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OB > OB II Chapter 21, 22, 23, 24 and 25 > Flashcards

OB II Chapter 21, 22, 23, 24 and 25 Flashcards

1
Q

Combination of nonimmune fetal hydrops and a cystic hygroma

A

lymphangiectasia

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2
Q

Incomplete fusion of the neural tube resulting in a cleft spinal cord

A

Myeloschisis

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3
Q

Failure of one or both testes to descend from the abdomen into the scrotal sac

A

cryptorchidism

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4
Q

Tumor composed of fat

A

Lipoma

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5
Q

Complete exposure of the spinal cord due to lack of spinal fusion

A

Rachischisis

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6
Q

How many ossification centers surround the neural canal?

A

three

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7
Q

Fetal position that offers a true sagittal view of the spine

A

Prone

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8
Q

The simplest form of spina bifida is

A

Spina bifida occulta

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9
Q

Anomalies frequently seen in the fetus relating to spina bifida involve the fetal _______________

A

Cranium

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10
Q

Fetuses affected by spina bifida aperta commonly demonstrate_____________________

A

Bilateral club feet

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11
Q

Scoliosis is an abnormal _________ curvature of the spine

A

lateral

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12
Q

A sacrococcygeal teratoma most commonly images as a protrusion between

A

the anus and the coccyx

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13
Q

Suspicion of open neural tube or abdominal wall defect is elevated with a MSAFP of

A

2.4 MoM

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14
Q

The neural tube completely closes by

A

Day 26

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15
Q

Term for slow heart rate

A

bradyarrhythmia

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16
Q

Malformation that is part of tetralogy of fallot

A

Valvular stenosis due to pulmonary stenosis

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17
Q

Congenital malformation in which the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle

A

Transposition of the great arteries

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18
Q

What type of defect has the lower portion of the atrial septum absent without a ventricular defect?

A

Partial atrioventricular septal defect

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19
Q

Where is the ventricular septal defect located in a VSD type DORV

A

Subaortic

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20
Q

Anomaly in which heart defect demonstrates reversed flow in the ductus arteriousus

A

Interrupted aortic arch

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21
Q

Spinal sonogrpahy is useful in the normal infant until approximately how many months of age?

A

5 to 6

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22
Q

What is the sonographic appearance of the spinal canal?

A

Anechoic

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23
Q

In what region is the spine larger?

A

Cervical and lumbar

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24
Q

How can one visually identify the lumbosacral junction?

A

Identify the kyphosis of the sacrum

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25
Q

What is the etiology of spinal dysraphism?

A

Inadequate or improper fusion of the neural tube

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26
Q

Which open spinal dysraphism presents as a flat plate of neural tissue flush with the skin surface?

A

Myelocele

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27
Q

On a sonogram of a patient with tethered cord, the conus medullaris will terminate at or below the level of which vertebral body?

A

L3

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28
Q

What closed spinal dysraphism are collections of fat and connective tissue that appear at least partially encapsulated and have definite connection with the spinal cord?

A

Spinal lipoma

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29
Q

What is the best transducer to routinely use to evaluate the neonatal spine?

A

Linear array

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30
Q

Both great arteries arise from the right ventricle with a VSD and pulmonary stenosis. The same process can occur with the left ventricle with associated AV and semilunar valve stenosis

A

Double outlet right ventricle (DORV)

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31
Q

Common benign tumor found in either ventricle

A

Rhabdomyoma

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32
Q

Without motion

A

akinetic

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33
Q

Apex of the heart points to the right

A

Dextrocardia

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34
Q

Also known as hypoplastic right heart. Underdevelopment of the right ventricle and hypoplasia of the tricuspid valve

A

Right ventricular hypoplasia

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35
Q

Single or multiple defect allowing oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to pass into the right ventricle

A

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

36
Q

Connection between the umbilical vein and the inferior vena cava

A

ductus venosus

37
Q

Irregular extra contraction of the atria out of sync with ventricles

A

Premature atrial contractions (PACs)

38
Q

Single artery spanning the ventricles

A

Truncus arteriosus

39
Q

Impaired movement

A

Dyskinetic

40
Q

Abnormal opening between the right and left atria

A

Atrial septal defect (ASD)

