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AC-2022 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is the heaviest?
    A. proton
    B. neutron
    C. electron
    D. nucleus
A

nucleus

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2
Q

Which of the following is an extensive property of matter?
A. density
B. viscosity
C. freezing point
D. number of moles

A

number of molecules

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3
Q

Mothballs are used as deodorizers and as pesticides. Upon exposing them in the air for a few hours they disappeare D. Which of the following best explains the scenario?
A. The mothballs underwent sublimation.
B. The mothballs underwent melting then vaporization. C. The mothballs reacted with some component in the air.
D. None of the above.

A

the mothballs underwent sublimation

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4
Q

Which of the following is described as having components that CAN NOT be physically separated?
A. mixture
B. solution
C. suspension
D. pure substance

A

pure substance

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5
Q

Which of the following is TRUE for C-13 isotope?
A. It has 6 neutron and 7 protons.
B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.
C. It has 6 neutron and 13 protons.
D. It has 6 protons and 13 neutrons.

A

It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.

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6
Q

Chlorine (35.45 g/mol) has two major naturally occurring isotopes Cl-35 and Cl-37. What is the abundance of the lighter isotope?
A. 22.5
B. 33.5
C. 66.5
D. 77.5

A

77.5

Ave. atomic mass = (A x m1)+ (B x m2)
B = 1-A

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7
Q

Which of the following is NOT a possible set of quantum numbers?
A. n = 3 l = 1 ml = -1 ms = -1/2
B. n = 3 l = 0 ml = 0 ms = -1/2
C. n = 3 l = 0 ml = -1 ms = -1/2
D. n = 3 l = 1 ml = 0 ms = -1/2

A

n = 3 l = 0 ml = -1 ms = -1/2

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8
Q

Which of the following corresponds to the electron configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6?
A. Na
B. Na+
C. Cl
D. Cl-

A

Na+

(2+2+6) = 10e-
Na+ = 11e–1 = 10e-

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9
Q

What is the correct scientific notation for 0.0078 µg/mL of compound A?
A. 7.8x10-1 µg/mL
B. 7.8x10-2 µg/mL
C. 7.8x10-3 µg/mL
D. 7.8x10-4 µg/mL

A

7.8x10-3 µg/mL

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10
Q

Which of the following group is commonly used as components in pesticides? This group is also characterized as having seven valence electrons.
A. Alkali metals
B. Chalcogens
C. Halogens
D. Noble gases

A

Halogens

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11
Q

Which is the correct arrangement for increasing affinity for electrons?
A. K < Na < Cl < Ne
B. Na < K < Cl < Ne
C. Ne < K < Na < Cl
D. Ne < Na < K < Cl

A

Ne < K < Na < Cl

noble gas - very low electron affinity

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12
Q

Which of the following atoms is the largest?
A. Cs
B. Sr
C. Ga
D. As

A

Cs

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13
Q

Fluorine is capable of forming covalent bonds with which of the following element?
A. Zinc
B. Boron
C. Lithium
D. Calcium

A

Boron

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14
Q

Which of the following does NOT describe a nonpolar bond?
A. It is a bond between similar nonmetals.
B. It is a bond between different nonmetals.
C. It has a dipole moment.
D. All describe a nonpolar bond

A

It has a dipole moment.

Dipole -> unequal distribution –> polar

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15
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Double bonds are shorter than triple bonds.
B. Double bonds are stronger than triple bonds.
C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds. D. None of the statements above is true.

A

Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.

BO=BS=BE=1/BL

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16
Q

Which of the following is a polar molecule?
A. CO2
B. SF4
C. CCl4
D. XeF4

A

SF4

polar - net dipole - unequal
nonpolar - equal

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17
Q

Which compound has the greatest intermolecular force of attraction?
A. CO
B. CH4
C. CH3OH
D. CH3OCH3

A

CH3OH

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18
Q

What is the name of the compound PCl3?
A. Phosphorus chloride
B. Phosphorus trichloride
C. Phosphorus chloride(III)
D. Phosphorus trichloride(III)

A

Phosphorus trichloride

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19
Q

What is the chemical formula of plumbous oxide?
A. PbO
B. Pb2O2
C. PbO2
D. PbO4

A

PbO

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20
Q

Which of the following is the correct composition of aqua regia?
A. 1 HNO3: 3 HCl
B. 3 HNO3: 1 HCl
C. 2 HNO3: 3 HCl
D. 3 HNO3: 2 HCl

A

A. 1 HNO3: 3 HCl

1 part nitric acid to 3 parts hydrochloric acid.

