Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

med at prep > o > Flashcards

o Flashcards

1
Q

Autotrophic cells can use energy:

A

chemical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ribosomes:

A

have a size of several dozen nanometres

are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins

in prokaryotic cells are smaller than in eukaryotic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The mitotic apparatus is composed of:

A

centrioles

filaments of the mitotic spindle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Phospholipids in the biomembrane are arranged:

A

into a bilayer in which protein molecules are incorporated

into two layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Protein synthesis takes place:

A

on ribosomes

on ribosomes in the cytoplasm

on ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many biomembrancs cover the nucleus:

A

two in eukaryotic cells

in eukaryotic cells by two membranes

in prokaryotic cells it has no membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Nucleus:

A

may contain a nucleolus

in eukaryotic cells has two membranes

its main component in eukaryotic cells are chromosomes

is the control centre of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Nucleus:

A

may contain a nucleolus

in eukaryotic cells has two membranes

its main component in eukaryotic cells are chromosomes

is the control centre of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Glycogen is:

A

animal cell polysaccharide

animal starch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

DNA replication in a cell occurs in:

A

cell nucleus

chloroplasts

mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

DNA replication in a cell occurs in:

A

cell nucleus

chloroplasts

mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A cell cycle phase in which nuclear DNA replication and duplication of nuclear
chromosomes occurs is called:

A

‘S phase

synthetic phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The phases of mitosis include:

A

prophase
c) telophase

anaphase
g) metaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Indicate which substances are osmotically the most effective:

A

electrolytes

substances whose molecules dissociate to ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The cell uses osmotic energy:

A

to transfer of substances through cell membranes

to transport of electrolytes through cell membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The nucleolus consists of:

A

proteins and RNA

ribonucleic acid and proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The cell in meiosis is divided:

A

twice

twice with one DNA replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

According to tho cocentlarty, cells can be divided into:

A

prokaryotic and eukaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The oxidative phosphorylation enzyme system is located in:

A

mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Blastomeres are:

A

cells generated by the mitotic zygote division

cells generated by “cleavage” of the zygote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In the anaphase of mitosis:

A

the microtubules of the mitotic spindle are shortened and thus attract the chromosomes
to centrioles

chromosomes are attracted to centrioles

the diploid count of chromosomes is located around centrioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In telophase of mitosis:

A

the mitotic spindle is disintegrating
c) chromosomes change again to long fibers
d) new nuclear envelope will be created
e) the structure of the nucleus is restored
f) evtokinesis occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The basic building block of nucleic acids is:

A

nucleotide

a substance composed of a nitrogenous organic base, pentose and phosphoric acid
e) a substance composed of purine or pyrimidine base, pentose, and HiPO4
f) a substance composed of purine or pyrimidine base, a five-carbon sugar and HiPO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The result of meiotic cell division is:

A

cells with a haploid number of chromosomes

sex cells

gametes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The main cell cycle checkpoint is located in:

A

G1 phase

interphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The chemical composition of the cell wall in the eukaryotic cell:

A

is different from that of the plasma membrane

in the plants contains cellulose

also contains lignin in plants of woody plants

in specialized cells it may contain proteins, salts and waxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The number of gonosomes in the normal somatic cell of both male and female is:

A

even
c) the same

one X and the other is X or Y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

During mitosis eukaryotic cells are divided:

A

only once
b) once, with one DNA replication

into two equal daughter cells

in the M phase of the cell cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A cell on average:

A

contains more proteins than carbohydrates

contains more carbohydrates than lipids

mainly contains water

contains minerals and nucleic acids and they occur in the same ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In DNA, nitrogen bases are complementary in pairs:

A

guanine with cytosine

thymine with adenine
g) cytosine with guanine
h) adenine with thymine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Do plasmids have the ability to replicate themselves:

A

yes, they have in the host cell

they have, independently from the chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The process of formation of two new and identical DNA molecules is called:

A

replication

duplication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The reason why the plasmids are important for clinical medicine is that the plasmids:

