Obstetrics Flashcards

1
Q

Fertilisation to implantation?

What is blastocyst?

A
Fertilisation in ampulla
Day 1 - fertilised
Day 5 - blastocyst
Day 5-8 - blastocyst attaches to endometrium
Day 12 - implantation complete

Blastocyst:

  • divided into 2 cell masses
  • inner = embryo
  • outer = trophoblast (initial progesterone and implantation, goes on to produce placenta
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2
Q

Placenta:

  • components?
  • when is it fully functional?
  • functions?
A
  • maternal cells and trophoblast cells

5 weeks

Functions:

  • hormone secretion - progesterone and hCG
  • gas exchange
  • nutrient exchange - Ca and Fe are only 2 which go unidirectional from mother to baby
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3
Q

Changes and functions during pregnancy:

  • hCG?
  • progesterone?
  • oestrogen?
A

hCG:

  • peaks at 10 weeks then reduces
  • stimulates corpus lute to produce progesterone
  • ensures early nutrition of embryo

Progesterone:

  • initially produced by corpus luteum then placenta
  • levels steadily rise through pregnancy
  • prepares and maintains endometrium
  • later, decreases uterine contractions

Oestrogen:
- principal site of production is placenta
- levels steadily rise through pregnancy
- enlarges uterus, develops breasts, relaxes pelvic ligaments
E3 - indicator of foetal viability
E4 - only produced through pregnancy

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4
Q

CVS changes in pregnancy?

A

CO increases from week 6, peaks at week 24, decreases then increases again in labour

SV up 30%, HR up 15% & cardiac output up 40%

Systolic BP is unaltered
diastolic BP is reduced in the 1st and 2nd trimester, returning to non-pregnant levels by term

IVC compression causes ankle oedema, supine hypotension and varicose veins

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5
Q

Resp changes in pregnancy?

A

Pulmonary ventilation up 40%, tidal volume up 200ml

O2 requirements up 20% - over breathing causes low CO2
-> this may cause sense of dyspnoea, accentuated by diaphragm compression

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6
Q

Metabolic changes in pregnancy?

A

BMR up 15%, probably due to thyroid or adrenalcorticotrophic hormones

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7
Q

Haem changes in pregnancy?

A

Blood volume up 30% but cells less than plasma, causing relative anaemia

Rise in fibrinogen and clotting factors, increased DVT risk, esp with IVC compression

Lower platelet count

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8
Q

Urinary changes in pregnancy?

A

GFR, renal blood flow increased

Urinary protein loss increased

Salt and water reabsorption increased due to increased sex steroid levels

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9
Q

Calcium changes in pregnancy?

A

Significantly increased requirements, esp in 3rd trimester with lactation

Ca is transported to foetus through placenta

Serum levels of Ca and PO4 drop due to fall in protein, but total ionised calcium remains the same

Gut absorption of Ca increases significantly due to increased VitD activity

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10
Q

Uterine changes?

A

100g -> 1100g
Hyperplasia and later hypertrophy

Increased cervical ectropion and cervical discharge

Braxton Hicks - practice contractions late in pregnancy

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11
Q

Hormones in labour?

Ferguson reflex?

A

Progesterone - prevents contractions

Oestrogen - stimulates contractions

Oxytocin - stimulates contractions and prostaglandin release

PG - increases contractions

Ferguson reflex:

  • positive feedback loop
  • stretch of cervix causes release of oxytocin which causes further stretching of cervix
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12
Q

Gestational diabetes diagnosis?
Management?
If metformin not tolerated?
Aims once on meds?

A

Diagnosis:

  • fasting 5.6+
  • 2 hours OGTT 7.8+

Management:
- Fasting 5.6-7: diet/exercise
If no better after 1-2 weeks - metformin
if still no improvement, short-acting insulin
- If 7+ at diagnosis, insulin straight off the bat

Glibenclamide

Aims:

  • fasting 5.3
  • 1 hour 7.3
  • 2 hour 6.4
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13
Q

When should foetal movements be felt?
What is reduced foetal movements?
Ix?

A

24 weeks - if not then refer to foetal medicine unit

  • Usually start at 18-20 weeks and gradually increase to 32 weeks then plateau
  • No definition but generally <10 movements in 2 hours past 28 weeks

Ix:

  • handheld doppler 1st line
  • If <28 weeks, just confirm presence of heartbeat, if not present then immediate referral

> 28 weeks:

  • If present on doppler, do CTG for 10 mins
  • If not present on doppler or still concern after CTG, do immediate USS
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14
Q

Supplements in pregnancy?

A

VitD 400IU throughout pregnancy

Folic acid for first 12 weeks
400mcg

5mg if:

  • obese >30 BMI
  • FHx neural tube defect
  • coeliac, diabetes, thalassaemia
  • alcohol excess, phenytoin, methotrexate
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15
Q

Variable decelerations means?

Indicates?

A

Rapid fall in foetal HR with variable recovery phase

Indicate cord compression and potential cord prolapse

  • Elevate presenting part either manually or by filling urinary bladder
  • Get on all fours
  • Consider tocolysis and prep for C-sec
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16
Q

Management of placental abruption <36 weeks and >36 weeks?

A

<36 weeks:

  • foetal distress on CTG - immediate C-sec
  • No foetal distress - admit for tocolysis and steroids

> 36 weeks
- immediate Csec

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17
Q

What is pre-eclampsia?
Features of severe?
- RF?