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21
Q

Sodium carbonate is also known as?
A. baking soda
B. soda ash
C. caustic potash
D. caustic soda

A

soda ash

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22
Q

The standard pressure of the atmosphere at sea level is A. 1 atm
B. 760 mm Hg
C. 760 torr
D. all of the above

A

all of the above

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23
Q

At 25°C a gas expands from 30 kPa and 5.0 L to 70°C and 10 kP A. Calculate its final volume
A. 17 L
B. 24 L
C. 42 L
D. 71 L

A

17L

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24
Q

What is the density of oxygen at 1 atm and 25°C?
A. 1.31 g/mL
B. 1.31 g/L
C. 15.6 g/mL
D. 15.6 g/L

A

1.31 g/L

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25
Q

What are the conditions to achieve the non-ideality of gases?
A. high T low P
B. high T high P
C. low T low P
D. low T high P

A

high T low P

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26
Q

What is the percentage of carbon in C2H4?
A. 10
B. 33
C. 43
D. 86

A

86

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27
Q

An analysis of a compound shows 62.04% C 10.41% H and 27.55% O. Which of the following is the most probable?
A. C2H4O
B. C2H4O2
C. C3H6O
D. C3H6O2

A

C3H6O

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28
Q

What are the coefficients of HCl and ICl if the equation below is balanced?
HIO3 + FEI2 + HCl –> FeCl3 + ICl + H2O
A. 5 and 4
B. 13 and 21
C. 25 and 13
D. 21 and 25

A

25 and 13

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29
Q

Consider the complete combustion of glucose. If 25 g of glucose was burnt with 40 g of oxygen how many grams of CO2 were formed?
C6H12O6 + O2 –> CO2 + H2O
A. 37
B. 42
C. 55
D. 61

A

37

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30
Q

Consider the complete combustion of glucose. If 25 g of glucose was burnt with 40 g of oxygen how many grams of the excess reactant remained unreacted?
A. 8
B. 13
C. 17
D. 20

A

13

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31
Q

Which is also equivalent to 0.01% percent by weight?
A. 100 ppm
B. 10 ppt
C. 1 ppt
D. 1 ppb

A

100 ppm

ppm: 1x10^6
ppb: 1x10^9
ppt: 1x10^12

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32
Q

What volume of 4 M HCl is needed to prepare 1 L of a 0.5 M dilute solution?
A. 0.0125 L
B. 0.125 L
C. 0.0875 L
D. 0.875 L

A

0.125 L

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33
Q

A 2.4 L of HNO3 solution reacts with 63 mL of 1.9 N Ba(OH)2 to produce a neutral solution. What is the molar concentration of the original HNO3 solution?

A. 0.05 M
B. 0.12 M
C. 0.24 M
D. 0.50 M

A

0.05 M

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34
Q

What is the indicator that turns the solution into colors blue green and yellow if it becomes basic neutral and acidic respectively?
A. methyl orange
B. phenolphthalein
C. bromthymol blue
D. Eriochrome black T

A

bromthymol blue

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35
Q

What is the normality of a 5.0 M sulfuric acid?
A. 2.5 N
B. 5.0 N
C. 7.5 N
D. 10.0 N

A

10.0 N

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36
Q

How many grams of sodium persulfate (Na2S2O8) is required to prepare a 1 L solution with a concentration of 10% (w/v)?
A. 100 g
B. 101 g
C. 102 g
D. 99 g

A

100g

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37
Q

What is the oxidation state of chromium in K2Cr2O7?
A. +2
B. +3
C. +6
D. 0

A

6

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38
Q

Consider the endothermic reaction A (g) ? B (g) + C (g), which will cause a backward shift?
A. removal of B
B. increasing the volume
C. addition of catalyst
D. decreasing the temperature

A

decreaasing the temperature

Since the reaction is endothermic, decreasing the temperature will favor the exothermic direction (the backward shift)

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39
Q

Which of the following is a primary standard for use in standardizing bases?
A. Ammonium hydroxide
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Acetic acid
D. Potassium hydrogen phthalate

A

Potassium hydrogen phthalate

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40
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate apparatus in measuring 8.55 mL of liquid?
A. 1 mL graduated cylinder
B. 100 mL graduated cylinder
C. 10 mL pipet
D. 50 mL beaker

