Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

► Med Misc 06 > OB/GYN II > Flashcards

OB/GYN II Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three developmental stages of teratology

A
  1. Resistant period
    • Day 0-11
    • killed by the insult or survive unaffected
  2. Maximum susceptibility
    • day 11-57
  3. Lower Susceptibility
    • After 57 days
    • Growth retardation
    • Reduction in organ size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the categories of structural defects and what is the associated time period that they occur

A
  1. Malformations
    • 1st trimester
    • morphologic defect of a body part or organ
  2. Deformation
    • abnormal forms, shapes or positions of a body part
    • 2nd or 3rd trimester
  3. Disruptions
    • defects from interference with a normally developing organ system
    • 2nd or 3rd trimester
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the effect of ionizing radiation

A
  1. Time of effect (susceptible period)
  2. Dose effect
    • Less than 10 rads (no effect)
    • 10-25 rads some adverse
    • greater than 25 classic fetal effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are factors effecting access of a drug or medication to the fetus

A
  1. Maternal absorption
  2. drug metabolism
  3. protein binding and storage
  4. molecular size
  5. electrical charge
  6. lipid solubility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how much alcohol is needed to cause fetal alcohol syndrome

A

as little as one oz per day

Dose response: the more drinks the more FAS that will present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the two most abused drugs in pregnancy

A
  1. Alcohol
  2. cocaine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a good predictor for fetal complications from maternal DM

A

Hemoglobin A1C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are two types of malfomations found in the fetus of DM mothers

A
  1. Caudal regression syndrom with hypoplasia of the caudal spine and lower extremities
  2. CHD most commonly VSD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is cretinism

A

the result of maternal, fetal, and neonatal thyroid hormone deficiency

usually in iodine poor areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is PKU

A

phenylketonuria

genetic d/o characterizeed by a deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase, a liver enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine. the resulting high levels of phenylalanine in maternal serum result in high levels in the fetus.

adverse effects:

  1. mental retardation
  2. microcephaly
  3. CHD
  4. low birth weight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is arrhenoblastoma

A

virilizing tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the common abnormalities associated with epilepsy

A

Clift lip

cleft palate

CHD

Valproic Acid caries a 1-2% risk of NTD

Some studies suggest that the frequency of seizures is correlated with the degree of abnormality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the #1 cause of death during pregnancy

A

Thromboembolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the teratogenic effect of benzodiazepines

A

less than 1% risk of cleft anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the effects of fetal warfarin syndrome

A
  1. Flattened nasal bridge
  2. stippled bony epiphyses
  3. birth weight less than 10th percentil
  4. ocular defects
  5. extremity hypoplasia
  6. developmental retardation
  7. seizures
  8. scoliosis
  9. deafness/hearing loss
  10. CHD
  11. death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is used for the treatment of HIT (heparin induced thrombocytopenia)

A

Argatroban

Hirudin / bivalirudin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the problems with a 1st trimester infection of rubella

A
  1. Neuropathologic changes
    • microcephaly
    • mental and motor retardation
    • meninogencephalitis
  2. Cardiovascular changes
    • PDA
    • pulmonary artery stenosis
    • Atrioventricular septal defects
  3. ocular defects
    • cataracts
    • microphthalmia
    • retinal changes
    1. blindness
  4. inner ear problems
  5. IUGR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the problems associated with an early pregnancy infection of CMV

A
  1. Microcephaly and hydrocephaly
  2. chorioretinits
  3. hepatosplenomegaly
  4. cerebral calcification
  5. mental ratardation
  6. heart block
  7. petechiae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the associated problems with a 1st trimester infection of HSV-2

A
  1. IUGR
  2. Microcephaly
  3. Chorioretinits
  4. cerebral calification
  5. microphthalmia encephalitis
  6. miscarriage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the associated problems with inutero infection of VZV during the 1st 20 weeks

A

Several organ systems are effected

  1. Cutaneous
  2. Musculoskeletal
  3. Neurologic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the problem with an enterovirus infection such as coxsachie B

A

Serious or fatal illness (40%) in the fetus

surviving infants may exhibit cardiac malformations; hepatitis, pneumonitis, or pancreatitis or adrenal necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is substance use

A

involves taking low, infrequent doses of illicit substances fro experimentation or social reasons. damaging consequences are rare or minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is substance abuse

A

is the persistent or repeated use of a psychoactive substance for more than 1 month, despite the persistence or recurrence of adverse social, occupational, psychological or physical effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is substance dependence

A

WITHDraw IT mneumonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the pharmacologic effect of cocaine