A
  • New onset HTN >140/90 past 20 weeks gestation
    Plus one of:
  • proteinuria (ankle oedema)
  • Organ involvement (renal, liver, haem, neuro, uteroplacental dysfunction)

Severe:

  • Hypertension >160/110
  • protein ++/+++
  • Headache
  • visual disturbance
  • papilloedema
  • RUQ/epigastric pain
  • Hyperreflexia
  • HELLP

RF:

  • HTN normally of in prev preg
  • CKD
  • Diabetes
  • autoimmune
  • Primi
  • > 40
  • Preg interval 10 years
  • BMI >35
  • FHx
  • Multiple preg
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18
Q

How to prevent pre-eclampsia?
Referral?
Management of pre-eclampsia?

A

75mg aspirin from 12 weeks on if 2+ RF

  • Emergency secondary care assessment in any suspected
  • If BP >160/110 usually admitted for observation

Drugs:

  • labetalol 1st line (CI asthma)
  • Nifedipine 2nd line
  • Hydralazine
  • Methyldopa (CI depression)

Fluid restriction may be

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19
Q

What is HELLP?

Management?

A

Presents with nausea, vomting, RUQ pain in 10-20% with severe pre-eclampsia

Haemolysis
Elevated liver enzymes
Low platelets

Delivery

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20
Q

What is eclampsia?
Management and comps?
How long treat for?

A

Seizures due to pre-eclampsia

Management:

  • Magnesium both prevents and treats seizures
  • Monitor urine output, resp rate and O2 sats
  • Calcium glutinate treats Magnesium induced resp depression
  • treat for 24 hours after delivery or after last seizure
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21
Q

Management of shoulder dystocia?

A
  1. McRobert’s - maximally flex and abduct hips
  2. Suprapubic pressure in McRobert’s
  3. Episiotomy (may help but allows extra room for internal manoeuvres)
  4. Rubin, push on posterior shoulder
  5. Wood’s screw, zavanellib, symphesiotomy, emergency CS
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22
Q

Placenta praaevia?

A

Normally picked up on 20 week scan

If low lying, repeat USS at 34 weeks

Suspect if painless vaginal spotting that starts >30 weeks and increases in frequency and volume

TVUS

CS to prevent labour

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23
Q

What is routinely offered in screening at booking scan?

A
  • anaemia
  • bacteriuria
  • Blood group, rhesus, ABO
  • Trisomy
  • Foetal anomalies
  • HepB
  • HIV
  • Syphilis
  • neural tube defects
  • RF for pre-eclampsia (diabetes, CKD, autoimmune etc)
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24
Q

What is placenta accreta?
RF?
Small print but different types?

A

Defect in decidua basalis causing placenta to attach to myometrium, risk of significant PPH as it doesn’t detach properly

Decidua basalis is the endometrial cells of the placenta, normally there is a fibrinous layer separating this from normal uterine wall

RF:

  • previous CS
  • placenta praevia

Accreta - chorionic villi attach to myometrium instead of decidua basalis

Increta - Chorionic villi invade myometrium

Percreta - Chorionic villi invade through perimetric

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25
Q

When is nuchal scan performed?

What does increased thickness mean?

A

11+3 - 13+6

Trisomy
Congenital heart defect
Bowel wall defect

Hyperechogenic bowel:
CF
Down’s
CMV infection

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26
Q

When is combined test done, what is the results?
Quadruple test?
If these come back high risk?

A

11-13+6 weeks

  • increased nuchal translucency
  • Increased bHCG
  • decreased PAPP-A

If between 15-20 weeks - quadruple test:

  • increased inhibin-A
  • increased bHCG
  • decreased AFP
  • decreased unconjucated oestriol

CVS - 10-13 weeks
2% risk miscarriage

Amniocentesis - 15 weeks
1% risk miscarriage
Sample may not be adequate

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27
Q

Trisomy 21?
Trisomy 18?
Trisomy 13?

A

Down’s:
- appearance, learning disability, AVSD, duodenal atresia/Hirshprung’s, leukaemia, thyroid, epilepsy, alzheimers

18 - Edwards:

  • Cardiac, GI, uro abnormalities
  • Severe mental disability
  • Die soon after birth

12 - Patau

  • cleft palate, microcephaly
  • severe mental disability, die soon after birth
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28
Q

How to measure foetal size?

What is SGA and LGA?

A
Examination - SFH
USS:
(- crown rump length if early)
- femur length
- head circumference
- abdo circumference
Final 3 measurements put into Hadlock equation

SGA - SFH <2cm Gest age after 20 weeks

LGA >2cm

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29
Q

Causes IUGR - maternal, foetal and utero-placental?
Symmetrical/asymmetrical reductions?
Complications in pregnancy, neonatal and lateral life?

A

Maternal:

  • poor nutrition
  • alcohol, smoking, drugs
  • HTN, diabetes, anaemia,
  • B-blockers

Foetal:

  • multiple pegnancy
  • congenital/chromosomal abnormality
  • toxoplasma/CMV

Placental:

  • pre-eclampsia
  • uterine malformation
  • placental insufficiency

If reduced head and abdo size suggests growth restrictions throughout pregnancy

If asymmetrical growth suggests growth reduction has occurred later in pregnancy due to placental insufficiency

Still birth/preterm labout
Jaundice, neonatal sepsis
Later life: obesity, HTN, T2DM

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30
Q

Causes LGA?