A

10 mL pipet

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41
Q

Which of the following is NOT a proper laboratory practice?
A. wearing of masks and gloves
B. drying of glassware after washing
C. tying or braiding long hairs
D. adding water to strong acid

A

adding water to strong acid

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42
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate container for hexane?
A. glass bottle
B. amber bottle
C. plastic bottle
D. none of these

A

amber bottle

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43
Q

Which of the following shows the correct path of light travel in a spectrophotometer?
A. monochromator — source — sample — detector
B. source — monochromator — sample — detector
C. monochromator — source — detector — sample
D. source — monochromator — detector — sample

A

source — monochromator — sample — detector

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44
Q

Cuvettes made of this material are required when working at a wavelength below 300 nm
where other materials show a significant absorption.
A. quartz
B. plastic
C. sodium chloride
D. potassium bromide

A

quartz

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45
Q

A blank that contains the solvent plus all the reagents used in sample preparation.
A. field blank
B. method blank
C. solvent blank
D. reagent blank

A

reagent blank

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46
Q

A graphical representation of measuring signal as a function of quantity of analyte.
A. Calibration curve
B. Quality Control Chart
C. Absorbance Chart
D. None of the above

A

Calibration curve

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47
Q

A solution has a pH of 3.72 with an absolute certainty of ±0.03. Determine the H+
concentration of the solution and its corresponding absolute certainty.
A. 1.9 (±0.1) x 10-4 M
B. 1.90 ((±0.13) x 10-4 M
C. 1.91 (±0.10) x 10-4 M
D. 1.91 (±0.13) x 10-4 M

A

A. 1.9 (±0.1) x 10-4 M

  1. Calculate H at pH = 3.72
    ?[H+] ? (?pH) * [H+]
    ?[H+] ? (±0.03) * (1.91 x 10^(-4) M)
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48
Q

How many significant figures does the universal gas constant (R=0.0821 L-atm/mol-K)?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. infinite

A

infinite

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49
Q

HOW many electrons can fit in the fourth main shell? A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32

A

32
Maximumelectrons=2n^2

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50
Q

Which does not correspond to the electron configuration of 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6
A. Potassium ion
B. Chloride ion
C. Sulfide ion
D. None of the above.

A

none of these

K+ = 19-1 = 18e-
Cl-= 17+1 = 18e-
S2-= 16 +2 = 18e-

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51
Q

Which of the following elements has greater electron affinity than oxygen?
A. sulfur
B. carbon
C. neon
D. fluorine

A

fluorine

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52
Q

Which molecular geometry has the greatest bond angle?
A. linear
B. tetrahedral
C. octahedral
D. trigonal bipyramidal

A

linear

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53
Q

What is the name of the compound indicated below?
Pb(ClO)4
A. plumbous perchlorate
B. plumbic perchlorate
C. plumbous hypochlorite
D. plumbic hypochlorite

A

plumbic hypochlorite

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54
Q

What is the chemical formula of nitrous acid?
A. HN3
B. HNO2
C. HNO3
D. H2NO3

A

B. HNO2

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55
Q

Alcohols and carboxylic acids have —OH groups. What type of chemical bonding occurs
between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms?
A. ionic
B. polar covalent
C. hydrogen
D. non-polar covalent

A

B. polar covalent

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56
Q

What is the other name for oil of vitriol?
A. paraffin
B. olefin
C. sulfuric acid
D. wax

A

sulfuric acid

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57
Q

It is a result of instantaneous dipole in a non-polar molecule?
A. London Dispersion Force
B. Dipole-dipole Interaction
C. Ion-Dipole Interaction
D. Hydrogen Bonding

A

London Dispersion Force

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58
Q

Which among the following compounds has the lowest boiling point?
A. decanol
B. lauric acid
C. toluene
D. benzene

A

benzene

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59
Q

What IMFA is/are present in the compound HC3(CH2)3CHO
A. LDF only
B. DDI only
C. LDF and DDI
D. LDF, DDI, and HB

A

LDF and DDI

LDF/VDW = always present
DDI (due to the polar carbonyl group)
No OH, NH, COOH –> HB

60
Q

A cylinder containing a gas is compressed to half its original volume. What will happen to its
pressure at constant temperature?
A. doubled
B. halved
C. no effect
D. cannot be determined

A

doubled

61
Q

A stock solution containing Mn2+ ions was prepared by dissolving 2.686 g of pure manganese
metal in nitric acid and diluting to a final volume of 500 mL From this stock solution, a volume of
10.00 mL was obtained and diluted to 250.0 mL. What is the molar concentration of the final
solution?
A. 4.889 x 10-2 M
B. 9.778 x 10-2 M
C. 1.956 X 10-3 M
D. 3.911x10^-3 M

