OB-GYN Revision 10 Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

A routine care appointment is offered when after birth? [1]
What is check during this appointment? [4]

A

Six weeks post natal check by GP to check how mother is doing - at same time as 6 week newborn baby check
* General wellbeing
* Mood and depression
* Bleeding and menstruation
* Scar healing after episiotomy or caesarean
* Contraception
* Breastfeeding
* Fasting blood glucose (after gestational diabetes)
* Blood pressure (after hypertension or pre-eclampsia)
* Urine dipstick for protein (after pre-eclampsia)

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3
Q

Describe what is meant by a lochia [1]
How long does it last? [1]
What should be avoided during this time? [1]
What indicates pathology? [1]

A

a mix of blood, endometrial tissue and mucus post birth
- initially dark red colour that turns brown and quite heavy
- settles within 6 weeks
- avoid tampons as they have risk of infection
- blood clots indicates pathology

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4
Q

How does breastfeeding interact with menstruation after delivery? [2]

A

Breastfeeding releases oxytocin, which can cause the uterus contract, leading to slightly more bleeding during episodes of breastfeeding. This is normal.

Women who are breastfeeding may not have a return to regular menstrual periods for six months or longer (unless they stop breastfeeding). The absence of periods related to breastfeeding is called lactational amenorrhoea.

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5
Q

When does fertility return after giving birth? [1]

A

Fertility is not considered to return until 21 days after giving birth, and contraception is not required up to this point

After 21 days women are considered fertile, and will need contraception (including condoms for seven days when starting the combined pill or two days for progestogen-only contraception).

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6
Q

Which methods of contraception are safe for breastfeeding? [3]

When can you put in the copper or IUS coils after birth? [2]

A

The progestogen-only pill and implant are considered safe in breastfeeding and can be started at any time after birth.

The combined contraceptive pill should be avoided in breastfeeding (UKMEC 4 before six weeks postpartum, UKMEC 2 after six weeks).

A copper coil or intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) can be inserted either within 48 hours of birth or more than four weeks after birth (UKMEC 1), but not inserted between 48 hours and four weeks of delivery (UKMEC 3).

TOM TIP: Remember that the combined pill should not be started before six weeks after childbirth in women that are breastfeeding. The progesterone-only pill or implant can be started any time after birth.

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7
Q

Describe the presentation of post-partum endometritis [4]

A
  • Foul-smelling discharge or lochia
  • Bleeding that gets heavier or does not improve with time
  • Lower abdominal or pelvic pain
  • Fever
  • Sepsis
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8
Q

How do you dx post-partum endometritis? [2]

A
  • Vaginal swabs (including chlamydia and gonorrhoea if there are risk factors)
  • Urine culture and sensitivities
  • Ultrasound may be considered to rule out retained products of conception (although it is not used to diagnose endometritis).
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9
Q

A patient wants to start contraception after birth - what advise what you give them?

A

postpartum women (breastfeeding and non-breastfeeding) can start the POP at any time postpartum.’
- after day 21 additional contraception should be used for the first 2 days

Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)
* absolutely contraindicated - UKMEC 4 - if breastfeeding < 6 weeks post-partum
* UKMEC 2 - if breastfeeding 6 weeks - 6 months postpartum
* the COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers
* after day 21 additional contraception should be used for the first 7 days

The intrauterine device or intrauterine system
- can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks.

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10
Q

name a significant risk factor for retained products of conception [1]

Describe the presentation of RPOC [4]

A

Placenta accreta is a significant risk factor for retained products of conception.

Presentation
- Retained products of conception may be present in patients without any suggestive symptoms. It may present with:
* Vaginal bleeding that gets heavier or does not improve with time
* Abnormal vaginal discharge
* Lower abdominal or pelvic pain
* Fever (if infection occurs)

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11
Q

How do you dx retained products of conception? [1]

How do you manage? [2]

A

Investigation:
* Ultrasound is the investigation of choice for confirming the diagnosis.