A

blocks dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake at the postsynaptic junction, thereby increasing CNS irritability

this leads to maternal and fetal vasoconstriction and tachycardia, as well as stimulation of uterine contractions

tocolytic agent of choice: Mag sulfate

Mag Sulfate can also be used to treat seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the effects of marijuana during pregnancy

A

no increase in congenital malformations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the fetal effects of heroin during pregnancy

A

no increase in congenital malformations

IUGR

Stillbirth

Prematurity

Increased perinatal death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the fetal effects associated with methadone

A

no increase in congenital abnormalities

associated with low birth weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the fetal effects of tobacco

A

spontaneous abortion

abruptio placentae

PROM

preterm delivery

lower birth weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is placenta previa

A

implantation of the placenta over the cervical os

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the three types of placenta previa

A
  1. Total placenta previa: placenta completely cover the internal os. Associated with the greatest risk and largest amount of blood loss
  2. Partial previa: placenta partially covers the os
  3. marginal previa: the placenta extends to the margin of the internal cervical os
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the factors thought to cause placenta previa

A
  1. Previous placenta previa
  2. Previous C section
  3. Multiparity
  4. Advanced maternal age
  5. Smoking
  6. Asian and african descent
  7. Previous D & C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Placenta previa is associated with painful or painless bleeding

A

Painless bleeding

70% occurs at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Should you do a manual exam to determine placenta previa

A

NO

unless you are in the OR ready for emergency C section

Confirm placenta previa via ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the complication of PPH (post partum hemorrhage)

A
  1. renal damage from prolonged hypotension
  2. Pituitary necrosis (sheehans syndrome)
  3. DIC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is placenta accreta

A

growth of the placenta into the myometrium or any of its variations due to the asence of decidua basalis

Placenta accreta should always be considered in the presence of placenta previa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the 3 types of placenta accreta

A
  1. Placenta Accreta: placenta is attached directly to the myometrium
  2. Placenta Increta: placenta invades the myometrium
  3. Placenta Percreta: placenta penetrates completely through the myometrium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is abruptio placentae

A

premature separation of a normally implanted placenta after 20 weeks gestation.

It is initiated by bleeding into the decidua basalis, the bleeding splits the decidua, and the hematoma that forms causes further splitting. The process may be self limiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the common triad of presenting symptoms associated with placenta previa

A

vaginal bleeding

uterine or back pain

fetal distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What necessitates an immediate delivery with a placentae previa

A
  1. fetal heart rate tracing is nonreassuring and the gestational age is greater than 24 weeks
  2. maternal condition deteriorate regardless of gestational age
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is an Apt test

A

determination of a vasa previa

  1. blood from the vagina
  2. adding a small amount of tap water
  3. centrifuging the sample
  4. adding the pink supernatant to 1mL of NAOH solution
  5. Reading the treated sample in 2 minutes
    • Pink color: presence of fetal hemoglobin
    • Yellow-brown color: presence of adult hemoglobin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How does oxytocin effect labor

A

Levels of oxytocin increase with labor, but there is not a surge.

The greatest increase is in the number of oxytocin receptors

  1. Six fold increase in weeks 13-17 gestation
  2. 80 fold increase at term
  3. preterm labor has 2-3 times as many receptors than would be expected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How do prostaglandins assist in labor

A

Labor is associated with an increase in prostaglandins. this is likely the result of inflammation and not labor itself.

However, prostaglandins are believed to be important stimulatros of gap junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How is labor characterized

A

contractions that occur with increasing frequency and intensity, causing dilation of the cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the role of gap junctions in pregnancy

A

important cell-cell contacts that facilitate communication between cells via electrical or metabolic coupling

myometrial gap junctions, which are virtually absent during pregnancy increase in size and number before and during labor

Progesterone prevents gap junctions

Estrogen stimulates gap junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are tocolysis agents and what is their functino

A

pharmacologic inhibition of uterine activity

  1. Antiprostaglandin agents
    • indomethacin
    • acetylsalicylic acid
  2. Calcium channel blockers
    • nifedipine
    • magnesium sulfate
  3. B-mimetic agents
    • terbutaline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Discuss the stages of labor

A
  1. Stage 1
    • Entails effacement and dilation. it begins when uterine contractions become sufficiently frquent, intense and long to initiate obvious effacement and dilation of the cervix
  2. Stage 2
    • involves the expulsion of the fetus. it begins with complete dilation of the cervix and ends when the infant is delivered
  3. Stage 3
    • involves the separation and expulsion of the placenta. It begins with the delivery of the infant and ends with the delivery of the placenta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What do contractions do to the uterus