A

Dilution Formula: C1V1 = C2V2

62
Q

The synthesis of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is an exothermic reaction. Which of
the following will favor the formation of ammonia?
A. Decrease in temperature
B. Increase in temperature
C. Removal of nitrogen
D. Addition of ammonia

A

decrease in temp

63
Q

Buffer solutions are solutions that can neutralize small amounts of added acids and bases to
maintain relatively stable pH values. Which of the following can be used to prepare a buffer
solution?
A. NaHCOO, HCOOH
B. NaSO4, H2SO4
C. NaCH3COO
D. HCI, NaOH

A

NaHCOO, HCOOH

64
Q

What is the pH of a solution containing 0.02 M CH3COOH and 0.01 M NaCH3COO? Ka of
CH3COOH = 1.8 x 10-5
A. 4.75
B. 5.25
c. 5.05
D. 4.44

A

4.44

65
Q

What is the molarity of 37% w/w hydrochloric acid? The density of 37% w/w HCI is 1.18
g/mL.
A. 10 M
B. 37 M
C. 12 M
D. 8 M

A

12 M

Assume V=1L
1.18 g/mL (1000mL/L) = 1180g (0.37)

66
Q

A type of analysis in terms of sample size that can resolve fine-scale variations in chemical
elements, as well as determine the presence and distribution of different phases in materials.
A. Macro
B. Semi-macro
C. Micro
D Ultra-micro

A

micro

“fine scale”

67
Q

An analyst determines that the analytical balance he used in a given analytical test is wrongly
calibrated. Determine what type of error is represented.
A. Systematic error
B. Random error
C. Gross error
D. Cannot be determined

A

Systematic Error

68
Q

It is a plot of an instrument’s readout vs. concentration, the data for which are the results of
measuring a series of standard solutions prepared for the experiment.
A. Linear range
B. Calibration curve
C. Dynamic range
D. Linear dynamic range

A

Calibration curve

69
Q

It describes the policies and procedures the laboratory has to manage in relation to quality, or
references where those procedures can be found. An essential requirement of ISO 9000 series of
standards and ISO 17025.
A. Quality Assurance
B. Quality Control
C. Quality Manual
D. Documentation

A

Quality Manual

70
Q

It is a written program developed and implemented by the employer which sets forth
procedures, equipment, PPE, and work practices that are capable of protecting employees from the
health hazard presented by hazardous chemicals used in the workplace.
A. Safety Manual
B. Chemical Hygiene Plan
C. Safety Rules and Policies
D. Safety Plan

A

Chemical Hygiene Plan

71
Q

This type of method consists of a set of instructions about how to carry out a method issued
by a national standards body and legislated by the national government to become mandatory.
A. Standard method
B. Regulatory method
C. Reference method
D. Validated method

A

Regulatory method

“mandatory” “national govt”

72
Q

In starting-up laboratory operations, the following should be observed except.
A. Turning on the hoods, vents, and exhaust fans.
B. Turning the equipment and instruments on.
C. Performing analysis immediately.
D. Monitoring operating parameters.

A

Performing analysis immediately.

73
Q

The following groups are known to be peroxide-forming compounds EXCEPT
A. Ethers with primary and/or secondary alkyl groups.
B. Hydrocarbons with allylic, benzylic, or propargylic hydrogens.
C. Conjugated dienes, eneynes, and diynes.
D. All are peroxide-formers.

A

All are peroxide-formers.

74
Q

Which of the following is/are TRUE about the laboratory chemical hood?
I. All work should be carried out at least 15 cm (6 in.) from the front edge of the hood.
ll. Before each work, be sure that the hood exhaust system is functioning properly.
Ill. Store hazardous chemicals inside the chemical hood to protect personnel from toxic fumes
exposure.
IV. The performance of laboratory chemical hood is highly dependent on its location.
A. I and II
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II, and III
D. I, II, and IV

A

D. I, II, and IV

I. All work should be carried out at least 15 cm (6 in.) from the front edge of the hood.
ll. Before each work, be sure that the hood exhaust system is functioning properly.
IV. The performance of laboratory chemical hood is highly dependent on its location.

