Extras from Lectures Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

Lecture notes

It causes up to 21% of all congenital hearing loss at birth and 10% of all cases of cerebral palsy

Refers to

CMV
VZV
Rubella
Parvovirus
Toxoplasmosis

A

Lecture notes

It causes up to 21% of all congenital hearing loss at birth and 10% of all cases of cerebral palsy

Refers to

CMV
VZV
Rubella
Parvovirus
Toxoplasmosis

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3
Q

Lecture

When is the greatest risk of transmission of CMV in pregnancy? [1]

When is the greatest risk of severe fetal infection? [1]

A

The risk of congenital infection appears to vary according to the point in gestation at which primary infection occurs, increasing from around 30% in the first trimester to 47% in the third trimester.

While the risk of viral transmission is lower in early pregnancy, the proportion of cases with a prenatal diagnosis of severe fetal infection is higher when infection occurs in the first compared with the third trimester of pregnancy.

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4
Q

Which of the following best describes CMV in pregnancy

  • Infection is most likely in first trimester; biggest risk to baby in first trimester
  • Infection is most likely in first trimester; biggest risk to baby in third trimester
  • Infection is most likely in third trimester; biggest risk to baby in third trimester
  • Infection is most likely in third trimester; biggest risk to baby in first trimester
A
  • Infection is most likely in third trimester; biggest risk to baby in first trimester
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5
Q

Describe how you dx CMV in pregnancy [2]

A

The diagnosis of primary CMV infection in pregnancy can be made following either:
the appearance of CMV-specific IgG in a woman who was previously seronegative; or
detection of CMV IgM antibody and low IgG avidity

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6
Q

Lecture:

The main sequelae of congenital toxoplasma infection involve the CNS and eyes, and typically include [4]

A

The main sequelae of congenital toxoplasma infection involve the CNS and eyes, and typically include microcephaly, hydrocephalus, ventriculomegaly and chorioretinitis. These may lead to developmental delay, epilepsy and blindness.

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7
Q

How do you treat TG infection:
- to prevent vertical transmission after maternal infection [1]
- If vertical transmission is confirmed [4]

A

Spiramycin (until the end of the pregnancy, in the absence of confirmed vertical transmission) should be used to prevent vertical transmission after maternal toxoplasma infection during pregnancy

If vertical transmission is confirmed:
- fetal infection should be treated by spiramycin only for 1 week, followed by pyrimethamine plus sulfadiazine plus folinic acid throughout the pregnancy and the infant treated for 1further year.

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8
Q

Parvovirus

Fetal anaemia and fetal hydrops both visible on ultrasound. Anaemia can be assessed measuring at the how exactly? [1]

A

Fetal anaemia and fetal hydrops both visible on ultrasound. Anaemia can be assessed measuring at the Peak Systolic on Middle Cerebral artery (raised MCA-PSV).

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9
Q

Describe how herpes simplex can impact new born? [3]

A

Can cause localised to skin, eye and/or mouth lesionsor local central nervous system (CNS) disease (encephalitis)

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10
Q

How do you treat HSV infection in pregnancy? [2]

A

Treatment should not be delayed. Management of the woman should be in line with her clinical condition and will usually involve the use of oral (or intravenous for disseminated HSV) aciclovir in standard doses (400 mg three times daily, usually for 5 days). In the third trimester, treatment will usually continue with daily suppressive aciclovir 400 mg three times daily until delivery.

Caesarean section should be the recommended mode of delivery for all women developing first episode genital herpes in the third trimester, particularly those developing symptoms within 6 weeks of expected delivery, as the risk of neonatal transmission of HSV is very high at 41%

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11
Q

Describe how you would deliver a patient with polyhydramnios:
- moderate [1]
- severe [1]
- what would do for baby afterwards birth [1]

A

Delivery:
* Risk of malpresentation / cord prolapse/ pre term labour
* Aim delivery around 37 weeks for severe polyhydramnios
* 38-40 weeks for moderate polyhydramnios
* Nasogastric tube postnatally to ensure there is no blockage in oesophgus/ tracheoesophageal fistula

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12
Q

Women with a haemoglobinopathy will be managed jointly with a specialist haematologist.