A

upper segment of the uterus becomes thicker and as labor progresses and contracts down with a force that expels the fetus with each contraction

lower segment of the uterus passively thins out with the contractions of the upper segment, promoting efacement fo the cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is effacement of the cervix

A

the shortening of the cervical canal from a structure of approximately 2 cm in length to one in which the canal is repalced by a more circlar orifice with almost paper thin edges

effacement occurs as the muscle fibers near tthe internal os are pulled upward into the lower uterine segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the dilation of the cervix

A

involves the gradual widening of the verival os. must dilate to 10 cm to be considered completley dilated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the types of vertex presentations regarding position

A

Postion is named based on the occiput with in the birth canal (R or L and A or P) in an oblique fashion or

Occiput transverse or

Occiput anterior/posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the stations of engagement

A

Station 0 is the level of the ischial spine

Above the ischial spine in cm is the negative station

below the ischial spine in cm is the positive stations

+3 the presenting part is on the perineum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does it mean if the fetal head is floating

A

when the fetal head is not engaged at the onset of labor and the fetal head is freely movable above the pelvic inlet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the 7 cardinal movements of labor and delivery

A
  1. Engagement
  2. Descent
  3. Flexion
  4. Internal rotation
  5. Extension of the fetal head
  6. External rotation
  7. Expulsion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is engagement

A

the biparietal diameter of the fetal head, the greatest transverse diameter of the head in occiput presentations, passes through the pelvic inlet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is associated with an increased risk of infection from ruptured membranes

A

time

greater than 24 hours regardless if labor has begun

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

On average how long should the first stage of labor last

A

12 hours primigravida

7 hours multigravida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the 2 phases of the 1st stage of labor

A

latent

  • Prolonged is greater than 20 hours for primi or 14 hours multiparous

active

  • prolonged is dlation less than 1.2cm/hour in primi or 1.5 cm/hour in multiparous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

On average how long does the second stage of labor last

A

50 minutes in primigravida

20 minutes in multigravida

still common to last up to 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is crowning

A

encirclement of the largest diameter of the fetal head by the vulvar ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the two types of episiotomy

A

median

mediolater

episiotomy is easier to repair and heals better than a tear, shortens the second stage of labor, and spares the infants head from prolonged pounding again the perineum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

On average how long is the 3rd stage of labor

A

5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the signs of placental separation

A

uterus becomes globular and firm

often a sudden gush of blood

umbilical cord protrudes farther out of the vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the main control of uterine hemostasis

A

vasoconstricion produced by a well contracted myometrium

May be assisted after the placenta has been delivered by:

Oxytocin

Ergonovine

prostaglandin F2a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Discuss the degrees of lacerations associated with birth

A

1st degree: invovle the fourchette, perineal skin and vaginal mucosa.

2nd degree: involve the skin, mucosa, fascia and muscles of the perineal body

3rd degree: extend throught the skin, mucosa, and perineal body and involve the anal sphincter

4th degree: are exensions of the third degree tear through the rectal mucosa to expose the lumen of the rectum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the 2 types of fetal heart monitoring

A

External ultrasound device

Fetal scalp electrode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is baseline fetal HR

A

the heart rate that occurs between contractions regardless of accelerations or decelerations

normal FHR is 110-160 and decreases gradually after 16 weeks gestation as the parasympathetic system develops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the causes of baseline fetal tachy

A

FHR greater 160

  1. hypoxia
  2. maternal fever
  3. chorioamnionitis
  4. prematurity
  5. drugs
  6. fetal stimulation
  7. fetal arrhythmias
  8. maternal anxiety
  9. maternal thyrotoxicosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what are the causes of fetal bradycardia

A

FHR less than 110

  1. hypoxia
  2. drugs
  3. autonomic mediated reflex
  4. arrhthmias
  5. hypothermia
  6. maternal hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

is baseline FHR variability normal

A

yes

one of the best indicators of intact integration between the fetal CNS and the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How is FHR variability characterized

A

absent: undectable amplitude
minimal: detectable amplitude less than 5 bpm
moderate: amplitude of 6-25
marked: amplitude of more than 25 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what are the two ways to measure contractions and there associated limitations

A

tocodynamometer: only determines the frequency and NOT intensity or strength

intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC): measures both frequency and intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What define FHR accelerations

A

before 32 weeks: a peak of at least 10 bpm above baseline lasting 10 seconds or more

after 32 weeks: a peak of at least 15 bpm above baseline between 15 seconds and 2 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what are the 3 types of FHR decelerations