75
Q

What hazards are represented by a GHS pictogram with a flame over circle symbol?
A. Flammable and self-reactive substances
B. Oxidizers, organic peroxides
C. Carcinogens
D. Explosives

A

B. Oxidizers, organic peroxides

76
Q

It is a hazardous waste characteristic which applies to waste liquids with a flash point less
than 1400C or solids capable of spontaneous combustion under normal temperature and pressure.
A. Ignitability
B. Reactivity
C. Corrosivity
D. Toxicity

A

Ignitability

77
Q

What is the pH of an acidic waste?
A. pH ? 2
B. pH ? 3
C. pH ? 12.5
D. pH = 7

A

pH ? 2

78
Q

This refers to a person who produces hazardous wastes, through any institutional,
commercial, industrial, or trade activities.
A. Waste generator
B. Waste treater
C. Waste transporter
D. Pollution Control Officer

A

A. Waste generator

79
Q

The correct hierarchy of control principle (decreasing priority) from a chemical exposure
perspective is
I. PPE
ll. Engineering controls
Ill. Administrative controls
IV. Elimination
V. Substitution

A

Elimination
Substitution
Engineering Controls
Administrative Controls
PPE

80
Q

An exposure limit that indicates the maximum average concentration to which workers can
safely be exposed for a normal 8-hr workday or 48-hr workweek.

A. Time weighted average (TWA)
B. Short-term exposure limit (STEL)
C. Ceiling (C)
D. Immediately dangerous to life or health
(IDLH)

A

Time weighted average (TWA)

81
Q

This refers to a single sample or measurement taken at specific time or over a short period as
feasible.
A. Grab sample
B. Composite sample
C. Laboratory sample
D. None of the above

A

Grab sample

82
Q

Which of the following are TRUE about uncertainty?
I. It is a difference between a single measurement or result and its true value.
II. The range of possible values for a measurement.
III. A measure of bias in a result or measurement.
IV. It accounts for all errors (both determinate and indeterminate).

A

II. The range of possible values for a measurement.
IV. It accounts for all errors (both determinate and indeterminate).

83
Q

It is a graph showing the time-dependent change in the results of an analysis that is used to
monitor whether an analysis is in a state of statistical control.
A. Calibration curve
B. Standard Curve
C. QC chart
D. Monitoring chart

A

QC chart

“statistical control”

84
Q

A clean sample (e.g. distilled water) processed through the instrumental steps or the
measurement process to determine instrument contamination.
A. Method blank
B. Instrumental blank
C. Surrogate
D. Reagent blank

A

B. Instrumental blank

“instrument”

85
Q

What is the scientific notation of 0.0078 ug/ml of compound A?
A. 7.8 x 10-1 gg/mL
B. 7.8 x 10-2 gg/mL
C. 7.8 x 10-3 gg/mL
D. 7.8 x 10-4 gg/mL

A

7.8 x 10-3 gg/mL

86
Q

. Which does NOT indicate a chemical change?
A. change in color
B. change in size
C. change in shape
D. change in color

A

B. change in size

87
Q

Which of the following is described as having components that can be physically separated?
A. mixture
B. solution
C. suspension
D. compound

A

A. mixture

88
Q

A certain radioisotope has a half-life of 9 days. What percentage of an initial mass of this
isotope remains after 25 days?
A. 14.58
B. 0.57
C. 73.05
D. 85.41

A

14.58

89
Q

Which will cause the mass of a metal block to increase?
A. putting it in a freezer
B. heating it
C. measure in Jupiter
D. none of the above

A

none of the above

90
Q

Chromium is a member of which of the following?
A. Actinides
B. Lanthanides
C. Alkali metals
D. Transition metals

A

Transition metals

91
Q

Which of the following oxides is likely to be basic in aqueous solution?
A. SO2
B. CO2
C. MgO
D. P2O5

A

MgO

92
Q

How many significant figures are there in the 3.400 g?
A. Infinite
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

4

93
Q

A salt solution of which metal produces a bright red color in a flame test?
A. Ba
B. Na
C. Ca
D. Ra

A

Ra

94
Q

Which element is a pale-yellow gas that reacts with water?
A.H2
B. F2
C. Cl2
D. Br2

A

F2

“pale yellow gas”

95
Q

Which of the following does NOT describe a nonpolar bond?
A. It is a bond between similar nonmetals.
B. It is a bond between different nonmetals.
C. It has a dipole moment.
D. All describes a nonpolar bond.

A

It has a dipole moment.

