AC-2022 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is the heaviest?
    A. proton
    B. neutron
    C. electron
    D. nucleus
A

nucleus

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2
Q

Which of the following is an extensive property of matter?
A. density
B. viscosity
C. freezing point
D. number of moles

A

number of molecules

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3
Q

Mothballs are used as deodorizers and as pesticides. Upon exposing them in the air for a few hours they disappeare D. Which of the following best explains the scenario?
A. The mothballs underwent sublimation.
B. The mothballs underwent melting then vaporization. C. The mothballs reacted with some component in the air.
D. None of the above.

A

the mothballs underwent sublimation

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4
Q

Which of the following is described as having components that CAN NOT be physically separated?
A. mixture
B. solution
C. suspension
D. pure substance

A

pure substance

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5
Q

Which of the following is TRUE for C-13 isotope?
A. It has 6 neutron and 7 protons.
B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.
C. It has 6 neutron and 13 protons.
D. It has 6 protons and 13 neutrons.

A

It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.

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6
Q

Chlorine (35.45 g/mol) has two major naturally occurring isotopes Cl-35 and Cl-37. What is the abundance of the lighter isotope?
A. 22.5
B. 33.5
C. 66.5
D. 77.5

A

77.5

Ave. atomic mass = (A x m1)+ (B x m2)
B = 1-A

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7
Q

Which of the following is NOT a possible set of quantum numbers?
A. n = 3 l = 1 ml = -1 ms = -1/2
B. n = 3 l = 0 ml = 0 ms = -1/2
C. n = 3 l = 0 ml = -1 ms = -1/2
D. n = 3 l = 1 ml = 0 ms = -1/2

A

n = 3 l = 0 ml = -1 ms = -1/2

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8
Q

Which of the following corresponds to the electron configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6?
A. Na
B. Na+
C. Cl
D. Cl-

A

Na+

(2+2+6) = 10e-
Na+ = 11e–1 = 10e-

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9
Q

What is the correct scientific notation for 0.0078 µg/mL of compound A?
A. 7.8x10-1 µg/mL
B. 7.8x10-2 µg/mL
C. 7.8x10-3 µg/mL
D. 7.8x10-4 µg/mL

A

7.8x10-3 µg/mL

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10
Q

Which of the following group is commonly used as components in pesticides? This group is also characterized as having seven valence electrons.
A. Alkali metals
B. Chalcogens
C. Halogens
D. Noble gases

A

Halogens

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11
Q

Which is the correct arrangement for increasing affinity for electrons?
A. K < Na < Cl < Ne
B. Na < K < Cl < Ne
C. Ne < K < Na < Cl
D. Ne < Na < K < Cl

A

Ne < K < Na < Cl

noble gas - very low electron affinity

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12
Q

Which of the following atoms is the largest?
A. Cs
B. Sr
C. Ga
D. As

A

Cs

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13
Q

Fluorine is capable of forming covalent bonds with which of the following element?
A. Zinc
B. Boron
C. Lithium
D. Calcium

A

Boron

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14
Q

Which of the following does NOT describe a nonpolar bond?
A. It is a bond between similar nonmetals.
B. It is a bond between different nonmetals.
C. It has a dipole moment.
D. All describe a nonpolar bond

A

It has a dipole moment.

Dipole -> unequal distribution –> polar

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15
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Double bonds are shorter than triple bonds.
B. Double bonds are stronger than triple bonds.
C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds. D. None of the statements above is true.

A

Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.

BO=BS=BE=1/BL

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16
Q

Which of the following is a polar molecule?
A. CO2
B. SF4
C. CCl4
D. XeF4

A

SF4

polar - net dipole - unequal
nonpolar - equal

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17
Q

Which compound has the greatest intermolecular force of attraction?
A. CO
B. CH4
C. CH3OH
D. CH3OCH3

A

CH3OH

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18
Q

What is the name of the compound PCl3?
A. Phosphorus chloride
B. Phosphorus trichloride
C. Phosphorus chloride(III)
D. Phosphorus trichloride(III)

A

Phosphorus trichloride

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19
Q

What is the chemical formula of plumbous oxide?
A. PbO
B. Pb2O2
C. PbO2
D. PbO4

A

PbO

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20
Q

Which of the following is the correct composition of aqua regia?
A. 1 HNO3: 3 HCl
B. 3 HNO3: 1 HCl
C. 2 HNO3: 3 HCl
D. 3 HNO3: 2 HCl

A

A. 1 HNO3: 3 HCl

1 part nitric acid to 3 parts hydrochloric acid.