A
  1. Early decelerations
  2. Variable decelerations
  3. Late decelerations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What determines if a deceleration is prolonged

A

decreases from baseline of 15 BPM or more and last 2-10 minutes

caused by vagus nerve discharge or fetal hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

define early decelerations

A

begin with the onset of uterine contractions, reach their lowest point (never below 100 bpm) at the PEAK of contraction and return to baseline as the contraction ends

thought to be caused by local changes in cerebral blood flow which results in stimulation of the vagal centers

these decelerations are physiologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

define variable decelerations

A

abrupt decreases in fhr with a rapid reurn to baseline (onset of deceleration to nadir less than 30 seconds) that may occur before, during, or after contration

generally are caused by compression of the umbilical cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the types of variable decelerations

A

mild: duration less than 30 seconds

moderate: Two types
1. Nadir of 70-80 with duration of more than 60 seconds
2. Nadir less than 70 duration 30-60 seconds

severe: nadir less than 70 with duration greater than 60 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

define late decelerations

A

gradual decreases and returns to baseline with uterine contractions (onset to nadir greater than 30 seconds)

the nadir occurs after the peak of contraction

associated mechanisms

  1. normal variant
  2. direct myocardial depression
  3. uteroplacental insufficency
80
Q

What are some nonreassuring FHR patterns

A
  1. repetitive decelerations
  2. abnormal baseline FHR
  3. absence of accelerations
  4. loss of variability
  5. repetitive late decelerations
81
Q

What position should the mother avoid to avoid decreased uterine blood flow

A

supine

in the supine position, the uterus blocks blood flow through the aorta and the inferior vena cava, potentially leading to decreased placental perfusion

placement in a lateral recumbent position during labor causes the uterus to fall away from the great vessels which should improve fetal oxygenation

82
Q

what is the fetal scalp stimulation test

A

the examiner rubs the fetal scalp during a digital examination. an acceleration is usually seen in the FHR tracing of the uncompromised, nonacidotic fetus. The presence of an acceleration is associated wiht an intact ANS and a fetal scalp blood pH greater than 7.2

Fetal scalp pH greater than 7.2 isis reassurance that the fetus is not acidotic

83
Q

what is normal fetal oxygen saturation

A

between 35 and 75%

if the fetal oxygen sat remains above 30% during labor there appears to be no risk of fetal metabolic acidosis

84
Q

What is dystocia

A

abnormal progression of labor. Used an indication for cesarean section

85
Q

What are the major causes of perinatal morbidity and mortality

A

low birth weight

congenital abnormalities

86
Q

What are the indications for a cesarean section

A
  1. contraindication to labor
  2. Dystocia and failed induction of labor
  3. Emergent conditions that warrant immediate delivery
87
Q

What are the contraindications to labor

A
  1. Placenta previa
  2. vasa previa
  3. previous classic cesarean
  4. previous myomectomy with entrance into uterine cavity
  5. previous uterine reconstruction
  6. malpresentations of the fetus
  7. active genital herpes infection
  8. previous cesarean section and patient declines trial of labor
88
Q

What are the types of cesarean sections

A
  1. Low transverse (Kerr)
    • is made in the noncontractile portion of the uterus
    • Lowest potential of blood loss
  2. Low verical (sellheim or kronig)
    • used when more room is needed to remove the fetus
  3. Classic incision (Sanger)
    • Simplest and quickest procedure to perform
    • uterine closure is more difficult
89
Q

What are the types of abdominal incisions used to conduct a cesarean section

A
  1. Midline
  2. Paramedian
  3. Pfannenstiel: most common, but requires more time to perform

A transperotoneal approach is used almost exclusively today

90
Q

What are the complications of a cesarean section

A
  1. Endomyometritis
  2. UTI
  3. Wound infection
  4. Thromboembolic disorder
  5. Cesarean hysterectomy
  6. Uterine rupture in future pregnancy
  7. Uterine rupture in future pregnancy
91
Q

What are the 2 types of episiotomy’s

A

median

mediolateral

92
Q

What are the indications for an operative vaginal delivery

A
  1. Nonreassuring fetal status
  2. Prolonged second stage of labor
  3. Certain maternal illness
  4. Poor voluntary expulsion efforts
93
Q

What is a prolonged second stage of labor

A
  1. Nulliparous: more than 3 hours with regional or 2 hours with out regional
  2. Multiparous: more than 2 hours with regional or 1 hour without regional
94
Q