They require high dose [drug, dose] close monitoring and transfusions when required.

A

Women with a haemoglobinopathy will be managed jointly with a specialist haematologist. They require high dose folic acid (5mg), close monitoring and transfusions when required.

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13
Q

Name two risks of IDA post-partum [2]

A

post-partum depression
risk of PPH: 60% if Hb < 8 5

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14
Q

Lecture:

How do determine if the baby is small because the placenta is not formed properly?

A

Check history and consider all risk factors for placental dysfunction
+
measure serum PAPP-A at 11-14 weeks: if < 0.4 placenta may not have formed properly
+
Doppler studies

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15
Q

Name 5 risk factors for baby being small because placenta hasn’t formed properly [5]

A
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16
Q

Describe the different dopplers you can do to determine if baby is small

A

Fetal investigations:
- Umbilical artery Dopplers
(UAD)

Maternal investigations:
- Uterine artery dopplers

Risk of fetal demise:
- ductus venosus

Fetal oxygenation:
- MCA

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17
Q

Describe the fetal response to hypoxia [3]

A
  • Reduced PO 2
  • Reduced glucose supply
  • Reduced amino acid supply
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18
Q

Describe the the process of hypoxia causing stillbirth [4]

Describe how this would be detected on dopplers [4]

A

Hypoxia –> acidemia –> CNS damage –> stillbirth:

  • Placental dysfunction would be indicated by abnormal uterine artery dopplers (UtA)
  • Leads to abnormal umbilical artery
  • Leads to brain sparing effect - causing an abnormal MCA Doppler
  • Leads to reduced cardiac compliance and abnormal venous doppler
  • Leads to fetal movements reduced and abnormal cCTG.
  • Leads to still birth
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19
Q

Lecture

Difference between LGA and macrosomia? [1]

A

LGA= EFW>90th centile or EFW>4000g

Macrosomia= EFW>4.500g

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20
Q

Lecture

Name a genetic syndrome which might cause LGA/macrosomia [1]
What is the triad seen with it? [3]

A

Beckwith Wiedemann – macroglossia, exomphalos, organomegaly

NB: comes up a couple of times in lecture

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21
Q

Name two maternal factors that might cause LGA/macrosomia? [2]

A

GENETIC / SOCIAL
* Parental height
* Malnutrition
* High BMI
* Maternal
depression

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22
Q

There are several risk factors that increase the chances of a female developing fibroids.

Name 4 [4]

A

Early age of puberty
Increasing age
Obesity
Ethnicity (e.g. black females)

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23
Q

Describe the different types of myomectomy [3] as if to a patient

A

Abdominal Myomectomy
* In an abdominal myomectomy, an incision is made in the abdomen (which may be around 12 cm or less).
* This enables the doctor to reach the uterus so that the uterine fibroids can be removed from the wall of the womb (intramural) and the outer layer of the womb (subserous).
* Once the fibroids have been removed the uterus and abdomen are stitched up. You will be given a general anaesthetic for this procedure. You can expect to stay in hospital for 3-4 days.

Laparoscopic Myomectomy
* We can sometimes remove smaller fibroids using keyhole instruments passed through tiny cuts in your abdomen.
* This is called a laparoscopic myomectomy or laparoscopic resection.
* A laparoscope (a narrow tube with a fibre optic light) is inserted into the womb through a tiny cut in the abdomen.
* Other small cuts are made in the same area to insert instruments that can dissect and remove the fibroids. You will be given a general anaesthetic for this procedure. You can expect to stay in hospital for 1-2 days.