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21
Q

Sodium carbonate is also known as?
A. baking soda
B. soda ash
C. caustic potash
D. caustic soda

A

soda ash

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22
Q

The standard pressure of the atmosphere at sea level is A. 1 atm
B. 760 mm Hg
C. 760 torr
D. all of the above

A

all of the above

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23
Q

At 25°C a gas expands from 30 kPa and 5.0 L to 70°C and 10 kP A. Calculate its final volume
A. 17 L
B. 24 L
C. 42 L
D. 71 L

A

17L

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24
Q

What is the density of oxygen at 1 atm and 25°C?
A. 1.31 g/mL
B. 1.31 g/L
C. 15.6 g/mL
D. 15.6 g/L

A

1.31 g/L

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25
What are the conditions to achieve the non-ideality of gases? A. high T low P B. high T high P C. low T low P D. low T high P
high T low P
26
What is the percentage of carbon in C2H4? A. 10 B. 33 C. 43 D. 86
86
27
An analysis of a compound shows 62.04% C 10.41% H and 27.55% O. Which of the following is the most probable? A. C2H4O B. C2H4O2 C. C3H6O D. C3H6O2
C3H6O
28
What are the coefficients of HCl and ICl if the equation below is balanced? HIO3 + FEI2 + HCl --> FeCl3 + ICl + H2O A. 5 and 4 B. 13 and 21 C. 25 and 13 D. 21 and 25
25 and 13
29
Consider the complete combustion of glucose. If 25 g of glucose was burnt with 40 g of oxygen how many grams of CO2 were formed? C6H12O6 + O2 --> CO2 + H2O A. 37 B. 42 C. 55 D. 61
37
30
Consider the complete combustion of glucose. If 25 g of glucose was burnt with 40 g of oxygen how many grams of the excess reactant remained unreacted? A. 8 B. 13 C. 17 D. 20
13
31
Which is also equivalent to 0.01% percent by weight? A. 100 ppm B. 10 ppt C. 1 ppt D. 1 ppb
100 ppm ppm: 1x10^6 ppb: 1x10^9 ppt: 1x10^12
32
What volume of 4 M HCl is needed to prepare 1 L of a 0.5 M dilute solution? A. 0.0125 L B. 0.125 L C. 0.0875 L D. 0.875 L
0.125 L
33
A 2.4 L of HNO3 solution reacts with 63 mL of 1.9 N Ba(OH)2 to produce a neutral solution. What is the molar concentration of the original HNO3 solution? A. 0.05 M B. 0.12 M C. 0.24 M D. 0.50 M
0.05 M
34
What is the indicator that turns the solution into colors blue green and yellow if it becomes basic neutral and acidic respectively? A. methyl orange B. phenolphthalein C. bromthymol blue D. Eriochrome black T
bromthymol blue
35
What is the normality of a 5.0 M sulfuric acid? A. 2.5 N B. 5.0 N C. 7.5 N D. 10.0 N
10.0 N
36
How many grams of sodium persulfate (Na2S2O8) is required to prepare a 1 L solution with a concentration of 10% (w/v)? A. 100 g B. 101 g C. 102 g D. 99 g
100g
37
What is the oxidation state of chromium in K2Cr2O7? A. +2 B. +3 C. +6 D. 0
6
38
Consider the endothermic reaction A (g) ? B (g) + C (g), which will cause a backward shift? A. removal of B B. increasing the volume C. addition of catalyst D. decreasing the temperature
decreaasing the temperature Since the reaction is endothermic, decreasing the temperature will favor the exothermic direction (the backward shift)
39
Which of the following is a primary standard for use in standardizing bases? A. Ammonium hydroxide B. Sulfuric acid C. Acetic acid D. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
Potassium hydrogen phthalate
40
Which of the following is the most accurate apparatus in measuring 8.55 mL of liquid? A. 1 mL graduated cylinder B. 100 mL graduated cylinder C. 10 mL pipet D. 50 mL beaker
10 mL pipet
41
Which of the following is NOT a proper laboratory practice? A. wearing of masks and gloves B. drying of glassware after washing C. tying or braiding long hairs D. adding water to strong acid
adding water to strong acid
42
Which of the following is the most appropriate container for hexane? A. glass bottle B. amber bottle C. plastic bottle D. none of these
amber bottle
43
Which of the following shows the correct path of light travel in a spectrophotometer? A. monochromator — source — sample — detector B. source — monochromator — sample — detector C. monochromator — source — detector — sample D. source — monochromator — detector — sample