What are the prereqs for instrumental vaginal delivery

A
  1. Cervix must be fully dilated
  2. membranes must be ruptured
  3. position and station must beknown, and the head must be engaged (0, station)
  4. maternal pelvis must be judged adequate size for delivery
  5. bladder should be empty
  6. skilled operator present
  7. adequate anesthesia is needed before forceps or vaccum applications
95
Q

When are classic forceps indicated

A

primarily for traction when there is to be little or no rotation

96
Q

What are the classic forceps

A
  1. simpson
  2. elliot
  3. tucker-McLean
97
Q

What are the specialized forceps

A
  1. Kielland (for rotation)
  2. Barton (for rotation)
  3. Piper (for the aftercoming head in breech deliveries)
98
Q

Name the vaccum extractors

A
  1. Mamstrom vacuum extractor
  2. Plastic cup extractor (more widely used in US)
99
Q

What is cervical cerclage

A

A sututre is placed in the cervix to treat cervical incompetence

100
Q

What are the types of cerclage

A
  1. Shirodkar technique
  2. McDonald Technique: Less trauma and is a simple purse string
  3. Abdominal Placement: less common but used for short or amputated cervix
101
Q

When is a cerclage performed

A

Usually performed between the 12th and 16th week but can be done as late as the 24th week. It is generally removed at the 38th week.

Elective or prophylactic cerclage has a much lower risk of infection compared to waiting until the cervix is dialated

102
Q

What is a spontaneous abortion

A

expulsion of the products of conception without medical intervention

103
Q

what are the types of spontaneous abortion

A
  1. Threateed abortion
  2. Inevitable abortion
  3. Incomplete abortion
  4. Missed abortion
  5. Recurrent pregnancy loss
104
Q

Discuss a threatened abortion

A

traditionally used when bleeding occurs in the first half of gestation without cervical dilation or passage of tissue

105
Q

What is an inevitable abortion

A

pregnancy loss is diagnosed when bleeding or rupture of membranes occurs with cramping and dilation of the cervix

106
Q

What is an incomplete abortion

A

progenancy loss occurs when there has been partial but incomplete expulsion of the products of conception from the uterine cavity

107
Q

What is a missed abortion

A

Death of the fetus or embryo may occur without the onset of labor or passage of tissue for a prolonged period

108
Q

How late can an elective induced abortion be performed

A

24 weeks in most states

109
Q

What is a therapeutic abortion

A

terminations of pregnancy that are performed when maternal risk is associated with continuation of the pregnancy or fetal abnormalities are associated with genetic, chomosomal or structural defects.

110
Q

What are the techniques used to terminate a pregnancy

A
  1. Surgical evacuation:
    1. Suction curetage (before 12 weeks)
    2. Dilation and Extraction (after 12 weeks). After 16 weeks forceps are required for extraction
  2. Induction of labor
111
Q

What are the medical means for inducing labor

A
  1. Prostaglandins
  2. Urea or hypertonic saline: injected directly into uterine cavity
  3. Progesterone antagonist: Mifepristone (effectiveness is often increased by administering with prostaglandin E)
112
Q

How are future pregnancies effected by a suction curetage

A

incidences of infertility, spontaneous abortion, and ectopic pregnancy do not increase after uncomplicated suction curetage procedures

113
Q

Normal parturients are less responsive to vasopressors and chronotorpic agents such as ephedrine or phenylephrine. Why is this

A

decrease in response may be related to down regulation of alpha and beta receptors

114
Q

How is the uterus effected by blood pressure

A

As blood pressure decreases so do uterine perfusion

115
Q

What happens to the diaphragm with a gravid uterus

A

The diaphragm elevates 4 cm

causes a 20% decrease in FRC

116
Q

Breathing of complete O2 will denitrogenate the lungs. How will this benefit a patient and how is it effected by during pregnancy.

A

Nonpregnat patients will be able to tolerate 9 minutes of apnea before oxygen sat drops below 90%. The parturient will only be able to tolerate 2-3 minutes

117
Q

How does progeesterone effect the GI system

A

Decrease motility and food absorbtion

118
Q

For general anesthesia, how is MAC (minimum alveolar concentration) effected during pregnancy

A

decreased up to 40 %

119
Q

What is the pain asscoiated with the first stage of labor

A

distention and stretching associated with the dialation of the cervix

Sensory nerves enter the spinal cord at T10 - L1

120
Q

What is the pain associated with the second stage of labor

A

stretching and tearig of fascia, skin, subcutaneous tissue, and other somatic structures

Derived primarily from S2-S4

121
Q

Discuss the chemical structure of local anesthetics

A

weak bases that have a 3 part sturcture

  1. lipophyilic aromatic rin
  2. intermediate chain
  3. hydrophilic carbon chain bearing an amino group