Hysteroscopic Myomectomy
* A hysteroscopic myomectomy (or hysteroscopic resection) is where a small hysteroscope is inserted through the vagina and the cervix, so that one or more fibroids can be removed.
* This procedure can only be done where there are small fibroids which are just underneath the uterine lining (submucous fibroids).
* You will be given a local or general anaesthetic and will probably be able to go home the same day.

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24
Q

Lecture

With regards to menorrhagia - how heavy is too heavy? [6]

A
  • Flooding
  • Clots - especially larger than 50p coin
  • Changing pads 1-2hourly
  • Double super pad and tampon
  • Expelling tampons/coils
  • Quality of life
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25
Q

Lecture

A patient wants to undertake uterine artery embolisation as their mangement.

What imaging would you use prior to this? [1]

A

MRI - fibroid mapping, suitability for Uterine Artery Embolisation

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26
Q

Lecture

What advise do you give post-myomectomy about getting pregnant? [1]

A

After myomectomy, usually advise avoiding pregnancy for 6 - 18 months

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27
Q

Describe the risk of fibroids in pregnancy:
during pregnancy [5]
during delivery [2]

A

During Pregnancy
* Increased rates of miscarriage and PTB
* Difficult to measure - growth scans
* Degeneration pain
* Malposition
* Growth restriction

Delivery and Post Partum
* If fibroid below presenting part of head, baby may not come vaginally
* Can make CS very difficult
* Risk of Post Partum Haemorrhage

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28
Q

What information do you need to give about fibroids and HRT [1]

A

In some women, HRT may moderately increase size of fibroids, which in turn may cause symptoms. Need to check fibroid symptoms at each clinical review, and refer where necessary

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29
Q

For a 30-year-old female, what is the most appropriate action if the latest smear shows sample is hrHPV +ve + cytologically normal? [1]

A

Repeat in 12 months

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30
Q

For a 30-year-old female, what is the most appropriate action if the latest smear shows sample is hrHPV +ve + cytologically abnormal?

A

Refer for colposcopy

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31
Q

Which instances would you Refer for colposcopy? [3]

A
  • 2nd repeat smear at 24 months is still hrHPV +ve (all recent smears cytologically normal)
  • sample is hrHPV +ve + cytologically abnormal
  • two consecutive inadequate samples then
32
Q

In which instances would you test again at 12 months? [1]

A
33
Q

Incidence of recurren is 80% in 2 years for cervical cancer.

Where is most likey to reoccur? [3]

A

Vaginal cuff, pelvis, lymph nodes (paraaortic, supraclavicular), lungs

34
Q

Describe how you would treat cervical cancer in patients who have a recurrence, but who were initially been treated via:
- surgery [1]
- radiotherapy [1]

A

Pts previously treated with surgery: give Radiotherapy

Pts previously treated with radiotherapy – Pelvic exenteration for central pelvic recurrence - Removal, vagina, cervix and uterus
* Plus bladder - anterior exenteration
* Plus rectum - posterior exenteration
* Plus bladder and rectum - total exenteration

35
Q

Describe fertility sparing surgery used for cervical cancer

A

Radical Trachelectomy:
- removal of the cervix, the upper vagina and pelvic lymph nodes

For early stages only

36
Q

This scan was for an anomaly scan.

What sign can be seen? [1]

What pathology does this indicate? [1]

A

Lemon sign - spina bifida

37
Q

This scan was for an anomaly scan.

What sign can be seen? [1]

What pathology does this indicate? [1]

A

Banana sign - spina bifida
- banana sign describes the way the cerebellum is wrapped tightly around the brainstem as a result of spinal cord tethering and downward migration of the posterior fossa contents

38
Q

What is the difference between anencephaly and acrania? [1]

A
39
Q

What anomaly is seen in this US scan? [1]

A
40
Q

An anamoly scan is given and they detect holoprosencephaly.

What is this? [1]

A

Holoprosencephaly:
- birth defect (congenital condition) that causes the fetal brain to not properly separate into the right and left hemispheres (halves).