A
Diabetes
Wrong dates
Polyhydramnios
Multiple pregnancy
Constitutionally large
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31
Q

Drugs to avoid in breastfeeding:

  • abx?
  • psych?
  • endocrine?
  • cardiac?
  • others?
A

abx: cipro, tetracyclines, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides (co-trimox, but trimethoprim safe)
psych: lithium, benzos, clozapine
endocrine: sulfonylurea, carbimazole

Cardiac: ACEI, amiodarone

Others: aspirin, naproxen, methotrexate, cytotoxic

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32
Q

Varicella exposure in pregnancy?
If develop chickenpox?
(rules for <20 and >20 weeks for both)

A

If any doubt, check antibodies

If <=20 weeks and NOT immune, offer IVIG within 10 days

If >20 weeks and NOT immune, wait until 7 days post-exposure and give IVIG or aciclovir for 7 days

If chickenpox:

If >=20 weeks, oral aciclovir with within 24 hours of onset

If < 20 weeks, aciclovir should be considered with caution

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33
Q

Management of PPH?

A

Initial - lie flat give O2, assess 4T’s, blood X match, rapid IV fluid replacement

  1. Rub uterus/bimanual palpation
  2. Oxytocin +/- ergometrine IM (avoid ergometrine in HTN)
  3. Tranexamic acid 1g slow infusion
  4. Oxytocin infusion (over 4 hours)
  5. urinary catheter
  6. Carboprost IM - every 15 mins up to 8 doses
  7. Misoprostol PR

Theatre:

  • Balloon tamponade
  • B-lynch sutures
  • Arterial ligation
  • hysterectomy
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34
Q

How to differentiate intrahepatic cholestasis from AFL of P?
How is each managed?
What else can cause itch in pregnancy?
Jaundice?

A

Cholestasis:

  • pruritus palms, soles, abdo
  • jaundice in 20%
  • small raised bili and cholestatic enzymes

Rx: induce labour at 37 weeks (risk of still birth)
Symptomatic - Ursode acid
VitK supplements

AFL of P:

  • RUQ pain, vomiting
  • Jaundice
  • Headache
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Severe disease may cause pre-eclampsia
  • ALT >500

Rx: stabilise and delivery

Itch: Prurigo of pregnancy - itchy papular rash over abdo and legs >35 weeks - creams and delivery

Jaundice:

  • HELLP
  • Gilbert’s can flare
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35
Q

Differentiating between ITP and gestational thrombocytopaenia?
Why can it be important?

A

Difficult - usually if low platelets at booking scan or previous ITP will be tested for anti-platelet antibodies

If slow progression of decreased platelets gestational TCP presumed, but if dangerously low then ITP presumed and given steroids

Gest TCP doesn’t affect newborn, but ITP can cause TCP in newborn as IgG crosses placenta - can cause haemorrhage in newborn - high risk if prolonged ventouse

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36
Q

Pathophysiology of RhD disease?

Sensitisation events?

A

If Rh- mother has Rh+ baby, this causes anti-D IgG to form.

This usually happens in first pregnancy as blood mixes during delivery. This causes IgG to cross placenta in future pregnancies

In first pregnancy this can also occur due to sensitisation events.

Sensitisation events:

  • giving birth
  • previous TOP
  • miscarriage >12 weeks
  • ectopic managed surgically
  • antepartum haemorrhage
  • amnio/CVS/foetal blood sampling
  • external cephalic version
  • abdo trauma
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37
Q

When to give anti-D?
What to do after sensitising events?
If woman is already sensitised?

A

Test all Rh- women for anti-D at booking - indirect coombs test (indirect antiglobulin)

Give anti-D to all non-sensitised Rh- women at 28 and 34 weeks

After a sensitising event:

  • <20 weeks give 250 units anti-D
  • > 20 weeks give 500 units and Kleihauer (tests for quantity of foetal blood in maternal circulation)

If already sensitised nothing can be done unfortunately

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38
Q

If woman has anti-D antibodies what will happen?

A

Cross placenta and cause Rhesus haemolytic disease - spectrum

  • progressive anaemia
  • CCF
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • bilirubin -> kernicterus
  • hydrops fetalis

(hydrops - oedematous as albumin falls because liver devoted to RBC production)

If foetus still viable, can deliver if appropriate gestation, and transfuse once born and give phototherapy

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39
Q

Risk factors for abruption?

A
  • Proteinuria/HTN/pre-eclampsia
  • cocaine abuse
  • polyhydramnios
  • multiparity
  • trauma
  • increasing maternal age
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40
Q

Presentation of abruption?

A
Lower abdo pain
May be some blood
Usually pain out of proportion with findings
Tender, hard uterus
May have shock - anuria/DIC/tachy/hypo

If >36 weeks - emergency CS

If <36 weeks check CTG

  • distress - emergency CS
  • no distress yet - admit for steroids
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41
Q

Amniotic fluid embolism:

  • presentation?
  • test?
  • Rx?
A

Usually in labour, can happen in CS or immediate postpartum period as well

Essentially same as PE
Dyspnoea, coughing, chest pain, tachycardia, tachypnoea, hypotension, cyanosis, arrhythmia

No definitive test, diagnosis of exclusion

ICU MDT, mainly supportive

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42
Q

Suspected DVT/PE in pregnancy:

  • Ix DVT?
  • Ix PE?
  • Rx?
  • thrombolysis?
A

DVT: Duplex USS

PE:

  • ECG and CXR
  • If DVT, duplex USS - if present treat (no need for CT/VQ)
  • if no DVT, decision between CTPA/VQ is with radiologist and pt

CTPA - higher dose radiation to mother, risk breast cancer

VQ - higher dose radiation to baby, risk childhood cancer

D dimers useless as raised in pregnancy

Rx: LMWH (DOAC and Warfarin CI in pregnancy)

Thrombolysis also CI in pregnancy as it will result in catastrophic haemorrhage for mother and foetus

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43
Q

Most common cause of cord prolapse?

A

Artificial rupture of membranes

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44
Q

3/4 commonest pregnancy-related causes of bleeding in each trimester?
Maternal causes for any trimester?