The intermediate chain determines which classification a local anesthetic belongs:

  • esters have COO
  • amides have NHCO
122
Q

What is the mechanism of local anesthetics

A

prevent impulse generation in the nerve and propagation by gaining access to the sodium channel abd blocking permeability to sodium ions

123
Q

What are the common risks associated with epidural

A

hypotension and postdural headace

may prolong the duration of labor by 30-120 minutes

The hypotension is generally not related to a sympathetic blockade, but a removal of pain

124
Q

What is the most common epidural combination

A

Fentanyl (25 micrograms)

sobaric bupivacaine (0.25%, 1mL)

125
Q

What are some contraindications to epidurals

A

Clotting disorders

thrombocytopenia

previous spinal surgery

Consider using PCA (IV - patient control anesthesia)

126
Q

What is used to reverse the effects of opiods

127
Q

When is antenatal test started and what does it include

A

started twice weekly between 41 and 42 weeks gestation.

It includes:

  1. Nonstress test (NST)
  2. Contraction stress test (CST)
  3. Biophysical profile (BPP)
128
Q

Discuss the non stress test

A

a noninvasive test of fetal activity that correlates with fetal well being. FHR accelerations are boserved during fetal movement. An external monitor is used to receorthe FHR, and the mother participates by indicating fetal movements

  • Reactive test requires 2 fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 beats amplitude of 15 seconds duration in a 20 minute period
  • If a test is nonreactive after 40 minutes, a CST is performed
129
Q

Discuss the contraction stress test

A

a test of FHR that indirectly measures placental function in response to uterine contractions

An IV infusion of oxytocin is used to stimulate uterine contractions

It is used when the NST is nonreactive

130
Q

What consists of a negative CST and postive CST

A

Negative CST:
3 uterine contractions of moderate intensity lasting 40-60 seconds over a 10 minute period with no late decelerations in the FHR tracing

Positive CST:
has late decelerations associated with more than 50% of the uterine contractions.

A CST with inconsistent late decelerations are considered suspect

131
Q

What is preterm birth

A

infants born before 37 weeks gestation

before 32 weeks have the greatest risk of poor health outcome and death

75% of preterm births occur after preterm labor and PPROM

132
Q

What are the risk factors for preterm birth

A

Sociodemographic

  1. low socioeconomic class
  2. African American
  3. less than 18 or over 40,
  4. tobacco
  5. cocaine
  6. Previous premature birth

Maternal medical and obstetric conditions

  1. Mullerian malformations
  2. Cervical insufficiency
  3. Uterine over distention
  4. Obstetric conditions: Pre-eclampsia, Placenta Abruptio/previa, IUGR, PROM

Infection

133
Q

What may be done for women that have a history of preterm birth

A

administration of progesterone showed to reduce risk of recurrent preterm birth

134
Q

If a patient presents with vaginal bleeding, what must be done before a digital exam is performed?

A

ULTRASOUND to rule out placenta previa

135
Q

What is the benefit of using tocolytics

A

They will not reduce the rate of preterm birth, however, they will often delay birth for 48 hours and reduce the associated complications

136
Q

What are tocolytic options currently available

A
  1. Magnesium sulfate
  2. B-mimetics
  3. Indomethacin
  4. Nifedipine
137
Q

What is the mechanism of magnesium sulfate

A

inhibits uterine contractility.

acts by competitive inhibition of calcium at the motor end plate or the cell membrane, thereby decreasing calcium influx into the cell

138
Q

What are the complications associated with magnesium sulfate

A
  1. Nausea vomiting
  2. flushing and headache
  3. muscle weakness
  4. pulmonary edema
  5. cardiopulmonary arrest
139
Q

what are some contraindications to using magnessium sulfate

A
  1. renal failure
  2. myasthenia gravis
  3. hypocalcemia
140
Q

What is the only FDA approved B-mimetic used as a tocolytic

141
Q

What is the major problem with using indomethacin as a tocolytic

A

Neonatal side effects is constriction of the ductus arteriosus: Do not use after 32 weeks

Oligohydramnios

pulmonary hypertension

nectrotizing enterocolitis

142
Q

What is the mechanism of Indomethacin

A

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory which inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins, which are involved in the biochemical process of labor

143
Q

What is the mechanism of nifedipine

A

calcium channel blocker decreases smooth muscle contraction

144
Q

What is the mechanism for ritodrine

A

smooth muscle relaxation

145
Q

What are the abolute contraindications to tocolytic therapy

A
  1. Severe preeclampsia
  2. nonreassuring fetal heart rate
  3. significant antepartum bleed
  4. clinical chorioamnionitis
146
Q