96
Q

Which of the following covalent compounds has a tetrahedral geometry?
A. CH4
B. NH3
C. H2O
D. BF

A

CH4

97
Q

Which of the following is NOT an indication of strong IMFA?
A. high viscosity
B. high volatility
C. high boiling point
D. high melting point

A

high volatility

high volatility = low boiling point = weak intermolecular forces =

98
Q

What is the name of the compound PCl3?
A. Phosphorus chloride
B. Phosphorus trichloride
C. Phosphorus chloride(lll)
D. Phosphorus trichloride(lll)

A

Phosphorus trichloride

(tri, tetra, di) for covalent bond only

99
Q

What is the chemical formula of mercurous chloride?
A. HgCl
B. Hg2Cl
c. HgCl2
D. Hg2Cl2

A

D. Hg2Cl2

100
Q

Liquid A has lower boiling point than liquid B. Which of the following is true about the
boiling point of the solution formed upon mixing A and B?
A. less than that of A
B. greater than that of B
C. average of A and B
D. between A and B

A

between A and B

101
Q

Ethanoic acid (MM = 60.05 g/mol) and ethanol (MM = 46.07 g/mol) reacts to form ethyl
ethanoate (88.11 g/mol) and water. Twenty grams of ethanoic acid reacted with 10 grams of
ethanol, and 17 grams of ethyl ethanoate was obtained. What is the percentage yield of the
reaction?
A. 89%
B. 153%
C. 57%
D. 104%

A

89%

102
Q

Determine the molality of 6 M sulfuric acid solution with specific gravity equal to 1.34.
A. 8m
B. 12m
C. 6 m
D. 10m

A

8m

  1. Assume volume
    2.Mass of Solution
  2. Mass of Solute
  3. Mass of solvent = solution -solute
103
Q

Which of the following is false about PH indicators?
A. Wider pH range indicate that the indicator is sensitive to pH changes.
B. Narrow pH range indicate that the indicator is sensitive to pH changes.
C. An indicators pH range is the range of pH values over which the indicator changes colors
from its acid and base forms
D. An indicator that changes color close to the pH of the equivalence point must be used when
titrating.

A

A. Wider pH range indicate that the indicator is sensitive to pH changes.

104
Q

This part of an electrochemical cell maintains electrical neutrality.
A. salt bridge
B. electrodes
C. voltmeter
D. electrolytes

A

salt bridge

“maintains electrical neutrality”

105
Q

. In a galvanic cell, reduction occurs in the while in an electrolytic cell, oxidation occurs in the
A. anode, anode
B. cathode, cathode
C. cathode, anode
D. anode, cathode

A

cathode, anode
Oxidation: anode
Reduction: cathode

106
Q

When NH4Cl hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is
A. acidic
B. basic
C. neutral
D. none of the above

A

acidic

107
Q

What type of cell converts chemical to electrical energy?
A. Electrolytic Cell and Galvanic Cell
B. Electrolytic Cell and Voltaic Cell
C. Voltaic Cell and Galvanic Cell
D. Electrolytic Cell only

A

Voltaic Cell and Galvanic Cell

108
Q

When water is heated in a beaker, bubbles of air form on the side of the glas before the water
boils. This shows that
A. the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature
B. the solubility of gases in water increases with increasing temperature
C. the solubility of gases in water decreases with decreasing temperature
D. the solubility of gases in water increases with decreasing temperature

A

the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature

109
Q

Which of the following is TRUE?
A. TC pipet has colored band and the liquid in it must be blown out by aspirator.
B. TD pipet has colored band and the liquid in it must be blown out by aspirator.
C. TC pipet has colored band while the liquid in a TD pipet must be blown out by aspirator.
D. TD pipet has colored band while the liquid in a TC pipet must be blown out by aspirator.

A

TC pipet has colored band and the liquid in it must be blown out by aspirator.

110
Q

Which of the following is a treatment for HF burns?
A. water
B. Epsom salt
C. 25% brine solution
D. calcium gluconate

A

calcium gluconate

111
Q

Which of the following shows the correct arrangement of the regions of the electromagnetic
spectrum in terms of wavelength?
A. Infrared > ultraviolet > visible > microwave > radio waves
B. Microwave > infrared > visible > ultraviolet > radio waves
C. Radio waves > microwave > infrared > visible > ultraviolet
D. Ultraviolet > visible > infrared > microwave > radio waves