source — monochromator — sample — detector
44
Cuvettes made of this material are required when working at a wavelength below 300 nm where other materials show a significant absorption. A. quartz B. plastic C. sodium chloride D. potassium bromide
quartz
45
A blank that contains the solvent plus all the reagents used in sample preparation. A. field blank B. method blank C. solvent blank D. reagent blank
reagent blank
46
A graphical representation of measuring signal as a function of quantity of analyte. A. Calibration curve B. Quality Control Chart C. Absorbance Chart D. None of the above
Calibration curve
47
A solution has a pH of 3.72 with an absolute certainty of ±0.03. Determine the H+ concentration of the solution and its corresponding absolute certainty. A. 1.9 (±0.1) x 10-4 M B. 1.90 ((±0.13) x 10-4 M C. 1.91 (±0.10) x 10-4 M D. 1.91 (±0.13) x 10-4 M
A. 1.9 (±0.1) x 10-4 M 1. Calculate H at pH = 3.72 ?[H+] ? (?pH) * [H+] ?[H+] ? (±0.03) * (1.91 x 10^(-4) M)
48
How many significant figures does the universal gas constant (R=0.0821 L-atm/mol-K)? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. infinite
infinite
49
HOW many electrons can fit in the fourth main shell? A. 4 B. 8 C. 16 D. 32
32 Maximum electrons=2n^2
50
Which does not correspond to the electron configuration of 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 A. Potassium ion B. Chloride ion C. Sulfide ion D. None of the above.
none of these K+ = 19-1 = 18e- Cl-= 17+1 = 18e- S2-= 16 +2 = 18e-
51
Which of the following elements has greater electron affinity than oxygen? A. sulfur B. carbon C. neon D. fluorine
fluorine
52
Which molecular geometry has the greatest bond angle? A. linear B. tetrahedral C. octahedral D. trigonal bipyramidal
linear
53
What is the name of the compound indicated below? Pb(ClO)4 A. plumbous perchlorate B. plumbic perchlorate C. plumbous hypochlorite D. plumbic hypochlorite
plumbic hypochlorite
54
What is the chemical formula of nitrous acid? A. HN3 B. HNO2 C. HNO3 D. H2NO3
B. HNO2
55
Alcohols and carboxylic acids have —OH groups. What type of chemical bonding occurs between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms? A. ionic B. polar covalent C. hydrogen D. non-polar covalent
B. polar covalent
56
What is the other name for oil of vitriol? A. paraffin B. olefin C. sulfuric acid D. wax
sulfuric acid
57
It is a result of instantaneous dipole in a non-polar molecule? A. London Dispersion Force B. Dipole-dipole Interaction C. Ion-Dipole Interaction D. Hydrogen Bonding
London Dispersion Force
58
Which among the following compounds has the lowest boiling point? A. decanol B. lauric acid C. toluene D. benzene
benzene
59
What IMFA is/are present in the compound HC3(CH2)3CHO A. LDF only B. DDI only C. LDF and DDI D. LDF, DDI, and HB
LDF and DDI LDF/VDW = always present DDI (due to the polar carbonyl group) No OH, NH, COOH --> HB
60
A cylinder containing a gas is compressed to half its original volume. What will happen to its pressure at constant temperature? A. doubled B. halved C. no effect D. cannot be determined
doubled
61
A stock solution containing Mn2+ ions was prepared by dissolving 2.686 g of pure manganese metal in nitric acid and diluting to a final volume of 500 mL From this stock solution, a volume of 10.00 mL was obtained and diluted to 250.0 mL. What is the molar concentration of the final solution? A. 4.889 x 10-2 M B. 9.778 x 10-2 M C. 1.956 X 10-3 M D. 3.911x10^-3 M
Dilution Formula: C1V1 = C2V2
62
The synthesis of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is an exothermic reaction. Which of the following will favor the formation of ammonia? A. Decrease in temperature B. Increase in temperature C. Removal of nitrogen D. Addition of ammonia
decrease in temp
63
Buffer solutions are solutions that can neutralize small amounts of added acids and bases to maintain relatively stable pH values. Which of the following can be used to prepare a buffer solution? A. NaHCOO, HCOOH B. NaSO4, H2SO4 C. NaCH3COO D. HCI, NaOH
NaHCOO, HCOOH
64
What is the pH of a solution containing 0.02 M CH3COOH and 0.01 M NaCH3COO? Ka of CH3COOH = 1.8 x 10-5 A. 4.75 B. 5.25 c. 5.05 D. 4.44