What is the leading cause of PPROM

A

Intramniotic infection

147
Q

What is used to determine a rupture of membranes

A

Nitrazine paper turns blue with a pH above 6.0 to 6.5

Amniotic fluid produces a fernlike pattern on a microscope slide when allowed to dry

148
Q

What is chronic hypertension of pregnancy and what are the associate classifications

A

Persistent blood pressure greater than 140/90 mmHg before the 20th week of pregnancy

  • Mild: over 140/90
  • Moderate: 150/100 -170/110
  • Severe: over 170/110

Hypertension can be initially diagnosed if it persists longer than 12 weeks postpartum

149
Q

What is PIH

A

Pregnancy induced hypertension

  • Hypertension onset after 20 weeks gestation
  • Absolute MAP of 105
  • Absolute BP of 140/90 twice over 6 hours, without prior comparison
  • BP returns to normal 12 weeks post partum
150
Q

What is preeclampsia

A

Gestataional hypertension with proteinuria

  • Proteinuria: 30mg/dL on dipstick or 300 mg on 24 urine
151
Q

What is HELLP

A

Variant of severe preeclampsia

  • Hemolysis
  • elevated liver enzymes
  • Low Platelets
152
Q

What is the effect of the placenta from hypertension

A

4 - 8 times more likely in pregnancy to develope abruptio placenta

IUGR because of decreased uterine blood flow

Prematurity

Perinatal mortality increase 25%

153
Q

What are the antihypertensive medications that are used in the treatment during pregnancy

A
  1. Hydralazine (reduces afterload but compensates with an increase in HR)
  2. Alpha methyldopa
  3. labetalol
  4. nifedipine
  5. B-antagonist
154
Q

What are the pathophysiological changes seen with preeclampsia

A
  1. Increased total Peripheral vascular resistance
  2. Preeclamptic endothelial cells generate less prostacyclin (vasodilator) than normal endothelial cells
  3. Coagulation system: DIC 10%
  4. Renal Function: GFR decreased
  5. Tubular changes: Decreased uric acid clearance is observed prior to a GFR disturbance
  6. RAAS
155
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of preeclampsia

A

Hypertension

edema (related to Na retention)

Hyperreflexia

156
Q

What is the management of preeclampsia

A

Delievery is the only known treatment (at 37 weeks is recomended)

With severe preeclampsia before 24 weeks, termination should be offered. Before 32 weeks delivery is a legitimate choice.

157
Q

What is used for seizure prophylaxis for preeclampsia

A

Magnesium sulfate

158
Q

What can be used to reverse Magnesium sulfate toxicity

A

1 gm calcium gluconate

159
Q

What are the indications for antihypertensive medications

A
  1. Persistent diastolic blood pressure of over 105 mmHg
  2. Isolated diastolic BP over 110 mmHg
160
Q

What is the effect of pregnancy on glucose metaolism

A

increased insulin secretion occurs as a result of B-cell hyperplasia from the increased levels of estrogen and progesterone

Insulin antagonism results from the increase in human somatomammotropin

161
Q

Does insulin cross the placenta

162
Q

How does fetal glucose relate to maternal glucose

A

directly proportional

163
Q

What are the effects of pre existing diabetes on pregancy

A

Maternal complications

  • Preeclampsia
  • DKA
  • nephropathy
  • retinopayth
  • infection
  • polyhydraminos
  • Cesarean delivery
  • postpartum hemorrahge
  • mortality

Fetal complications

  • Miscarriage
  • Stillbirth
  • Perinatal mortality
  • Congenital malformations
164
Q

What are the congenital malformations associated with a preexisting DM during pregnancy

A

Anencephaly

spina bifida

VSD

Situs Inversus

Sacral Agenesis (Caudal Regression)

  • the risk of congenital abnormalities increases with higher hemoglobin A1C values
165
Q

What are the glucose goals during pregnancy for preexisting DM

A

fasting glucose less than 95

2 hour post prandial less than 120

166
Q

what is a complication of delivering a fetus greater 4000 grams

A

shoulder dystocia

167
Q

What is the effect of gestational diabetes on pregnancy

A

increased risk of macrosomia

increased risk of preeclampsia

increased rate of still birth if fasting glucose is elevated

FETAL ANOMALIES ARE NOT INCREASED

168
Q

What is the standard for screening for gestational diabetes and what are the parameters

A

3 hour Glucose tolerance test

  • Fasting value: 95 mg/dL
  • 1-hour: 180 mg/dL
  • 2 hour: 155 mg/dL
  • 3 hour: 140 mg/dL