A

1st:

  • implantation
  • spontaneous abortion
  • ectopic pregnancy
  • mole

2nd:

  • abortion
  • mole
  • abruption

3rd (antepartum haemorrhage):

  • bloody show
  • abruption
  • placenta praevia
  • vasa praevia

Maternal:

  • genital tract infection
  • Cervical ectropion, polyp or malignancy
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45
Q

When is Hb checked in pregnancy?

If Fe depleted?

A

Booking, 28 and 34 weeks

200mg ferrous sulphate

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46
Q

Types of miscarriage:

  • complete?
  • incomplete?
  • missed/delayed?
  • anembryonic pregnancy?
  • threatened?
  • inevitable?
A

Complete - empty uterus

Incomplete - pain and bleeding, some products of conception still there, os open, some have been expelled

Missed/delayed - some light spotting/no bleeding at all - dead foetus, os closed

Anembryonic pregnancy - gestational sac >25mm but no foetal parts

Threatened - painless bleeding <24 weeks, os closed, pregnancy continues

Inevitable - some bleeding with clots and pain, os open, miscarriage about to happen

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47
Q

1st line management for miscarriage?
Criteria for intervention?
Medical management?
Surgical management?

A

Expectant - wait 14 days

Criteria:

  • Increased risk of haemorrhage (late 1st trimester or coagulopathy)
  • signs of infection
  • previous adverse/traumatic experience

Medical:

  • Oral misoprostol
  • give anti-emetics and analgesics

Surgical:

  • vacuum aspiration (LA, outpatient)
  • surgical evacuation (GA, inpatient)
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48
Q

How to diagnose miscarriage?

A

Can diagnose if sac >25mm or CRL >7mm and no heartbeat, but need 2 sonographers to confirm

If <25mm or <7mm cannot diagnose on first scan - pregnancy of uncertain viability - need to wait a week and rescan

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49
Q
What is needed for TOP?
How is it done if:
- <9 weeks (early)?
- 9-12 weeks (late)?
- 12-14 weeks (mid-trimester)?
A
  • 2 medical practitioners to sign off on it
  • in emergency only one is needed (risk to life)

Method:

<9 weeks - mifepristone (progesterone antagonist) followed by misoprostol 48 hours later - this can be completed at home

9-12 weeks - vacuum aspiration

> 12 weeks - medical - in hospital

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50
Q

If someone has discharge very early e.g. 25 weeks, how can you test if it is from gestational sac?
What should you do?

A

foetal fibronectin test of fluid in speculum test

Admit for 2 doses of steroids in case of preterm labour

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51
Q

What is someone with insulin-controlled diabetes e.g. T1DM needs 2 high dose steroids IM?

A

Admit and monitor BM’s closely, adjusting insulin accordingly

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52
Q
Group B strep:
RF for infection?
If GBS in previous pregnancy?
To women in preterm labour?
If fever in labour?
A

20-40% of women are carriers

RF:

  • prematurity
  • PPROM
  • Previous GBS sibling
  • Maternal pyrexia (chorioamnionitis)

If GBS in prev pregnancy they should be offered intrapartum benzylpenicillin or testing 3-5 weeks before delivery (and Rx if +ve)

Intrapartum abx should be offered to ALL women in preterm labour regardless of GBS status

Offer intrapartum abx to ALL women with temp >38 in labour

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53
Q

Baby blues?
Postnatal depression?
Puerperal psychosis?

A

Baby blues:
- affects 60% women, first 3-7 days following birth, anxious, tearful and irritable

Postnatal depression:

  • affects 10%
  • Symptoms start in first month and peak at 3 months
  • Support, CBT
  • Sertraline and Paroxetine only ones licensed

Puerperal psychosis?

  • affects 0.2%
  • onset first 2-3 weeks following birth
  • severe mood swings (similar to bipolar), disordered perception (auditory hallucinations)
  • 25-50% chance of reoccurrence in future pregnancies
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54
Q

What vaccines are live attenuated and so cannot be given in immunodeficiency/pregnancy?

A
MMR
Varicella
Yellow fever
Rotavirus
Influenza
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55
Q

Maternal indications for inducing labour?

A
  • Prolonged pregnancy >41 weeks
  • PPROM
  • Hypertension, diabetes, cholestasis, APH, deteriorating illness

Foetal:

  • macrosmia
  • IUGR
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56
Q

Contraindications for inducing labour?

A

Malpresentation
Praevia
Cord prolapse
Signs of foetal distress

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57
Q

What foods to avoid in pregnancy?
Travel?
Sports?

A

Listeriosis:
- unpasteurised milk, soft cheeses (camembert, brie, blue), pate

Salmonella:
- undercooked meat/poultry/eggs

Vit A:
- Liver (teratogenic)

Air travel:
Avoid >37 weeks in singleton pregnancies and >32 in multiple pregnancies - wear compression stockings

Sports:
Avoid high impact sports and scuba diving

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58
Q

PPROM:

  • complications?
  • how to determine?
  • management?
A

Comps:
foetal - prematurity, infection, pulmonary hypoplasia
maternal - chorioamnionitis

Determine:

  • sterile speculum exam to look for pooling of fluid in posterior vaginal vault
  • Avoid digital exam - risk of infection
  • If no pooling but suspicion, USS to look for oligohydramnios

Management:

  • admit
  • regular obs to ensure no chorioamnionitis
  • Erythromycin 10 days
  • Steroids
  • Consider delivery at 34 weeks
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59
Q

DVT/VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy?

