
C. amines
D. alcohols

A

amines

e.g NH3

139
Q

The smell of rancid butter is due to the presence of butyric (butanoic) acid. What is the formula for this compound?
A. C4H8O2
B. C4H10O
C. C5H10O2
D. C5H12O

A

C4H8O2

140
Q

The most notable difference between a saturated and an unsaturated fat containing the same
number of carbon atoms is that the saturated fat
A. melts at a higher temperature.
B. melts at a lower temperature.
C. releases much more energy when metabolized.
D. releases much less energy when metabolized.

A

melts at a higher temperature.

Saturated fats tend to be solid at room temperature and typically have higher melting points

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