41
Q

What anomaly is seen in this US scan? [1]

A

Talipes
- Talipes, commonly known as clubfoot, is a congenital deformity of the foot and ankle where the foot is twisted out of its normal position. This condition can vary in severity and may affect one or both feet.

42
Q

Lecture

Which anomolies can be detected on the anomaly scan? [+]

A

Spina bifida
Anencephaly
Hydrocephalous
Major heart problems
Exomphalos/g astrochisis
Major kidney problem
Major limb
Abnormalities

43
Q

Lecture

Which soft markers on US at anomaly scan would indicate a baby has Down’s Syndrome? [5]

A
  • Ventriculomegaly
  • Choroid plexus cyst
  • Hyperecogenic bowel - Echogenic foci in heart ‘golf ball’
  • Bilat RPD
  • Sandal gap (large gap between the big toe and the second toe)
  • Polydactyly
44
Q

Lecture:

Describe the presentation of post-partum depression [5]

A

Presentation
* anxiety
* low mood
* suicidal ideation
* poor sleep
* poor bonding

45
Q

Lecture

Name two risks that increase risk of post-partum pyschosis [2]

A
  • ↑risk: bipolar disorder, Hx of postpartum psychosis (note risk of relapse)
46
Q

Lecture:

Describe the onset of post partum psychosis [2]

A

Severe episodes have a rapid onset
Immediate post partum period has the highesr risk

47
Q

Lecture

What are red flag symptoms for post partum psychosis [3]

What else sh

A

Recent significant change in mental state

New thoughts of self harm

New and persistent expression of incompetency or estrangement from infant

48
Q

Lecture

What are two risks of SSRI use in pregnancy [2]

A

neonatal adaptation syndrome
persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn

49
Q

Lecture

How much does drug go into breastmilk? [1]

A
  • All medications pass into breastmilk (to a varying degree)
50
Q

Lecture

Which drugs would contraindicated breasfeeding [3]

A
  • NO breastfeeding with Lithium or Clozapine or benzodiazepines
51
Q

What does this image show? [1]

A

TVS of uterus – thickened endometrium

52
Q

Which are the most common type of endometrial cancer? [1]

A

Adenocarcinomas:
- more than 75% are endometrioid
- also clear cell, uterine serous carcinomas

53
Q

An endometrial cancer is dx as being a sarcoma.

What is the most common type? [1]

A

Leiomyosarcoma
Endometrial stromal sarcoma, low grade or high grade
Undifferentiated sarcoma

54
Q

What is important to note about carcinosarcoma endometrial cancers? [1]

A

carcinosarcoma are aggressive tumours with a poor prognosis
- they are adenocarcinoma but behave like both types of cancer (adeno and sarcoma)

55
Q

Endometrial cancers are classified according to TCGA (The Cancer Genome Atlas) classification.

Which mutations determine this? [2]

A

TP53 and POLE (polymerase epsilon) mutation

56
Q

The following are all types of endometrial carcinoma based off molecular stratification.

Which of the following is aggressive and will require adjuvant treatment?

MMR abnormal
POLE mutant
P53 wild type
P53 mutant

A

The following are all types of endometrial carcinoma based off molecular stratification.

Which of the following is aggressive and will require adjuvant treatment?

MMR abnormal
POLE mutant
P53 wild type
P53 mutant

57
Q

The following are all types of endometrial carcinoma based off molecular stratification.

Which of the following is associated with Lynch syndrome?

MMR abnormal
POLE mutant
P53 wild type
P53 mutant

A

The following are all types of endometrial carcinoma based off molecular stratification.

Which of the following is associated with Lynch syndrome?

MMR abnormal
POLE mutant
P53 wild type
P53 mutant

58
Q

Radiotherapy is an adjuvant treatment for endometrial cancer.