A

Any woman with previous VTE get LMWH throughout entire pregnancy until 6 weeks post-natal

Risk factors:

  • Age >35
  • BMI >30
  • Parity >3
  • Smoker
  • varicose veins
  • current pre-eclampsia
  • immobility
  • FHx VTE
  • thrombophilia
  • multiple pregnancy
  • IVF

If 4+ of above factors - LMWH throughout pregnancy until 6 weeks postpartum

If 3 of above LMWH from 28 weeks -> 6 weeks postpartum

60
Q

If a HepB +ve woman gives birth?

A

HepB IVIG + vaccine within 12 hours of birth

Further vaccines at 2 and 6 months as per normal schedule

61
Q

Layers cut/torn through in a C-section

A
Skin
Sup and Deep fascia
Anterior rectus sheath
Rectus (incision in linea alba then torn)
Transversalis fascia
Extraperitoneal connective tissue
Peritoneum
Uterus
62
Q

Absolute and relative indications for C-section?

A

Absolute:
Cephalopelvic disproportion
Praevia grades 3/4

Relative:
Pre-eclampsia
Post-dates
IUGR
Foetal distress in labour/cord compression
Failure to progress
Brow malpresentation
Abruption (if foetal distress - if dead deliver vaginally)
Vaginal infection (e.g. active herpes)
Cervical cancer
63
Q
'Serious' risks of C-section:
- maternal?
- future pregnancies?
'Frequent risks:
- maternal?
- foetal?
A

Serious maternal:
hysterectomy, retained placental tissue, VTE, bladder/ureteric injury, subfertility due to adhesions, death (1/12000)

Serious future:
uterine rupture, still birth, praevia, accreta

Frequent maternal:
Persistent wound, abdo discomfort, future CS, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection (wound, endometritis, UTI), prolonged ileum

Frequent foetal:
Laceration (2/100)

64
Q

VBAC recommendations?

A

If CS was due to foetal factor such as distress, may try VBAC

CI = previous uterine rupture or classical cesarian

65
Q

Which presentation has the greatest morbidity and mortality?

A

Footling breech - breech but one foot hanging down - 20% chance cord prolapse

66
Q

Breech risk factors?
Management?
Contraindications for ECV?

A

RF:

  • fibroids
  • praevia
  • poly/oligo-hydramnios
  • foetal abnormality (CNS, chromosomal)
  • prematurity

If breech at 36 weeks try ECV (37 in multiparous women)
If doesn’t work can still do vaginal or CS delivery

CI for ECV:

  • APH in last 7 days
  • CS required
  • abnormal CTG
  • uterine abnormality
  • ruptured membranes
  • multiple pregnancy
67
Q

When is hCG first detectable in the blood?

A

8 days post-conception

It is secreted by syncitiotrophoblasts

Level the doubles every 48 hours until 8-10 weeks then starts to subside

68
Q

How does face presentation occur?

Prognosis?

A

Normally occurs by chance as the head extends rather than flexes as it engages

99% rotate so the chin lies behind the symphysis so the head can be born by flexion

1% rotate so the chin is behind the sacrum - emergency C section

69
Q

After what gestation is same day delivery an option in pre-eclampsia?
Should treatment continue into induced labour?
What can help BP if induced labour?

A

34 weeks

Yes, continue into labour

Epidural

70
Q

When are women screened for anaemia?

Cut off?

A

Booking visit and 28 weeks

<110g/L at booking
<105g/L at 28 weeks

Oral iron tablets

71
Q

Indications for forceps delivery?

A
  • foetal or maternal distress in second stage of labour
  • failure to progress 2nd stage
  • control of head in breech delivery

Requirements

  • Ruptured membranes
  • Full dilation, in 2nd stage
  • Cephalic presentation, preferably OA
  • Station 0 or below, cannot be palpated abdominally
  • Pain relief
  • Bladder empty (catheterisation)
72
Q
Post-partum thyroiditis:
3 stages?
Diagnosis?
What antibody is positive?
Management?
A
Stages:
1. thyrotoxicosis
2. hypothyroidism
3. euthyroid 
(high recurrence in future pregnancies)

Diagnostic criteria:

  1. <12 months postpartum
  2. Clinical manifestation of hypothyroidism
  3. TFT support diagnosis

anti-TPO +ve in 90%

Management:

  • thyrotoxic phase - propranolol for symptoms
  • thyroxine if hypothyroid
73
Q

On USS what is suspicious of praevia after presenting with painless bleeding?

A
  • high presenting part

- abnormal presentation

74
Q

If woman has pre-eclampsia with hypertension and +++ protein in labour at term - management?

A

IV labetalol (or others) with target systolic <150 and diastolic 80-100

75
Q

Statins and pregnancy?

A

Stop taking statins 3 months before conception

76
Q

criteria for continuous CTG in labour?

A
  • Maternal request
  • Temp >38 or suspected chorioamnionitis/sepsis
  • Hypertension >160/110
  • Oxytocin use
  • Meconium
  • Fresh vaginal bleeding in labour

(fresh vaginal bleeds in labour most commonly placental rupture or praevia)

77
Q

Most common cause of antepartum haemorrhage?

A
  1. placental rupture

2. placenta praevia

78
Q

3 parameters of contractions?

A
  1. frequency
    - start 10-15 mins apart, increase in frequency, usually 3-4/10 mins at peak
  2. Duration
    - initially 10-15 secs
    - 1 min at peak
  3. Intensity
    - amount of pain
79
Q

Factors of the passenger?

A
  • size
  • lie
  • presentation (what part enters pelvis first)
  • position (foetal occiput in relation to pelvis e.g. OA)
80
Q

CI for induction of labour?

A

Malpresentation
Placenta praevia
Cord prolapse
Signs of foetal distress

81
Q

Methods of induction?