Diagnosis is given if any two of the parameters are met or exceeded

169
Q

What is the effects of the thyroid during pregnancy

A

plasma inorganic iodine concentration decreases because of increased renal excretion and increased glomerular filtration

170
Q

What are the treatment options for hyper thyoidism

A

PTU (propylthiouracil)

Methimazole

Beta blockers

171
Q

What is the mechanism of PTU

A

prevents both the snthesis of thyroid gland and the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

172
Q

What is teh mechanism for methimazole

A

prevents only the release of thyroid hormone and has been associated aplasa cutis (a reversible but developmental disorder of the fetal scalp)

173
Q

What are the effects of hypothroidism on the fetus during pregnancy

A

Deceased performance on IQ tests

174
Q

What are the common bugs for acute urethritis in pregnancy

A

E Coli

Chlamydia Trachomatis

Neisseria gonorrheae

175
Q

What is the most common cause of cystitis in pregnancy

A

E coli 90%

Usually there is NO fever

176
Q

What is the most common cause of acute pyelonephritis in pregnancy

A

e coli (90%)

Preisposing factors unique to pregnancy:

  • Ureteral compression at the pelvic brim
  • decreased tone and peristalsis of the ureters resulting from increased progesterone levels
  • Decreased bladder sensitivity
177
Q

How is anemia define in pregnancy

A

Hemoglobin concentration less than:

First trimester: 11g/dL

Second trimester: 10.5 g/dL

Third trimester: 11 g/dL

178
Q

How much additional iron is needed during pregnancy

A

1000 mg elemental iron

179
Q

What happens to hematocrit during pregnancy

A

decreases during the second trimester

180
Q

What are the pregnancy complications associated with maternal heart disease

A

Miscarriage

IUGR

Preterm Deliver

Intrauterin demise

Highest risk is associated with pulmonary hypertension, and other conditions with aorta involvement

181
Q

What treatment options are available during pregnancy against tuberculosis

A

Isoniazid

Ethambutol

Streptomycin and Rifampin should be avoided in pregnancy

182
Q

What is the leading cause of death in pregnant and post partum women

A

thromboembolic disease

183
Q

What abnormalities increase the risk of thromboembolic disease

A

Factor V leiden mutation

prothrombin mutation

antiphospholipid antibody

potein c or protein s deficiency

antithrombin III deficiency

homocysteinemia

184
Q

What causes increased clotting factors during pregnancy

A

estrogen

venous stasis from a gravid uterus compressing the IVC and pelvic veins also plays a significant role

185
Q

How is a DVT diagnosed

A

real time ultrasonography is the procedure of choice

the gold standard is a venography (Invasive and expensive)

186
Q

What are the findings associated with a PE

A

tachypnea

dyspnea

pleuritic pain

apprehension

cough

tachycardia

hemoptysis

187
Q

How is a PE diagnosed

A

Arterial blood gas less than 80 mmHg

Ventilation Perfusion abnormality

Pulmonary angiogram (gold standard)

Spiral CT tomography

188
Q

What are the anticoagulants used for thromboembolic disease

A

heparin or SQ low molecular wight heparin (neither cross the placenta

Warfarin is teratogenic

189
Q

What are the teratogenic effects of carbamazepine

A

NTD

Craniofacial defects

nail hypoplasia

190
Q

What are the teratogenic effects of phenytoin

A

microcephaly

dysmorphic facies

191
Q

What are the teratogenic effects of trimethadone

A

multiple malformations

mental retardation

192
Q

What are the teratogenic effects of valproic acid

193
Q

What is the crierion for developing an Rh isoimmunization

A

All 3 must be met in an Rh-negative pregnant woman

  1. Fetus must be Rh positive
  2. Enough fetal cells must reach the maternal circulation (fetomaternal breech)
  3. The mother must make antibody to D antigen (as many as 30% are non responders)
194
Q

How is Rh isoimmunization prevented?

A

300 micrograms Anti D immunoglobulin (RhoGAM) can protect a mother from up to 30mL of fetal blood

195
Q

How can assess the degree of hemolysis and risk for fetal death with Rh Isoimmunization pregnancies

A

Amniocentesis

  • Bilirubin in amniotic fluid (byproduct of fetal hemolysis)
  • Spectrophotometry: degree of shift at 450nm
    • Zone I mild anemia
    • Zone II mild to severe anemia
    • Zone III severe to death
196
Q

When should a fetal transfussion be indicated

A

hematocrit below 30% with Rh isoimmunization pregnancy

► Med Misc 06 (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions