OB-GYN Revision 6 Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

Describe some risk factors for ectopic pregnancy [+]

A

Previous ectopic

Tubal factors:
- scarring or adhesions from PID
- congenital anomalies,

Tubal surgery:
- salpingectomy
- tubal ligation
- reconstructive surgery

Assisted reproductive technology (ART):
- Fertility treatments, particularly in vitro fertilization (IVF)

Intrauterine device (IUD) use

Smoking

Endometriosis

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3
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of ectopic pregnancy [3]

A

Implantation outside the uterine cavity occurs when the fertilized ovum is unable to reach the endometrial lining due to impaired tubal transport or abnormal embryo-tubal interactions:
- Abnormal embryo migration (disrupted tubal motility, due to factors such as PID, endometriosis, or smoking)
- Impaired tubal environment: Inflammatory processes, including infection or endometriosis, can alter the tubal milieu, promoting ectopic implantation.
- Embryo-tubal interactions: Alterations in the expression of adhesion molecules and chemokines, such as integrins and L-selectin, may affect the embryo-tubal relationship, leading to ectopic pregnancy.

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4
Q

Describe the clinical features of ectopic pregnancies [+]

A

Female with a history of 6-8 weeks amenorrhoea who presents with lower abdominal pain and later develops vaginal bleeding

Constant lower abdominal pain:
- in the right or left iliac fossa
- often FIRST symptom
- pain is constant

Vaginal bleeding:
* usually less than a normal period
* may be dark brown in colour

Recent amenorrhoea
- if longer (e.g. 10 wks) this suggest another causes e.g. inevitable abortion

Cervical motion tenderness (pain when moving the cervix during a bimanual examination)

Dizziness or syncope (blood loss)

Shoulder tip pain(peritonitis)

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5
Q

Describe how you interpret serum bHCG levels with ectopic pregnancies [2]

A

If the initial β-HCG level is >1500 iU (discriminatory level)
- & there is no intrauterine pregnancy on transvaginal ultrasound –> consider ectopic pregnancy until proven otherwise

If the initial β-HCG level is < 1500 iU:
- and the patient is stable, a further blood test can be taken 48 hours later
- Viable pregnancy: HCG level would be expected to double every 48 hours.
- Miscarriage: HCG level would be expected to halve every 48 hours

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6
Q

Describe the criteria that needs to be met to indicate expectant managment for ectopic pregnancy [5]

A
  • Clinical stable and pain free AND
  • Unruptured tubal ectopic pregnancy measuring less than 35mm with no
    visible heartbeat in TVUS AND
  • Serum b-hCG levels of ≤1,000 IU/L AND
  • Able to return for follow up
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7
Q

What is the criteria to meet medical management of EP? [3]

A

Have no significant pain AND
* Unruptured tubal ectopic pregnancy measuring less than 35mm with no visible heartbeat in TVUS AND
* Serum b -hCG levels of ≤1,500 IU/L AND
* Able to return for follow up

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8
Q

Which patients require surgery for an ectopic pregnancy? [4]

A

This include those with:
* Pain
* Adnexal mass > 35mm
* Visible heartbeat
* HCG levels > 5000 IU / l

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9
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A
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10
Q

Describe the short term complications of a untreated ectopic pregnancy [2]

A

Tubal rupture:
- The most severe and life-threatening complication of ectopic pregnancy, tubal rupture occurs when the growing conceptus causes the fallopian tube to burst, leading to severe intraperitoneal haemorrhage.
- Usually occurs between 6-10 weeks gestation. Clinical manifestations include sudden, severe abdominal pain, signs of hypovolemic shock (tachycardia, hypotension, pallor), and peritoneal irritation.
- Prompt surgical intervention is crucial to prevent maternal mortality.

Haemoperitoneum:
- Bleeding into the abdominal cavity from trophoblast invasion.
- Internal bleeding due to ectopic pregnancy can lead to a significant accumulation of blood in the peritoneal cavity, causing hemodynamic instability and potential hypovolemic shock.
- Hemoperitoneum warrants immediate surgical intervention.

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11
Q

Describe the intermediate-term complications of an ectopic pregnancy [2]

A

Persistent trophoblastic tissue:
* Following treatment with methotrexate or surgical management, residual trophoblastic tissue may remain and continue to produce hCG.
* This can necessitate further medical or surgical intervention to ensure complete removal of the ectopic pregnancy
.
Infection:
- Post-surgical infection or an undiagnosed tubo-ovarian abscess may complicate ectopic pregnancy management, requiring antibiotic therapy or additional surgical procedures.

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12
Q

Explain the long-term complications of an ectopic pregnancy [3]

A

Damage to reproductive organs:
- Surgical intervention for ectopic pregnancy, particularly salpingectomy, can impact future fertility.
- Moreover, ectopic pregnancy itself increases the risk of subsequent ectopic pregnancies.

Rh sensitization:
- In Rh-negative women with an ectopic pregnancy, there is a risk of developing Rh isoimmunization.
- Administering Rh immunoglobulin prophylaxis is crucial to prevent complications in future pregnancies.

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13
Q

Describe the US findings of an ectopic pregnancy [3]

A

gestational sac containing a yolk sac or fetal pole may be seen in a fallopian tube
- A mass representing a tubal ectopic pregnancy moves separately to the ovary. The mass may look similar to a corpus luteum; however, a corpus luteum will move with the ovary

Features that may also indicate an ectopic pregnancy are:
* An empty uterus
* The tubal ring sign, also referred to as a bagel sign or blob sign, is one of the ultrasound signs of a tubal ectopic pregnancy.
* Fluid in the uterus, which may be mistaken as a gestational sac (“pseudogestational sac”)

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14
Q

What follow up management do all patients who require a salpignotomy require? [1]

What other management needs to be considered post-ectopic pregnancy? [1]

A

Patients who have required salpingotomy require weekly b-hCG measurements until negative. Approximately 1 in 5 will need further treatment

Anti-D Rhesus Prophylaxis - Rhesus D negative women may require anti-D rhesus prophylaxis if surgical management and/or repeated, heavy bleeding and/or pain

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15
Q

Define the following terms:
- hydatidiform mole
- complete mole
- partial mole

A

A hydatidiform mole:
- is a type of tumour that grows like a pregnancy inside the uterus. This is called a molar pregnancy. There are two types of molar pregnancy: a complete mole and a partial mole.

A complete mole:
- occurs when two sperm cells fertilise an ovum that contains no genetic material (an “empty ovum”).
- These sperm then combine genetic material, and the cells start to divide and grow into a tumour called a complete mole
- No fetal material will form.

A partial mole:
- occurs when two sperm cells fertilise a normal ovum (containing genetic material) at the same time.
- The new cell now has three sets of chromosomes.
- The cell divides and multiplies into a tumour called a partial mole.
- In a partial mole, some fetal material may form.

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16
Q

Molar pregnancy behaves like a normal pregnancy. Periods will stop and the hormonal changes of pregnancy will occur.

There are a few things that can indicate a molar pregnancy versus a normal pregnancy - what are they? [4]

A

There are a few things that can indicate a molar pregnancy versus a normal pregnancy:
* More severe morning sickness
* Vaginal bleeding
* uterus large for dates
* Abnormally high hCG
* Thyrotoxicosis (hCG can mimic TSH and stimulate the thyroid to produce excess T3 and T4)

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17
Q

How do you manage molar pregnancies? [3]

A
  • Surgical evacuation of the uterus to remove the mole and histological confirmation
  • Referral to to gestational trophoblastic disease centre for management and follow-up (hCG levels are monitored until they return to normal)
  • If the mole metastasises, systemic chemotherapy may be required
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18
Q

What advice do you give about contraception following complete molar pregnancies? [1]

A

effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months

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19
Q

What is the difference between N&V and hyperemesis gravidarum? [3]

A

The RCOG guideline (2016) criteria for diagnosing hyperemesis gravidarum are “protracted” NVP plus:
* More than 5 % weight loss compared with before pregnancy
* Dehydration
* Electrolyte imbalance

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20
Q

Which scoring system can be used to assess HG severity? [1]

What are mild, moderate and severe scores? [3]

A

The severity can be assessed using the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score. This gives a score out of 15:

< 7: Mild
7 – 12: Moderate
> 12: Severe

21
Q

Describe what blood tests might be like for a patient with HG

A

FBC:
↑ haematocrit – to exclude infections, anaemia
* U&Es: to guide IV fluids and electrolyte replacement (↓or ↑K+,↓Na+, AKI)

In refractory cases OR >1 hospital admission
* LFTs: ↑ transaminases, ↓albumin
* Amylase, bilirubin
* Thyroid profile (hypo or hyperthyroidism)
* Bone profile (Calcium and Phosphate)
* Magnesium
* ABG/VBG (metabolic hypochloremic alkalosis)

22
Q

Describe the mx of mild cases of HG

A

The following are all first line anti-emetics:
* Prochlorperazine (stemetil)
* Cyclizine
* Doxylamine and pyridoxine
* Promethazine

2nd line:
- Metoclopramide
- Ondansetron

NB: Initially select a 1st line antiemetic - Use a combination of drugs in women who do not respond to a single drug (synergistic effect) – add drugs rather than replacing them

23
Q

Describe the managment of moderate - server HG

A

IV Fluids
- NaCl or Hartmann’s [avoid glucose containing fluid as they precipitate Wernicke’s encephalopathy] +/- KCl as necessary.

* Anti-emetics IM or IV

  • Daily U&Es
  • Thiamine supplementation to prevent Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome
    (Thiamine Hydrochloride 25-50mg PO TDS or thiamine 100mg infusion
    weekly)
  • Ranitidine or Omeprazole if acid reflux is a problem
  • Laxatives as required
  • NBM for 24hr then introduce food as tolerated – enteral or parenteral
    nutrition maybe considered in refractory cases
  • VTE prophylaxis (TEDS and LMWH)
24
Q

How do you manage future pregnancies if they have previously had severe HG? [2]

A

Pre-emptive use of doxylamine and pyridoxine to reduce severity of
disease (20/20 mg PO at night should be started when positive pregnancy test)

25
Q

Describe the different types of miscarriage [6]

A

Missed miscarriage
– the fetus is no longer alive, but no symptoms have occurred

Threatened miscarriage
– vaginal bleeding with a closed cervix and a fetus that is alive

Inevitable miscarriage
– vaginal bleeding with an open cervix

Incomplete miscarriage
– retained products of conception remain in the uterus after the miscarriage

Complete miscarriage
– a full miscarriage has occurred, and there are no products of conception left in the uterus

Anembryonic pregnancy
– a gestational sac is present but contains no embryo

26
Q

Why does vaginal bleeding occur in a miscarraige? [2]

A

Haemorrhage in the decidua basalis leading to necrosis and inflammation

Ovum is unable to continue to develop in the uterus
* Initiates uterine contractions
* Cervix begins to dilate causing the loss of fetus and pregnancy tissu

27
Q

Why are complete miscarriages more likely before 12 weeks [1] than 12-24 weeks? [1]

A

prior to 12 weeks
- a complete miscarriage is more likely as the placenta is unlikely to have been independently developed, thus being expelled together with the fetus

12-24 weeks:
- gestation sac is more likely to rupture and the fetus then expelled while parts of the placenta remain in the uterus

28
Q

Describe the presentation of:
* complete miscarriage [1]
* incomplete miscarriage [1]

A

complete miscarriage:
- Bleeding stops and further treatment is not needed

incomplete miscarriage:
- Placenta is not fully expelled and bleeding persists
- Surgical management needed

29
Q

Describe the presentation of:
* missed miscarriage [2]
* threatened miscarriage [2]

A

Missed miscarriage:
- no symptoms have occurred
- the cervix is closed

Threatened miscarriage:
- Vaginal bleeding +/- pain
- Closed cervical os
- Viable pregnancy

30
Q

Describe the presentation of:
* inevitable miscarriage [2]

A

Inevitable miscarriage:
- vaginal bleeding
- open cervical os
- Progresses to an incomplete or complete miscarriage

31
Q

Describe the clinical features of a miscarriage:

A
  • Vaginal bleeding - brownish light spotting to heavy bright-red blood with clots;
  • Lower abdominal cramping pain
  • Vaginal fluid discharge/tissue discharge
  • Loss of pregnancy symptoms (eg. No more nausea/breast tenderness)
  • Lower back pain

Should be suspected in all women with bleeding in early pregnancy

32
Q

What are the two key ddx of an miscarriage? [2]

A

Ectopic pregnancy
Molar pregnancy
- both present with PV bleeding

Ruptured ovarian corpus luteum cyst
Ovarian torsion
Fibroid degeneration

33
Q

How do you differentiate an ectopic pregnancy from a miscarriage?
Similarities: [2]
Differences [4]

A

Ectopic pregnancy:
* Similarities: vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain
* Differences: pain is usually unilateral, more severe, and before bleeding presents. The bleeding in an ectopic pregnancy also tends to be darker and less heavy. There is also cervical excitation in ectopic pregnancy.

34
Q

How do you differentiate an molar pregnancy from a miscarriage?
Similarities: [2]
Differences [4]

A

Similarities:
* vaginal bleeding
* abdominal pain.

Differences:
- heavy and prolonged bleeding with clots
- ± brown watery vaginal discharge.
- The uterus is large for its gestational dates.
- There are exaggerated symptoms of pregnancy such as extreme morning sickness.

35
Q

There are three key features that the sonographer looks for in an early pregnancy. What are they? [3]

A

There are three key features that the sonographer looks for in an early pregnancy:
* Mean gestational sac diameter
* Fetal pole and crown-rump length
* Fetal heartbeat

36
Q

When would you repeat a scan with regards to the following on TVUS: [3]
Mean gestational sac diameter
Fetal pole and crown-rump length
Fetal heartbeat

A
  • When the crown-rump length is less than 7mm, without a fetal heartbeat, the scan is repeated after at least one week to ensure a heartbeat develops.
  • When there is a crown-rump length of 7mm or more, without a fetal heartbeat, the scan is repeated after one week before confirming a non-viable pregnancy.
  • A fetal pole is expected once the mean gestational sac diameter is 25mm or more. When there is a mean gestational sac diameter of 25mm or more, without a fetal pole, the scan is repeated after one week before confirming an anembryonic pregnancy.
37
Q

Describe the management of a miscarriage if its a < 6 weeks gestation [3]

A

Less Than 6 Weeks Gestation:
- Women with a pregnancy less than 6 weeks’ gestation presenting with bleeding can be managed expectantly provided they have no pain and no other complications or risk factors (e.g. previous ectopic)
- involves awaiting the miscarriage without investigations or treatment
- A repeat urine pregnancy test is performed after 7 – 10 days, and if negative, a miscarriage can be confirmed

NB: An ultrasound is unlikely to be helpful this early as the pregnancy will be too small to be seen.

38
Q

In which scenerios are miscarriages medically or surgically managed? [3]

A

increased risk of haemorrhage
* she is in the late first trimester
* if she has coagulopathies or is unable to have a blood transfusion

previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy (for example, stillbirth, miscarriage or antepartum haemorrhage)

evidence of infection

39
Q

Describe the management of a missed miscarriage [2]

A

1. oral mifepristone
2. 48 hours later: misoprostol (unless the gestational sac has already been passed)
3. if bleeding has not started within 48 hours after misoprostol treatment, they should contact their healthcare professional

40
Q

Describe the medical management of incomplete miscarriage [2]

A

a single dose of misoprostol (vaginal, oral or sublingual)
women should be offered antiemetics and pain relief

41
Q

Describe the medical management of a threatened miscarriage [4]

A
  • If patient stable: observe symptoms
  • In women with a previous miscarriage, use of vaginal
    micronized progesterone
    (400mg twice daily) NICE
    2021
  • Advise to return if symptoms worsen or do not settle after 14 days
  • Analgesia, written information, contact details and safety netting advice should be given
42
Q

Describe the surgical managment that can be offered for miscarriages [2]

A

Manual vacuum aspiration under local anaesthetic as an outpatient:
- A tube attached to a specially designed syringe is inserted through the cervix into the uterus.
- manually uses the syringe to aspirate contents of the uterus

Electric vacuum aspiration under general anaesthetic:
- performed through the vagina and cervix without any incisions
- The cervix is gradually widened using dilators, and the products of conception are removed through the cervix using an electric-powered vacuum.

43
Q

Which drug is given prior to surgical treatment of miscarriage? [1] Why? [1]

A

Prostaglandins (misoprostol) are given before surgical management to soften the cervix.

44
Q

When is manual vacuum aspiration not indicated? [1]

A

After 10 weeks gestation

45
Q

What is the definition of recurrent miscarriage? [1]

A

Recurrent miscarriage is defined as 3 or more consecutive spontaneous abortions. It occurs in around 1% of women

46
Q

Name 5 causes of recurrent miscarriages [5]

A
  • antiphospholipid syndrome
  • endocrine disorders: poorly controlled diabetes mellitus/thyroid disorders. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
  • uterine abnormality: e.g. uterine septum
  • parental chromosomal abnormalities
  • smoking
47
Q

Which inheritied thrombophilias should you remember that could cause recurrent miscarriages? [3]

A

Factor V Leiden (most common)
Factor II (prothrombin) gene mutation
Protein S deficiency

48
Q

Describe the different uterine miscarriages that could cause recurrent miscarriages [6]

A

Uterine septum (a partition through the uterus)
Unicornuate uterus (single-horned uterus)
Bicornuate uterus (heart-shaped uterus)
Didelphic uterus (double uterus)
Cervical insufficiency
Fibroids

49
Q

Describe what is meant by Chronic Histiocytic Intervillositis [1]

A

Chronic histiocytic intervillositis is a rare cause of recurrent miscarriage, particularly in the second trimester. It can also lead to intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) and intrauterine death.

Histiocytes and macrophages build up in the placenta, causing inflammation and adverse outcomes. It is diagnosed by placental histology showing infiltrates of mononuclear cells in the intervillous spaces.