A

Membrane sweep - offered to nulliparous women at 40 and 41 weeks and porous women only at 41 weeks

Topical prostaglandins - mainstay

Amniotomy - only once cervix is deemed ‘ripe’, sometimes done alongside syntocinon infusion

IV syntocinon - membranes must be ruptured

82
Q

Stages of labour?

A

Stage 1: onset to full dilation

  • latent: 0-4cm, can last variable amount of time
  • active - 4-10cm dilation, usually lasts a few hours, assoc w regular, intense contractions

Stage 2: full dilation to delivery

Stage 3: delivery of baby to delivery of placenta

  • active management preferred. 30 mins max active, or 60 mins passive
  • Methods: controlled cord traction, syntocinon, ergometrine (not in HTN/cardiac disease)
83
Q

Times allowed for stage 2 of labour?

A

Nulli w/o anaesthesia - 2 hours

Nulli w anaesthesia - 3 hours

Multi w/o anaesthesia - 1 hours

Multi w anaesthesia - 2 hours

84
Q

What is engagement?

What is descent?

A

Engagement - when head enters pelvis
Measured in 5th palpable in abdo

Descent - passage through birth canal, measured in stations from ischial spine from -5 to +5
Aided by moulding

85
Q

7 cardinal movements?

A

Engagement - enters pelvis OT

Descent

Flexion

Internal rotation (usually to OA, sometimes OP

Extension

External rotation (restitution) - head rotates back in line with shoulders

Expulsion - delivery of shoulders

86
Q

Assessment of labour?

A

Via partogram:

  • contractions
  • cervical dilation
  • stations of descent
  • amniotic fluid - presence and colour
  • Maternal obs: pulse, temp, BP
  • foetal observations: HR, position of head, presence of moulding (sign of obstruction)

Assessment of cervix:
- consistency, effacement and dilatation

87
Q

Monitoring in labour?

A

FHR every 15 mins (or continuously via CTG if required)

Contractions every 30 mins

Maternal pulse every hour

Every 4 hours:

  • maternal BP and temp
  • vaginal exam for progression
  • maternal urine for protein and ketones
88
Q

Pain relief in labour:

  • non-pharm/basic?
  • opiates?
A

Massage, aromatherapy, water bath

Entonox - 50% air 50% NO

Opiates:

  • Penthidine or diamorphine
  • Maternal SE: N&V
  • foetal SE: drowsiness, neonatal RDS
89
Q

Epidural:

  • disadvantages?
  • SE?
A

LA/opioid mix in epidural fat space - most effective form of analgesia
Onset 20-30 mins and can be topped up as labour continues

Dis:

  • slow second stage of labour
  • malpresentation
  • need for operative vaginal delivery (not CS)
  • cannot lie flat - aorta-caval compression

Maternal SE:

  • headache (low pressure)
  • urinary retention
  • hypotension

Foetal SE:

  • risk of distress (prolonged labour)
  • Bradycardia (if maternal hypotension persists) - treated with IV fluids and ephedrine
90
Q

Spinal anaesthetic?

A

Injection of LA/opioid into subarachnoid space
Much quicker onset but doesn’t last as long
Anaesthetic of choice for CS

SE: similar to epidural but hypotension can be more profound

91
Q

Pudendal nerve block:

  • where?
  • use?
A

Injection of LA into pudendal nerve (S2-S4)

Find ischial spines then move 2 finger breadths lateral which allows needle to be passed through sacrospinous ligament into pudendal nerve

Most commonly used during operative vaginal delivery

92
Q

Puerperium:

  • discharge?
  • What else happens?
A

Lochia

  • Rubra - dark red - 3-4 days
  • Serosa - pinkish brown - 4-10 days
  • Alba - whitish yellow - 10-28 days

Also:

  • lactation
  • uterine involution
  • highest risk of VTE
93
Q

Indications for operative vaginal delivery?
Criteria?
Contraindications?

A

Foetal - distress/compromise

Maternal - exhaustion, failure to progress, indications against prolonged pushing e.g. cardiac/hypertensive disease

Criteria:

  • Head fully engaged (not palpable abdominally)
  • Station at least 0
  • membranes ruptured
  • cervix fully dilated
  • Caput and moulding no more than moderate
  • exact position of head determined (for proper placement of instruments)
  • able to give woman appropriate analgesia

CI:

  • breech
  • absolute cephalopelvic disproportion
94
Q

Common complications with forceps delivery and ventouse delivery?

A

Forceps:

  • perineal trauma
  • facial bruising
  • temporary facial nerve palsy

Ventouse:

  • higher failure rate
  • cone head - chignon
  • increased risk of retinal haemorrhage and cephalhaematoma
95
Q

Categoris of C section?
Elective indications?
Emergency indications?

A

1 - immediate threat to life
2 - no immediate threat to life
3 - requires early delivery
4 - elective

Elective:

  • breech
  • praevia
  • known cephalopod-pelvic disproportion
  • maternal infection (HIV/HSV)

Emergency:

  • eclampsia
  • foetal distress
  • abruption
  • cord prolapse
  • failure to progress
96
Q

What can cause PPROM?

A

genital tract infection

97
Q

What is classed as prolonged latent phase?
Primary arrest?
Secondary arrest?

A

Latent - longer than 8 hours to get to 4cm dilated

Primary - poor progress of active phase - <7cm after 4 hours

Secondary - poor progress after reaching 7cm dilated

98
Q

Causes of failure to progress?

Management for poor contractions, malposition and malpresentation?

A

Weak, irregular contractions

Disproportion

  • absolite
  • relative (malposition of head in pelvis)

Malpresentation

Management:

  • contractions: examine every 2 hours, offer ROM if not occurred, commence CTG and syntocinon
  • > if still slow progress over 4-6 hours or foetal distress then section
  • malposition: usually operative vaginal if head at station
  • malpresentation: depends on presentation, breech usually delivered via section
99
Q

Risk factors for foetal distress?