41
Q

Congenital absence of the tricuspid valve

A

Tricuspid atresia

42
Q

First section of the interatrial septum to form in the embryo

A

Septum primum

43
Q

Displacement of the tricuspid valve toward the apex of the heart resulting in tricuspid stenosis and/or regurgitation, atrialization of the right ventricle

A

Ebstein’s anomaly

44
Q

muscular projections into the ventricles that anchor the chordae tendinae of the AV valves

A

Papillary muscles

45
Q

Narrowing of the aorta

A

Coarctation of the aorta

46
Q

Congenital heart malformation where the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle

A

Transposition of the great arteries (TGA)

47
Q

Subset of cells found in the developing heart tube that will give rise to the hearts valves and septa critical to the proper formation of a four-chambered heart

A

Endocardial cushion

48
Q

Cyanotic heart malformation with a VSD, pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary obstruction due to valvular stenosis

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

49
Q

Opening between the atria allowing for blood flow from the right to the left during fetal life

A

Foramen Ovale

50
Q

The fetal heart is completely formed by

A

the beginning of the eighth week

51
Q

Fetal blood circulates within the embryo at

A

3 weeks postconception

52
Q

Fetal oxygenated blood circulation from the placenta enters the fetus through the:

A

Umbilical vein to the ductus arteriosus and right atrium

53
Q

Fetal blood from the IVC enters the heart

A

right atrium

54
Q

The greatest concentration of oxygenated fetal blood is to the fetal

A

cranium

55
Q

A normal heart orientation is

A

levocardia

56
Q

In the normal fetal heart, which chamber is located closest to the fetal spine

A

Left atrium

57
Q

The most common cardiac tumor is

A

Rhabdomyoma

58
Q

The pulmonary valve receives blood from the:

A

Right ventricle

59
Q

Toward the back or spine

A

Dorsal

60
Q

Body in the erect position with the palms forward and feet pointed forward

A

anatomic position

61
Q

Less echogenic or darker on a sonographic image

A

hypoechoic

62
Q

Solitary cyst within the lung

A

Bronchogenic cyst

63
Q

Generalized edema in the subcutaneous tissue

A

anasarca

64
Q

An enlarged heart

A

cardiomegaly

65
Q

Toward the feet or tail end

A

caudal

66
Q

An inflammation of the fetal membranes (amnion/chorion) due to infection

A

chorioamnionitis

67
Q

Birth defect of the diaphragm that allows the abdominal contents to enter the chest

A

congenital diaphragmatic hernia

68
Q

Position of the fetus in utero

A

Fetal lie

69
Q

Term used to describe which portion of the fetus will deliver first

A

Fetal presentation

70
Q

Area lying between the lungs, which contains the heart, aorta, esophagus, trachea and thymus

A

Mediastinum chest

71
Q

Semiautomated process to calculate volume using a 3D dataset

A

VOCAL

72
Q

Congenital disorder where the spinal cord does not close before birth

A

Myelomeningocele (Spina Bifida)

73
Q

Congenital blockage or absence of the bile duct

A

biliary atresia

74
Q

Dilation of the renal pelvises and calices , usually caused by obstruction

A

Hydronephrosis

75
Q

Complete absence of a body part

A

Aplasia

76
Q

Areas of similar intensity or increased brightness on the MRI image, equivalent to isoechoic

A

isointense

77
Q

Accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity

A

Ascites

78
Q

Reversal of normal organ position

A

situs inversus

79
Q

Congenital lack of nerves in the colon resulting in fecal impaction and mega colon

A

Hirschsprung disease

80
Q

Congenital absence or closing of the duodenal lumen

A

duodenal atresia

81
Q

Bowel obstruction by mucus

A

Meconium ileus

82
Q

Genetic abnormality in which there are three copies of a particular chromosomes

A

Trisomy

83
Q

Bowel obstruction due to bowel twisting

A

Midgut volvulus

84
Q

Dilation of the renal calices

A

Caliectasis

85
Q

Formation of blood cells

A

Hematopoiesis

OB (5 decks)

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