A

Radio waves > microwave > infrared > visible > ultraviolet

112
Q

Why is it generally preferable to use absorbance as a measure of absorption rather than %
transmittance?
A. because %T cannot be measured as accurately as absorbance
B. because %T is dependent on the power of the incident radiation
C. because absorbance is proportional to the concentration of the analyte, whereas %T is not
D. none of the above

A

C. because absorbance is proportional to the concentration of the analyte, whereas %T is not

113
Q

Column chromatography is based on the principle of
A. Exclusion
B. Absorption
C. Ion exchange
D. Differential adsorption

A

Differential adsorption

114
Q

The height equivalent of a theoretical plate (HETP) has all of the following characteristics
EXCEPT
A. It is defined by the van Deemter equation.
B. Equilibrium is attained at each height equivalent.
C. The smaller the value is, the better the separation attainable.
D. The inverse of this quantity times the total column length is equal to the number of theoretical
plates in the column.

A

B. Equilibrium is attained at each height equivalent.

115
Q

Which of the following focuses on Quality Management Systems?
A. ISO 9001
B. ISO 17025
C. ISO 15189
D. GLP

A

A. ISO 9001

116
Q

A solution has a pH of 3.72 with an absolute certainty of ±0.03. Determine the H+
concentration of the solution and its corresponding absolute certainty.
A. 1.9 (±0.1) x10-4 M
B. 1.90 (±0.13) x10-4 M
C. 1.91 (±0.10) x10-4M
D. 1.91 (±0.13) x10-4 M

A

A. 1.9 (±0.1) x10-4 M

?[H+] ? (?pH) * [H+]
?[H+] ? (±0.03) * (1.91 x 10^(-4) M)

117
Q

If a fire extinguisher has a red body and a blue band, what is its content?
A. Foam type
B. Dry chemical type
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Halon substitute

A

Foam type

118
Q

Type of analysis where the amounts of all constituents in the samples are
determined.
A. Complete (or ultimate) analysis
B. Partial analysis
C. Elemental analysis
D. Proximate analysis

A

A. Complete (or ultimate) analysis

“all”

119
Q

Method consisting a set of instructions issued by a national standards body.
A. Standard method
B. Primary method
C. Regulatory method
D. Validated method

A

A. Standard method

120
Q

It is a detailed written instruction to achieve uniformity in the performance of a specific
function.
A. Standard method
B. Protocol
C. Standard operating procedure
D. Analytical procedure

A

Standard operating procedure

121
Q

It accounts for all the other components in the mixture that are not under
investigation.
A. Analyte
B. Matrix
C. Measurand
D. Test

A

matrix

122
Q

In the determination of weight percent content of iron in an iron ore by gravimetric method,
which of following statement/s is/are true?
l. The iron ore is the analyte.
ll. Other minerals present in the ore are collectively called the matrix.
Ill. Gravimetric method is the analytical method that will be employed in the analysis.
IV. The process of determination of the concentration of iron present in the matric is called
analysis.

A. I only
B. land Il
C. Il and Ill
D. II, III and IV

A

II, III and IV

123
Q

When qualifying a working standard, what is the best type of reagent to use?
A. Reagent grade
B. Technical grade
C. Primary standard
D. Analytical grade

A

Primary standard

124
Q

An analysis of ore assays about 1.5% iron. What minimum sample mass should
be taken if the relative error resulting from a 0.5-mg loss is not to exceed -0.2%?
A. 16.7 mg
B. 17 mg
c. 17 g
D.16 g

A

17 g

mass = absolute error/relative error
0.5mg/0.2% x100 = 250
2500/1.5% = 17g

125
Q

Which of the following correctly describe/s the detection limit?
l. Concentration that gives a readout level that is more than the electrical noise level inherent in
the baseline.
ll. It is the smallest concentration that can be determined with a reasonable degree of precision.
Ill. A qualitative parameter in the sense that it is the minimum concentration that can be detected,
but not precisely determined.
IV. It would tell the analyst that the element is present, but not necessarily at a precisely
determinable concentration level.