A
Prematurity/postmaturity
Multiple pregnancy
SGA
VBAC
Maternal disease: HTN, diabetes, cholestasis
Use of regional anaesthesia
Ovarian hyperstimulation
100
Q

Foetal assessment:

  • liquor?
  • HR?
  • CTG?
  • Vaginal exam?
A

Liquor:
- normally clear, if meconium may be due to postdates or distress

HR:
- via doppler, every 15 mins in stage 1, every 5 mins or after every contraction in stage 2

CTG:

  • commenced if: maternal request, pyrexia on 2 separate occasions, abnormal HR, syntocinon, meconium
  • bradycardia, loss of variability, late decelerations

Exam:
- excessive caput/moulding

101
Q

Management of confirmed foetal distress?

A
  • sit mother up
  • IV fluids
  • Stop syntocinon
  • take foetal blood sample
  • Consider terbutaline and plan CS

Blood sample:

  • pH >7.25 = normal
  • pH 7.2-7.25 = borderline, repeat in 30 mins
  • pH <7.2 = acidotic, immediate delivery
102
Q

Where is episiotomy cut into?

What should women be given?

A

Posterolateral incision through skin and perineal muscle from vagina to ischioanal fossa

Laxatives, abx, analgesia

103
Q

Nausea in 3rd trimester, no other symptoms, all bloods normal but slightly raised ALP?

A

Benign 3rd trimester nausea

Often due to pressure on stomach from expanding uterus

ALP can be slightly raised due to placental production

104
Q

Antipsychotics in pregnancy, what type are generally safer?

Risk of atypicals? What one is CI in breastfeeding?

A

Typicals

Atypicals - risk of gestational diabetes and IUGR

Clozapine CI in breastfeeding

105
Q

Foetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Low IQ
Hearing problems
Heart and kidney malformations
Facial dysmorphism: short palpebral folds, thin upper lip, indistinct philtrum

106
Q

Treatment of pyelonephritis in pregnancy?

A

Co-amoxiclav

107
Q

Management of antiphospholipid syndrome in pregnancy?

A

Aspirin from conception until foetal heart first seen

LMWH once foetal heart seen on USS (around 6 weeks) until 34 weeks, then stop

108
Q

Ix of DVT/PE in pregnancy?

Management?

A

If DVT: doppler USS

If also suspicious of PE:

  1. CXR and ECG
  2. Patient decides between V/Q scan (higher risk of childhood cancer) and CTPA (higher risk of maternal breast cancer)

D-dimer useless as raised in pregnancy anyway

Rx:
- LMWH until 6 weeks post pregnancy, or for 3 months, whichever is longer

109
Q
Foetal effects of:
- valproate?
- phenytoin?
- carbamazepine?
How should mothers with epilepsy be managed?
A

valproate - spina bifida, cardiac problems, autism, dysmorphic face

Phenytoin - cleft palate, cardiac defects

Carbamazepine - neural tube defects, VitK deficiency

Manage:
Try and optimise treatment on monotherapy, folic acid 5mg, detailed anomaly scan, VitK to mum at 36 weeks AND baby following delivery

110
Q

When are women screened for diabetes?
Diagnosis of gestational diabetes?
Management?
Blood glucose targets for fasting, 1 hour and 2 hour after meal?

A

Booking and 24-28 weeks

Diagnosis:

  • fasting 5.6+
  • OGTT 7.8+

Management:

  • if 5.6-7, trial diet & exercise for 1-2 weeks
  • if still no improvement, Metformin (or glibenclamide)
  • if >7, insulin
  • if on metformin and still high, add insulin

Targets:

  • fasting 5.3mmol/L
  • 1 hour 7.8mmol/L
  • 2 hour 6.4mmol/L
111
Q

Management of pre-existing diabetes in pregnancy?

A

Before pregnancy:

  • weight loss if BMI>27
  • stop oral hypoglycaemic except metformin and start insulin if needed
  • folic acid 5mg

In pregnancy:

  • tight glycemic control
  • 20 week anomaly scan
112
Q

Diagnosis of HTN in pregnancy?

A

> 140/90 on 2 occasions
Diastolic >110 on any occasion

Severe >160/110

113
Q

If pre-existing HTN what should you do at start of pregnancy?

A

Stop ACEI/ARB

Don’t rush into new medication as BP naturally decreases in first trimester

114
Q

Main cause of death in pre-eclampsia?

A

Pulmonary oedema

115
Q

When is hyperemesis most common?
RF for hyperemesis?
What is protective?

A

Most common at 8-12 weeks as hCG peaks, and can last up until 20 weeks

RF:

  • first pregnancy
  • young maternal age
  • Multiple/molar pregnancy
  • diabetes/hyperthyroid

Smoking is protective

116
Q

Consequences of hyperemesis?

Mandatory Ix?

A
Ketosis
Dehydration (low Na, K)
Hypovolaemic shock
Nutritional deficiency (Wernicke's)
Acute tubular necrosis

Ix:

  • FBC, U&E, TFT
  • ketones
  • urine dip & culture
117
Q

When to admit for hyperemesis?
Treatment of vomiting?
3 other things to consider in management?

A
  • unable to keep food, fluids or oral antiemetics down
  • Ketonuria or 5% weight loss despite antiemetics
  • confirmed comorbidity (e.g. unable to keep down oral abx for UTI)
Vomiting:
1. Cyclizine
2. Ondansetron (or metoclopramide but EPSE)
3. Dexamethasone
also ginger and P6 accupuncture

Others:
VTE prophylaxis: LMWH
Saline and electrolyte replacement
Thiamine - pabrinex

118
Q

What do healthy start vitamins contain?