4.44
65
What is the molarity of 37% w/w hydrochloric acid? The density of 37% w/w HCI is 1.18 g/mL. A. 10 M B. 37 M C. 12 M D. 8 M
12 M Assume V=1L 1.18 g/mL (1000mL/L) = 1180g (0.37)
66
A type of analysis in terms of sample size that can resolve fine-scale variations in chemical elements, as well as determine the presence and distribution of different phases in materials. A. Macro B. Semi-macro C. Micro D Ultra-micro
micro "fine scale"
67
An analyst determines that the analytical balance he used in a given analytical test is wrongly calibrated. Determine what type of error is represented. A. Systematic error B. Random error C. Gross error D. Cannot be determined
Systematic Error
68
It is a plot of an instrument's readout vs. concentration, the data for which are the results of measuring a series of standard solutions prepared for the experiment. A. Linear range B. Calibration curve C. Dynamic range D. Linear dynamic range
Calibration curve
69
It describes the policies and procedures the laboratory has to manage in relation to quality, or references where those procedures can be found. An essential requirement of ISO 9000 series of standards and ISO 17025. A. Quality Assurance B. Quality Control C. Quality Manual D. Documentation
Quality Manual
70
It is a written program developed and implemented by the employer which sets forth procedures, equipment, PPE, and work practices that are capable of protecting employees from the health hazard presented by hazardous chemicals used in the workplace. A. Safety Manual B. Chemical Hygiene Plan C. Safety Rules and Policies D. Safety Plan
Chemical Hygiene Plan
71
This type of method consists of a set of instructions about how to carry out a method issued by a national standards body and legislated by the national government to become mandatory. A. Standard method B. Regulatory method C. Reference method D. Validated method
Regulatory method "mandatory" "national govt"
72
In starting-up laboratory operations, the following should be observed except. A. Turning on the hoods, vents, and exhaust fans. B. Turning the equipment and instruments on. C. Performing analysis immediately. D. Monitoring operating parameters.
Performing analysis immediately.
73
The following groups are known to be peroxide-forming compounds EXCEPT A. Ethers with primary and/or secondary alkyl groups. B. Hydrocarbons with allylic, benzylic, or propargylic hydrogens. C. Conjugated dienes, eneynes, and diynes. D. All are peroxide-formers.
All are peroxide-formers.
74
Which of the following is/are TRUE about the laboratory chemical hood? I. All work should be carried out at least 15 cm (6 in.) from the front edge of the hood. ll. Before each work, be sure that the hood exhaust system is functioning properly. Ill. Store hazardous chemicals inside the chemical hood to protect personnel from toxic fumes exposure. IV. The performance of laboratory chemical hood is highly dependent on its location. A. I and II B. II, III and IV C. I, II, and III D. I, II, and IV
D. I, II, and IV I. All work should be carried out at least 15 cm (6 in.) from the front edge of the hood. ll. Before each work, be sure that the hood exhaust system is functioning properly. IV. The performance of laboratory chemical hood is highly dependent on its location.
75
What hazards are represented by a GHS pictogram with a flame over circle symbol? A. Flammable and self-reactive substances B. Oxidizers, organic peroxides C. Carcinogens D. Explosives
B. Oxidizers, organic peroxides
76
It is a hazardous waste characteristic which applies to waste liquids with a flash point less than 1400C or solids capable of spontaneous combustion under normal temperature and pressure. A. Ignitability B. Reactivity C. Corrosivity D. Toxicity
Ignitability
77
What is the pH of an acidic waste? A. pH ? 2 B. pH ? 3 C. pH ? 12.5 D. pH = 7
pH ? 2
78
This refers to a person who produces hazardous wastes, through any institutional, commercial, industrial, or trade activities. A. Waste generator B. Waste treater C. Waste transporter D. Pollution Control Officer