Which stages are indicated for it? [2]
What are the modalities? [3]

A

Radiotherapy:
- improves local control but not survival

Indications
* ?stage 1b grade 3
* Stage II-III

Modalities:
* Brachytherapy
* External beam pelvic RT
* Extended field

59
Q

Where is the most common place for endometrial cancer to occur? [1]

How do you treat? [+]

A

Vault

60
Q

Lecture:

Describe the bimodal development of vulval cancers and how this is clinically significant [+]

Important to note - he said in lecture

A

Bimodal developmental pathway: HPV dependent and HPV independent

HPV dependent:
- younger age group and radiosensitive, better prognosis
- HPV dependent associated with anal, vaginal and cervical tumours
- Associated with VIN

HPV Independent
- Older women; from lichen sclerosus
- Worse prognosis

61
Q

Why would you do an abdominal exam if ?endometriosis? [1]

A

ID abdominal wall endometriosis and assess for signs of peritonism

62
Q

You suspect endometriosis in a patient.

What examinations would you perform? [+]

A

Abdominal exam:
- ID abdominal wall endometriosis and assess for signs of peritonism

Pelvic exam: speculum and bimanual
- ID areas of tissue present: in cervix or rectovaginal space
- Bimanual exam will ellicit tenderness

Small nodule of endometriosis tissue
63
Q

What does this image show? [1]

A

Umbilical endometrial lesion

64
Q

If deep endometriosis is suspected - what is often the first line Ix? [1]

A

Pelvic MRI

65
Q

What is important to note about laparoscopic investigations for endometriosis? [1]

A

50% don’t reveal anything and can lead to dissapointment for women

66
Q

Describe what this image shows? [1]

A

Endometriosis typica: - superficial endometriosis
- blue, black or red lesions often clustered together
- fibrotic tissue which has formed small nodule on peritoneum. can be palpated with surgical instruments

67
Q

Describe what this image shows? [1]

A

Superficial endometriosis with fibrosis of nodule at base - caused involution of tissue and caused peritoneal pocket called Alan masters pouch

68
Q

Describe what this image shows? [1]

A

Superficial endometriosis
- Tannin deposit caused by endometriosis

NB: looks like a cigarette burn

69
Q
A

Deep endometriosis on the bowel

70
Q

How does the endometriosis lecturer describe how to take COCP? [1]

A

I tend to recommend ‘flexible extended use’, where the woman takes the pill continuously until she experiences bleeding. She can then stop the pill for 4 days to have a short period and then restart continuously again. This limits the length of period and the number of periods per year and gives greater control.

71
Q

Describe what is meant by Dienogest? [+]
- Main side effect [1]
- Other advise [1]

A

Recently licenced POP in the UK after a long delay – only for women with endometriosis
AKA Zalkya®/Visanne®
Less androgenic than other progestogens - so less side effects
Main side effect is vaginal spotting
Manufacturer advises additional contraception

72
Q

What are the main benefits of Dienogest? [3]

A

Less androgenic than other progestogens - so less side effects

Particularly useful for:
- Volume reduction of endometriomas
- Reduction of size of deep endometriotic nodule

73
Q

GnRH agonists can be used for endometriosis.

What might you give alongside this [2]
What management would you also need to do

A

Give HRT as induces menopausal like state
Encourage excersise and good diet
Give bisphosphinates as GnRH analogues can cause osteoporosis
- Start DEXA scan at time of treatment and repeat after two years

74
Q

Where should patients with deep endometriosis be treated? [1]

A

Tertiary endometriosis centres

75
Q

What advise would you give about endometriosis and subfertility to a patient? [4]

A

Most women with endometriosis will conceive spontaneously, however, endometriosis is a leading cause of subfertility
Laparoscopic treatment of SPE improves spontaneous fertility rates
Laparoscopic treatment of DPE is more controversial and MDT input is advisable
Ovarian endometriomas result in reduced monthly fecundity rates