A

Folic acid, ViaC and VitD - given if poorer background as may not be able to afford supplements

119
Q

What 3 things can be checked on doppler USS if a baby is LGA or SGA?

A

Umbilical artery
Middle cerebral artery
Ductus venosus

120
Q

3 examples of AD inherited diseases?
3 examples of AR?
Explain x-linked recessive?
2 examples of it?

A

AD - Huntington’s, NF, Marfan’s

AR - CF, sickle cell, Tay Sachs

X-linked recessive:

  • Dad affected will pass on to daughters who become carriers - not sons
  • Mum carrier may pass on to son or daughter:
  • 50% of sons affected, 50% unaffected
  • 50% daughters carrier, 50% unaffected

Examples: DMD, Haemophilia A

121
Q

A woman who has PV bleeding at 19 weeks needs anti-D?

A

Yes

122
Q

Shape of anterior and posterior fontanelles?

A

Anterior - diamond

Posterior - triangle

123
Q

Causes of bradycardia on CTG?

Tachycardia?

A

Brady:

  • hypoxia
  • aorta-caval compression
  • epidural/spinal
  • malpresentation

Tachycardia:

  • initial response to hypoxia
  • maternal/foetal infection
124
Q

Causes of reduced variability on CTG <5bpm?

A
Prematurity
Acidosis/hypoxia
Spinal/epidura;
Sleeping (<40 mins)
Opiates
125
Q

What are accelerations on CTG?

A

> 15 bpm for >15 seconds

126
Q

Causes of decelerations:

  • early?
  • variable?
  • late?
A

Early:
- normal response to head compression. Begin at start of compression

Variable:

  • rapid fall from baseline with variable recovery
  • May/may not be pathological, worry if >90 mins (cord compression)
  • Shouldering - HR increase before and after decel - cord compression

Late:

  • always pathological - starts mid-contraction and doesn’t stop until after contraction ends
  • Sign of hypoxia - needs delivered
127
Q

Normal liquor volume?

As seen on USS?

A

500-1500ml

2-8cm

128
Q

Causes of polyhydramnios?
Symptoms?
O/E?

A
  • usually idiopathic
  • twins (if unilateral - TTTS)
  • diabetes
  • problem with swallowing (atresia, neuromuscular)
  • hydrops fetalis

SOB, abdo discomfort, feels like she is about to burst, unable to lie flat

O/E - tense, shiny abdo, large uterus with difficulty feeling foetus

129
Q

Complications of polyhydamnios?

A

Preterm labour
Cord prolapse
PPROM

Management:

  • USS to confirm
  • address and treat RF
  • increase monitoring
130
Q

What is oligohydramnios?
Causes?
Diagnosis?
What is seen in foetus?

A

<500ml/<2cm amniotic fluid

IUGR
Renal agenesis

Diagnosis - USS

Potter’s syndrome:

  • club feet
  • pulmonary hypoplasia
  • flat nose, recessed chin, low set ears, skeletal abnormalities
131
Q

What is zygosity, chorionicity and amnionicity?
What will dizygotic twins be?
What will monozygotic twins be?
What is the most common?

A

zygosity - number of eggs

chorionicity - number of placenta

amnionicity - number of amniotic sacs

Dizygotic twins will always be dichorionic and diamniotic

Monozygous twins can be any

Monochorionic diamniotic is most common

132
Q

4 characteristic features of Patau Syndrome?

A

Trisomy 13

Microcephaly, small eyes
Cleft lip
Polydactyly
Scalp lesions

133
Q

4 characteristic features of Edwards Syndrome?

A

Trisomy 18

Micrognathia
Low set ears
Rocker bottom feet
Overlapping fingers

134
Q

Characteristic features of Down’s Syndrome?

A

Trisomy 21

135
Q

Management of uterine inversion?

A

1st line - manual replacement of uterus

2nd line - hydrostatic replacement under pressure with warm saline
OR
Manual replacement under anaesthetic

Give oxytocin after replacement

136
Q

When is booking done?

What is done at booking?

A

8-12 weeks

General info - weight, diet etc
BP, urine, BMI

Bloods/urine:

  • FBC, G&S, Rh status, red cell ABO, haemoglobinopathies
  • HepB, syphilis
  • HIV
  • Urine culture for asymptomatic bacteriuria
137
Q

When is scan to confirm dates and exclude multiple pregnancy?

A

10-13+6 weeks

138
Q

When is down syndrome screening?

A

Combined test (nuchal, hCG, PAPP-A): 11-13+6

Quadruple (hCG, AFP, inhibin-A, UE3): 15-20 weeks

139
Q

When is anomaly scan done?

A

18-20+1 weeks

140
Q

What is done at 28 week appointment?

A

BP, urine dipstick, SFH

Second screen for anaemia and ABO (if <10.5 consider Fe)

First dose anti-D if -ve

141
Q

What is done at 34 week appt?

A

BP, urine dipstick, SFH

Second dose anti-D

142
Q

What is done at 36 week appt?

A

BP, urine, SFH

Check presentation - offer ECV

Info on breast feeding, VitK, baby blues

(also give VitK if on carbamazepine)

143
Q

Causes of increased AFP in pregnancy? (3)

Decreased (2)

A

Increased:
Neural tube defects
Abdo wall defects
Multiple pregnancy

Decreased:
Trisomy
Diabetes

144
Q

Screening for post-natal depression?

A

Edinburgh post-natal depression scale

145
Q

Is it safe for a woman with HepB to breastfeed?

A

Yes