A. Waste generator
79
The correct hierarchy of control principle (decreasing priority) from a chemical exposure perspective is I. PPE ll. Engineering controls Ill. Administrative controls IV. Elimination V. Substitution
Elimination Substitution Engineering Controls Administrative Controls PPE
80
An exposure limit that indicates the maximum average concentration to which workers can safely be exposed for a normal 8-hr workday or 48-hr workweek. A. Time weighted average (TWA) B. Short-term exposure limit (STEL) C. Ceiling (C) D. Immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH)
Time weighted average (TWA)
81
This refers to a single sample or measurement taken at specific time or over a short period as feasible. A. Grab sample B. Composite sample C. Laboratory sample D. None of the above
Grab sample
82
Which of the following are TRUE about uncertainty? I. It is a difference between a single measurement or result and its true value. II. The range of possible values for a measurement. III. A measure of bias in a result or measurement. IV. It accounts for all errors (both determinate and indeterminate).
II. The range of possible values for a measurement. IV. It accounts for all errors (both determinate and indeterminate).
83
It is a graph showing the time-dependent change in the results of an analysis that is used to monitor whether an analysis is in a state of statistical control. A. Calibration curve B. Standard Curve C. QC chart D. Monitoring chart
QC chart "statistical control"
84
A clean sample (e.g. distilled water) processed through the instrumental steps or the measurement process to determine instrument contamination. A. Method blank B. Instrumental blank C. Surrogate D. Reagent blank
B. Instrumental blank "instrument"
85
What is the scientific notation of 0.0078 ug/ml of compound A? A. 7.8 x 10-1 gg/mL B. 7.8 x 10-2 gg/mL C. 7.8 x 10-3 gg/mL D. 7.8 x 10-4 gg/mL
7.8 x 10-3 gg/mL
86
. Which does NOT indicate a chemical change? A. change in color B. change in size C. change in shape D. change in color
B. change in size
87
Which of the following is described as having components that can be physically separated? A. mixture B. solution C. suspension D. compound
A. mixture
88
A certain radioisotope has a half-life of 9 days. What percentage of an initial mass of this isotope remains after 25 days? A. 14.58 B. 0.57 C. 73.05 D. 85.41
14.58
89
Which will cause the mass of a metal block to increase? A. putting it in a freezer B. heating it C. measure in Jupiter D. none of the above
none of the above
90
Chromium is a member of which of the following? A. Actinides B. Lanthanides C. Alkali metals D. Transition metals
Transition metals
91
Which of the following oxides is likely to be basic in aqueous solution? A. SO2 B. CO2 C. MgO D. P2O5
MgO
92
How many significant figures are there in the 3.400 g? A. Infinite B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
4
93
A salt solution of which metal produces a bright red color in a flame test? A. Ba B. Na C. Ca D. Ra
Ra
94
Which element is a pale-yellow gas that reacts with water? A.H2 B. F2 C. Cl2 D. Br2
F2 "pale yellow gas"
95
Which of the following does NOT describe a nonpolar bond? A. It is a bond between similar nonmetals. B. It is a bond between different nonmetals. C. It has a dipole moment. D. All describes a nonpolar bond.
It has a dipole moment.
96
Which of the following covalent compounds has a tetrahedral geometry? A. CH4 B. NH3 C. H2O D. BF
CH4
97
Which of the following is NOT an indication of strong IMFA? A. high viscosity B. high volatility C. high boiling point D. high melting point
high volatility high volatility = low boiling point = weak intermolecular forces =
98
What is the name of the compound PCl3? A. Phosphorus chloride B. Phosphorus trichloride C. Phosphorus chloride(lll) D. Phosphorus trichloride(lll)
Phosphorus trichloride (tri, tetra, di) for covalent bond only
99
What is the chemical formula of mercurous chloride? A. HgCl B. Hg2Cl c. HgCl2 D. Hg2Cl2
D. Hg2Cl2
100
Liquid A has lower boiling point than liquid B. Which of the following is true about the boiling point of the solution formed upon mixing A and B? A. less than that of A B. greater than that of B C. average of A and B D. between A and B
between A and B
101
Ethanoic acid (MM = 60.05 g/mol) and ethanol (MM = 46.07 g/mol) reacts to form ethyl ethanoate (88.11 g/mol) and water. Twenty grams of ethanoic acid reacted with 10 grams of ethanol, and 17 grams of ethyl ethanoate was obtained. What is the percentage yield of the reaction? A. 89% B. 153% C. 57% D. 104%
89%
102
Determine the molality of 6 M sulfuric acid solution with specific gravity equal to 1.34. A. 8m B. 12m C. 6 m D. 10m
8m 1. Assume volume 2.Mass of Solution 3. Mass of Solute 4. Mass of solvent = solution -solute
103
Which of the following is false about PH indicators? A. Wider pH range indicate that the indicator is sensitive to pH changes. B. Narrow pH range indicate that the indicator is sensitive to pH changes. C. An indicators pH range is the range of pH values over which the indicator changes colors from its acid and base forms D. An indicator that changes color close to the pH of the equivalence point must be used when titrating.
A. Wider pH range indicate that the indicator is sensitive to pH changes.
104
This part of an electrochemical cell maintains electrical neutrality. A. salt bridge B. electrodes C. voltmeter D. electrolytes
salt bridge "maintains electrical neutrality"
105
. In a galvanic cell, reduction occurs in the while in an electrolytic cell, oxidation occurs in the A. anode, anode B. cathode, cathode C. cathode, anode D. anode, cathode
cathode, anode Oxidation: anode Reduction: cathode
106
When NH4Cl hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is A. acidic B. basic C. neutral D. none of the above
acidic
107
What type of cell converts chemical to electrical energy? A. Electrolytic Cell and Galvanic Cell B. Electrolytic Cell and Voltaic Cell C. Voltaic Cell and Galvanic Cell D. Electrolytic Cell only
Voltaic Cell and Galvanic Cell
108
When water is heated in a beaker, bubbles of air form on the side of the glas before the water boils. This shows that A. the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature B. the solubility of gases in water increases with increasing temperature C. the solubility of gases in water decreases with decreasing temperature D. the solubility of gases in water increases with decreasing temperature
the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature
109
Which of the following is TRUE? A. TC pipet has colored band and the liquid in it must be blown out by aspirator. B. TD pipet has colored band and the liquid in it must be blown out by aspirator. C. TC pipet has colored band while the liquid in a TD pipet must be blown out by aspirator. D. TD pipet has colored band while the liquid in a TC pipet must be blown out by aspirator.
TC pipet has colored band and the liquid in it must be blown out by aspirator.
110
Which of the following is a treatment for HF burns? A. water B. Epsom salt C. 25% brine solution D. calcium gluconate
calcium gluconate
111
Which of the following shows the correct arrangement of the regions of the electromagnetic spectrum in terms of wavelength? A. Infrared > ultraviolet > visible > microwave > radio waves B. Microwave > infrared > visible > ultraviolet > radio waves C. Radio waves > microwave > infrared > visible > ultraviolet D. Ultraviolet > visible > infrared > microwave > radio waves
Radio waves > microwave > infrared > visible > ultraviolet
112
Why is it generally preferable to use absorbance as a measure of absorption rather than % transmittance? A. because %T cannot be measured as accurately as absorbance B. because %T is dependent on the power of the incident radiation C. because absorbance is proportional to the concentration of the analyte, whereas %T is not D. none of the above
C. because absorbance is proportional to the concentration of the analyte, whereas %T is not
113
Column chromatography is based on the principle of A. Exclusion B. Absorption C. Ion exchange D. Differential adsorption
Differential adsorption
114