A

II, III and IV

126
Q

It is a part of quality system that includes laboratory operations whose objective is to ensure
that the data generated by the laboratory are of known accuracy to some stated, quantitative
degree of probability.
A. Quality Management
B. Quality Assurance
C. Quality Control
D. Quality Manual

A

Quality Control

127
Q

The quantity of material which is assumed to represent a single population for sampling
purposes.
A. Bulk material
B. Lot
C. Segment
D. Batch

A

B. Lot

128
Q

What is the name of RA 6969?
A. Toxic Substances Control Act
B. Toxic Substances and Hazardous Wastes Control Act
C. Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Control Act
D. Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Management Control Act

A

Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Control Act

129
Q

In handling diethyl and other ethers, the following practices are correct except for one.
A. Distill these substances to dryness to remove peroxides that were possibly formed from air
autoxidation.
B. Ferrous salts or sodium bisulfite can be used to decompose peroxides formed by these
substances.
C. Passage over basic active alumina can remove most of the peroxidic material.
D. Dispose old or expired ethers

A

Distill these substances to dryness to remove peroxides that were possibly formed from air
autoxidation.

130
Q

What is the chemical formula of diphosphorus monobromide?
A. PBr?
B. PBr
C. P?Br?
D. P?Br

A

P2Br

131
Q

When ammonium chloride (NH?Cl) hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is ____.
A. acidic
B. basic
C. neutral
D. none of the choices

A

acidic

132
Q

Sodium carbonate is also known as?
A. baking soda (NaHCO3)
B. soda ash (Na2CO3)
C. caustic potash (KOH)
D. caustic soda (NaOH)

A

B. soda ash (Na2CO3)

133
Q

What is the molar mass or an unknown gas if 1.60 grams of that gas occupies a volume of
2.24 L at STP?
A. 35.8 g/mol
B. 160 g/mol
C. 16.0 g/mol
D. 81.0 g/mol

A

16 g/mol

At STP = T = 273.15K, P = 1 atm

134
Q

During the electroplating of silver, silver ions in solution _____.
A. are oxidized at the anode
B. are oxidized at the cathode
C. are reduced at the cathode
D. remain in solution unchanged

A

C. are reduced at the cathode

135
Q

Which is also equivalent to 0.01% percent by weight?
A. 100 ppm
B. 10 ppt
C. 1 ppt
D. 1 ppb

A

100 ppm

0.01%/100% * 1x10^6

136
Q

The maximum holding time for acid preserved samples that will be subjected to
determination of metals is
A. 48 hours
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 1 week

A

48 hrs

“acid preserved”

137
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate container for hexane?
A. glass bottle
B. amber bottle
C. plastic bottle
D. none of these

A

B. amber bottle

138
Q

Minimum concentration of a substance that can be measured and reported with confidence at
the analyte concentration is greater than zero refers to _________.
A. Lower Warning Limit
B. Method Detection Limit
C. Control Limit
D. Limit of Quantitation

A

Method Detection Limit

139
Q

The fire triangle consists of which of the following?
A. Oxygen, Heat, Material
B. Air, Heat. Fire
C. Air, Fuel, Spark
D. Oxygen, Heat, Fuel

A

Oxygen, Heat, Fuel

140
Q

What is the chemical formula of nitrous acid?
A. HN?
B. HNO?
C. HNO?
D. H?NO?

A

B. HNO?

nitric: HNO3
nitrous: HNO2

141
Q

What is the other name for oil of vitriol?
A. paraffin
B. olefin
C. sulfuric acid
D. wax

A

sulfuric acid

142
Q

Alcohols and carboxylic acids have –OH groups. What type of chemical bonding occurs
between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms?
A. ionic
B. polar covalent
C. hydrogen
D. non-polar covalent

A

polar covalent

143
Q
  1. The following statements are true about pH EXCEPT
    A. it is the negative logarithm of hydrogen ions content in a solution
    B. a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution
    C. a measure of the amount or hydrogen ions in solution
    D. does not change when there are changes in temperature
A

does not change when there are changes in temperature

144
Q

It describes the policies and procedures the laboratory has to manage in relation to quality, or
references where those procedures can be found. An essential requirement of ISO 9000 series of
standards and ISO 17025.
A. Quality Assurance
B. Quality Control
C. Quality Manual
D. Documentation

A

Quality Manual

145
Q

When NaCH?COO hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is
A. acidic
B. basic
C. neutral
D. none of the above

A

basic

146
Q

The responsibilities of chemists and chemical technicians embodied in the Code of Ethics
include all EXCEPT
A. They are expected to be stewards of the environment by following the laws, rules and
regulations pertaining to chemical wastes management and disposal.
B. They shall undertake the professional practice of Chemistry only when in possession of a
valid COR and ID issued by the Board and the Commission.
C. All Chemistry practitioners are obliged to maintain active membership in the Accredited
Professional Organization (APO) for the Chemistry profession, and to participate in the activities
of the latter.
D. None of the above.

A

D. None of the above.

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