Management:
Evacuation of retained products of conception (ERPC) - surgery under general anaethestic. The cervix is gradually widened using dilators, and the retained products are manually removed through the cervix using vacuum aspiration and curettage (scraping). The procedure may be referred to as “dilatation and curettage

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12
Q

What are two key complications of ERPC? [2]

A

Endometritis
Asherman’s syndrome
- where adhesions (sometimes called synechiae) form within the uterus. Endometrial curettage (scraping) can damage the basal layer of the endometrium. This damaged tissue may heal abnormally, creating scar tissue (adhesions) connecting areas. There may be adhesions binding the uterine walls together, or within the endocervix, sealing it shut. This can lead to infertility.

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13
Q

Postpartum anaemia is defined as a haemoglobin of less than [] g/l in the postpartum period. Anaemia is common after delivery due to acute blood loss.

A

Postpartum anaemia is defined as a haemoglobin of less than 100 g/l in the postpartum period. Anaemia is common after delivery due to acute blood loss.

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14
Q

Treatment of anaemia is based on individual factors and preferences alongside local guidelines. As a rough guide (local policies will vary):

Hb under 100 g/l – [1]
Hb under 90 g/l – [1]
Hb under 70 g/l – [1]

A

Treatment of anaemia is based on individual factors and preferences alongside local guidelines. As a rough guide (local policies will vary):

Hb under 100 g/l – start oral iron (e.g. ferrous sulfate)

Hb under 90 g/lconsider an iron infusion in addition to oral iron (e.g. Monofer, CosmoFer or Ferinject)

Hb under 70 g/lblood transfusion in addition to oral iron

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15
Q

What do you have to check before giving an iron infusion? [1]

A

TOM TIP: It is worth noting that active infection is a contraindication to an iron infusion. Many pathogens “feed” on iron, meaning that intravenous iron can lead to proliferation of the pathogen and worsening infection. It is important to wait until the infection is treated before giving an iron infusion.

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16
Q

Describe why baby blues may occur [6]

A

Baby blues may be the result of a combination of:
* Significant hormonal changes
* Recovery from birth
* Fatigue and sleep deprivation
* The responsibility of caring for the neonate
* Establishing feeding
* All the other changes and events around this time

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17
Q

Which scale / questionnare can be used to screen for post-natal depression? [1]
What score would indicate a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’?

A

The Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale may be used to screen for depression:
- score > 13 [max 30] indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity

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18
Q

When is post-natal depression most likely to occur [1] and peak? [1]

How do you treat? [1]

A

Most cases start within a month and typically peaks at 3 months

Management:
- reassurance and support are important
- Cognitive behavioural therapy
- SSRIs: sertraline and paroxetine

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19
Q

When is puerperal pyschosis most likely to occur? [1]

A

Onset usually within the first 2-3 weeks following birth

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20
Q

Describe the features of puerperal pyschosis? [6]

A
  • Delusions
  • Hallucinations
  • Depression
  • Mania
  • Confusion
  • Thought disorder
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21
Q

How do you treat puerperal psychosis? [4]

A
  • Admission to the mother and baby unit
  • Cognitive behavioural therapy
  • Medications (antidepressants, antipsychotics or mood stabilisers)
  • Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
22
Q

What is the risk of giving SSRI antidepressants throughout pregnancy? [1]

How does this present? [2]

A

SSRI antidepressants taken during pregnancy can lead to neonatal abstinence syndrome (also known as neonatal adaptation syndrome).

It presents in the first few days after birth with symptoms such as irritability and poor feeding. Neonates are monitored for this after delivery. Supportive management is usually all that is required.

23
Q

What are the benefits of breastfeeding to the infant [3] and mother [2]

A

To the infant:
* Antibodies and protection against infection
* Reduced atopic eczema and asthma
* Reduced rates of obesity later in childhood

To the mother:
* Reduced risk of diabetes mellitus and heart disease
* Protective against breast and ovarian cancer

24
Q

Describe the managment of mastitis [3]

A
  • Manage conservative management as for breast engorgement
  • Breastfeeding should be encouraged
  • Oral antibiotics can be used for symptoms not improving after 12-24 hours or if breast milk culture is positive - First line is flucoxacillin
  • Fluconazole may be used for suspected candidal infections.
25
Q

When is candidal infection of the nipple most likely to occur? [1]

What is there a risk of if this occurs? [1]

A

often after a course of antibiotics - lead to recurrent mastitis, as it causes cracked skin on the nipple that create an entrance for infection

26
Q

How do you treat candida of the nipple:
- Baby [1]
- Mother [1]

A

Both the mother and baby need treatment, or it will reoccur. Treatment is with:

  • Topical miconazole 2% after each breastfeed
  • Treatment for the baby (e.g. miconazole gel or nystatin)
27
Q

Which systemic condition might cause low milk supply? [1]

A

Hypothyroidism

28
Q

Which abx are cautioned for breastfeeding? [+]

A

Antibiotics which are cautioned or contra-indicated include:
- ciprofloxacin (potential joint problems)
- nitrofurantoin (G6PD deficiency)
- teicoplanin, clindamycin (antibiotic-associated colitis)
- co-trimoxazole.

29
Q

Describe what is meant by post-partum thyroiditis? [1]
- What are the three stages? [3]

A

Postpartum thyroiditis is a condition where there are changes in thyroid function within 12 months of delivery, affecting women without a history of thyroid disease. It can involve thyrotoxicosis (hyperthyroidism), hypothyroidism, or both.
Stages include:
* Thyrotoxicosis (usually in the first three months)
* Hypothyroid (usually from 3 – 6 months)
* Thyroid function gradually returns to normal (usually within one year)

30
Q

What is the management for post-partum thyroiditis? [2]

A

Thyrotoxicosis:
- symptomatic control, such as propranolol (a non-selective beta-blocker)

Hypothyroidism:
- levothyroxine

31
Q

When would you suspect Sheehans syndrome? [3]

A

Those who just gave birth and:
- failure to lactate (earliest sign) &
- absent menstruation
- features of hypopituitarism: hypothyroidism and cortisol deficiency
- Loss of hair

32
Q

Lecture:

Describe the presentation of post-partum depression [5]

A

Presentation
* anxiety
* low mood
* suicidal ideation
* poor sleep
* poor bonding

33
Q

Lecture

Name two risks that increase risk of post-partum pyschosis [2]

A
  • ↑risk: bipolar disorder, Hx of postpartum psychosis (note risk of relapse)
34
Q

Lecture:

Describe the onset of post partum psychosis [2]

A

Severe episodes have a rapid onset
Immediate post partum period has the highesr risk

35
Q

Lecture

What are red flag symptoms for post partum psychosis [3]

What else sh

A

Recent significant change in mental state

New thoughts of self harm

New and persistent expression of incompetency or estrangement from infant

36
Q

Lecture

What are two risks of SSRI use in pregnancy [2]

A

neonatal adaptation syndrome
persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn

37
Q

Lecture

How much does drug go into breastmilk? [1]

A
  • All medications pass into breastmilk (to a varying degree)
38
Q

Lecture

Which drugs would contraindicated breasfeeding [3]

A
  • NO breastfeeding with Lithium or Clozapine or benzodiazepines
39
Q

What is the mx of anaemia in pregnancy? [1]

A

oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate
* treatment should be continued for 3 months after iron deficiency is corrected to allow iron stores to be replenished

40
Q

Urinary tract infections in pregnant women increase the risk of []. They may also increase the risk of other adverse pregnancy outcomes, such as [2]

A

Urinary tract infections in pregnant women increase the risk of preterm delivery. They may also increase the risk of other adverse pregnancy outcomes, such as low birth weight and pre-eclampsia.

41
Q

With regards to UTIs, what are pregnant women screened for at a booking clinic [and why] [3]

A

Asymptomatic Bacteriuria:
- Asymptomatic bacteriuria refers to bacteria present in the urine, without symptoms of infection.
- at higher risk of developing lower urinary tract infections and pyelonephritis, and subsequently at risk of preterm birth.
- Pregnant women are tested for asymptomatic bacteriuria at booking and routinely throughout pregnancy.

42
Q

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is rare complication which may occur in the [] or the period []

A

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is rare complication which may occur in the third trimester or the period immediately following delivery.

43
Q

What are the features, invetigations and management of acute fatty liver of pregnancy?

A

Features
* abdominal pain
* nausea & vomiting
* headache
* jaundice
* hypoglycaemia
* severe disease may result in pre-eclampsia
* ascties

Investigations
* ALT is typically elevated e.g. 500 u/l

44
Q

Why does acute fatty live of pregnancy occur? [2]

A

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy results from impaired processing of fatty acids in the placenta

The most common cause is long-chain 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD) deficiency in the fetus, which is an autosomal recessive condition.

Th LCHAD enzyme is important in **fatty acid oxidation, **breaking down fatty acids to be used as fuel. The fetus and placenta are unable to break down fatty acids. These fatty acids enter the maternal circulation, and accumulate in the liver.

45
Q

What is the management of acute fatty liver of pregnancy? [2]

A

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is an obstetric emergency and requires prompt admission and delivery of the baby. Most patients will recover after delivery.

Management also involves treatment of acute liver failure if it occurs, including consideration of liver transplant.

46
Q

What is the basic pathophysiology of rhesus negative pregnacies & haemolytic disease of newborn [+]

A

Women that are rhesus-D positive do not need any additional treatment during pregnancy.

When a woman that is rhesus-D negative becomes pregnant, we have to consider the possibility that her child will be rhesus positive
- he baby’s red blood cells display the rhesus-D antigen & The mother’s immune system will recognise this rhesus-D antigen as foreign and produce antibodies to the rhesus-D antigen
- The mother has then become sensitised to rhesus-D antigens.

During subsequent pregnancies:
- the mother’s anti-rhesus-D antibodies can cross the placenta into the fetus.
- If that fetus is rhesus-D positive, these antibodies attach themselves to the red blood cells of the fetus and causes the immune system of the fetus to attack them, causing the destruction of the red blood cells (haemolysis).
- The red blood cell destruction caused by antibodies from the mother is called haemolytic disease of the newborn.

The name rhesus refers to various types of rhesus antigens on the surface of red blood cells.

47
Q

Describe how you prevent sensitisation of rh

A

intramuscular anti-D injections to rhesus-D negative women.

The anti-D medication works by attaching itself to the rhesus-D antigens on the fetal red blood cells in the mothers circulation, causing them to be destroyed

This prevents the mother’s immune system recognising the antigen and creating it’s own antibodies to the antigen. It acts as a prevention for the mother becoming sensitised to the rhesus-D antigen.

48
Q

Anti-D injections are given routinely on which two occasions? [2]

A

28 weeks gestation

Birth (if the baby’s blood group is found to be rhesus-positive)

49
Q

Anti-D injections should also be given at any time where sensitisation may occur, such as: [3]

A

Antepartum haemorrhage
Amniocentesis procedures
Abdominal trauma

50
Q

Anti-D is given within 72 hours of a sensitisation event. After 20 weeks gestation, the [] test is performed to see how much fetal blood has passed into the mother’s blood, to determine whether further doses of anti-D are required.

A

Anti-D is given within 72 hours of a sensitisation event. After 20 weeks gestation, the Kleinhauer test is performed to see how much fetal blood has passed into the mother’s blood, to determine whether further doses of anti-D are required.

The Kleihauer test involves adding acid to a sample of the mother’s blood. Fetal haemoglobin is naturally more resistant to acid, so that they are protected against the acidosis that occurs around childbirth. Therefore, fetal haemoglobin persists in response to the added acid, while the mothers haemoglobin is destroyed. The number of cells still containing haemoglobin (the remaining fetal cells) can then be calculated.