The height equivalent of a theoretical plate (HETP) has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT A. It is defined by the van Deemter equation. B. Equilibrium is attained at each height equivalent. C. The smaller the value is, the better the separation attainable. D. The inverse of this quantity times the total column length is equal to the number of theoretical plates in the column.
B. Equilibrium is attained at each height equivalent.
115
Which of the following focuses on Quality Management Systems? A. ISO 9001 B. ISO 17025 C. ISO 15189 D. GLP
A. ISO 9001
116
A solution has a pH of 3.72 with an absolute certainty of ±0.03. Determine the H+ concentration of the solution and its corresponding absolute certainty. A. 1.9 (±0.1) x10-4 M B. 1.90 (±0.13) x10-4 M C. 1.91 (±0.10) x10-4M D. 1.91 (±0.13) x10-4 M
A. 1.9 (±0.1) x10-4 M ?[H+] ? (?pH) * [H+] ?[H+] ? (±0.03) * (1.91 x 10^(-4) M)
117
If a fire extinguisher has a red body and a blue band, what is its content? A. Foam type B. Dry chemical type C. Carbon dioxide D. Halon substitute
Foam type
118
Type of analysis where the amounts of all constituents in the samples are determined. A. Complete (or ultimate) analysis B. Partial analysis C. Elemental analysis D. Proximate analysis
A. Complete (or ultimate) analysis "all"
119
Method consisting a set of instructions issued by a national standards body. A. Standard method B. Primary method C. Regulatory method D. Validated method
A. Standard method
120
It is a detailed written instruction to achieve uniformity in the performance of a specific function. A. Standard method B. Protocol C. Standard operating procedure D. Analytical procedure
Standard operating procedure
121
It accounts for all the other components in the mixture that are not under investigation. A. Analyte B. Matrix C. Measurand D. Test
matrix
122
In the determination of weight percent content of iron in an iron ore by gravimetric method, which of following statement/s is/are true? l. The iron ore is the analyte. ll. Other minerals present in the ore are collectively called the matrix. Ill. Gravimetric method is the analytical method that will be employed in the analysis. IV. The process of determination of the concentration of iron present in the matric is called analysis. A. I only B. land Il C. Il and Ill D. II, III and IV
II, III and IV
123
When qualifying a working standard, what is the best type of reagent to use? A. Reagent grade B. Technical grade C. Primary standard D. Analytical grade
Primary standard
124
An analysis of ore assays about 1.5% iron. What minimum sample mass should be taken if the relative error resulting from a 0.5-mg loss is not to exceed -0.2%? A. 16.7 mg B. 17 mg c. 17 g D.16 g
17 g mass = absolute error/relative error 0.5mg/0.2% x100 = 250 2500/1.5% = 17g
125
Which of the following correctly describe/s the detection limit? l. Concentration that gives a readout level that is more than the electrical noise level inherent in the baseline. ll. It is the smallest concentration that can be determined with a reasonable degree of precision. Ill. A qualitative parameter in the sense that it is the minimum concentration that can be detected, but not precisely determined. IV. It would tell the analyst that the element is present, but not necessarily at a precisely determinable concentration level.
II, III and IV
126
It is a part of quality system that includes laboratory operations whose objective is to ensure that the data generated by the laboratory are of known accuracy to some stated, quantitative degree of probability. A. Quality Management B. Quality Assurance C. Quality Control D. Quality Manual
Quality Control
127
The quantity of material which is assumed to represent a single population for sampling purposes. A. Bulk material B. Lot C. Segment D. Batch
B. Lot
128
What is the name of RA 6969? A. Toxic Substances Control Act B. Toxic Substances and Hazardous Wastes Control Act C. Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Control Act D. Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Management Control Act
Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Control Act
129
In handling diethyl and other ethers, the following practices are correct except for one. A. Distill these substances to dryness to remove peroxides that were possibly formed from air autoxidation. B. Ferrous salts or sodium bisulfite can be used to decompose peroxides formed by these substances. C. Passage over basic active alumina can remove most of the peroxidic material. D. Dispose old or expired ethers
Distill these substances to dryness to remove peroxides that were possibly formed from air autoxidation.
130
What is the chemical formula of diphosphorus monobromide? A. PBr? B. PBr C. P?Br? D. P?Br
P2Br
131
When ammonium chloride (NH?Cl) hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is ____. A. acidic B. basic C. neutral D. none of the choices
acidic
132
Sodium carbonate is also known as? A. baking soda (NaHCO3) B. soda ash (Na2CO3) C. caustic potash (KOH) D. caustic soda (NaOH)
B. soda ash (Na2CO3)
133
What is the molar mass or an unknown gas if 1.60 grams of that gas occupies a volume of 2.24 L at STP? A. 35.8 g/mol B. 160 g/mol C. 16.0 g/mol D. 81.0 g/mol
16 g/mol At STP = T = 273.15K, P = 1 atm
134
During the electroplating of silver, silver ions in solution _____. A. are oxidized at the anode B. are oxidized at the cathode C. are reduced at the cathode D. remain in solution unchanged
C. are reduced at the cathode
135
Which is also equivalent to 0.01% percent by weight? A. 100 ppm B. 10 ppt C. 1 ppt D. 1 ppb
100 ppm 0.01%/100% * 1x10^6
136
The maximum holding time for acid preserved samples that will be subjected to determination of metals is A. 48 hours B. 3 months C. 6 months D. 1 week
48 hrs "acid preserved"
137
Which of the following is the most appropriate container for hexane? A. glass bottle B. amber bottle C. plastic bottle D. none of these
B. amber bottle
138
Minimum concentration of a substance that can be measured and reported with confidence at the analyte concentration is greater than zero refers to _________. A. Lower Warning Limit B. Method Detection Limit C. Control Limit D. Limit of Quantitation
Method Detection Limit
139
The fire triangle consists of which of the following? A. Oxygen, Heat, Material B. Air, Heat. Fire C. Air, Fuel, Spark D. Oxygen, Heat, Fuel
Oxygen, Heat, Fuel
140
What is the chemical formula of nitrous acid? A. HN? B. HNO? C. HNO? D. H?NO?
B. HNO? nitric: HNO3 nitrous: HNO2
141
What is the other name for oil of vitriol? A. paraffin B. olefin C. sulfuric acid D. wax
sulfuric acid
142
Alcohols and carboxylic acids have –OH groups. What type of chemical bonding occurs between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms? A. ionic B. polar covalent C. hydrogen D. non-polar covalent
polar covalent
143
29. The following statements are true about pH EXCEPT A. it is the negative logarithm of hydrogen ions content in a solution B. a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution C. a measure of the amount or hydrogen ions in solution D. does not change when there are changes in temperature
does not change when there are changes in temperature
144
It describes the policies and procedures the laboratory has to manage in relation to quality, or references where those procedures can be found. An essential requirement of ISO 9000 series of standards and ISO 17025. A. Quality Assurance B. Quality Control C. Quality Manual D. Documentation
Quality Manual
145
When NaCH?COO hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is A. acidic B. basic C. neutral D. none of the above
basic
146
The responsibilities of chemists and chemical technicians embodied in the Code of Ethics include all EXCEPT A. They are expected to be stewards of the environment by following the laws, rules and regulations pertaining to chemical wastes management and disposal. B. They shall undertake the professional practice of Chemistry only when in possession of a valid COR and ID issued by the Board and the Commission. C. All Chemistry practitioners are obliged to maintain active membership in the Accredited Professional Organization (APO) for the Chemistry profession, and to participate in the activities of the latter. D. None of the above.
D. None of the above.