A

determine against which antibiotic substance is a respective bacterium resistant

regulate the effectiveness of antibiotics

d) influence the pathogenicity of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The process of DNA replication occurs:

A

before mitotic cell division

in the synthetic phase of the interphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The template which contains information about the primary structurs polypeptide chain is:

A

mRNA

messenger RNA

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

According to the CAT AAG TAC AAC CGT CAC segment in the Dna generated mRNA is:

A

GUA UUC AUG UUG GCA GUG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What types of RNA we know:

A

messenger RNA
c) transfer RNA
d) ribosomal RNA

information for the amino acid sequence of the protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The codon is:

A

acids in the peptide chain

a triplet of adjacent nucleotides in DNA or mRNA

three consecutive nucleotides in DNA or mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following short pieces of mRNA and tRNA match each other according to the rules of complementarity:

A

tRNA: A UGGAG mRNA: UACCUC

tRNA: AACCCU mRNA: UUGGGA
f)
tRNA: GCUAGO mRNA: C GAUCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Genetic information in DNA molecules is stored:

A

according to the genetic code

by the sequence of deoxyribonucleotides

in the structure of its molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The complementary strand to the ACT GCT TGT GTC AGT AA chain in
DNA is:

A

TGA CGA ACA CAG TCA TT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Structural gene expression is:

A

the transfer of genetic information coded by DNA into the amino acid sequence in the peptide chain

transferring genetic information from DNA to the primary structure of the protein

the process of transcription and translation
of the protein

transcribing information from DNA and translating it into the amino acid sequence of the protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The basic types of genes are:

A

structural genes
c) genes for RNA
d) regulatory genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The plasmids are:

A

small circular DNA molecules in the cytoplasm of bacteria that replicates independently from chromosomal DNA

small circular DNA molecules separated from chromosomal DNA in bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The tRNA anti-coding sequence for protein synthesis according to the structural gene segment CAA AAC TGT GCG TCA TTA CCA is:

A

CAA AAC UGU GCG UCA UUA CCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The structural gene carries:

A

genetic information for the amino acid sequence of the protein

information for the primary structure of the peptide chain

information for the amino acid sequence of the protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Regulatory genes:

A

regulate the activity of other genes

keep order in the whole system of genes

h) regulate the activity of genes in time and space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Chromatin consists of:

A

deoxyribonucleic acid and protein

DNA and protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

According to the principle of complementarity, thymine binds to:

A

adenine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the anticodons in tRNA to the mRNA CGAUAUCGUGCU:

A

GCU AUA GCA CGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which of the following nitrogen bases of the DNA molecule is located opposite to adenine in the complementary strand:

A

thymine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The Escherichia coli operon:

A

is transcribed as a whole

is a continuous chain of genes
e) is located in DNA
If) is transcribed into the mRNA as a whole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How many amino acids are coded by ATG TCY TIT CGG GGC DNA segment,

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Amino acids can be coded:

A

by multiple codon types

multiple types of triplets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Synthesis of RNA:

A

is catalyzed

energy is supplied by ATP

is chemically similar to DNA synthesis

g) RNA is synthesized, e.g. in the nucleus, in the mitochondria, in the chloroplasts 13

h) the order of nucleotides is determined by order of the bases in one of the DNA strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

According to the complementarity principle, adenine is paired to:

A

uracil

thymine or uracil
h) thymine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

DNA and RNA differ by:

A

type of saccharide
b) primary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

RNA carries genetic information at:

A

RNA viruses

some non-cellular organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Nucleic acids:

A

belong to the basic macromolecular substances of living systems
b) are formed by connecting nucleotides into long chains

always contain five-carbon sugar

carry genetic information or participate in its implementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What blood group can a child have when the mother has a blood group 0 and father has blood group A:

A

A with the genotype A0 if the father is homozygous

O with the genotype 00 if the father is heterozygous
A or 0 if the father is heterozygous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which of the following statements is true about genomic mutations:

A

the number of chromosomes in the cell changes
b) the genes do not change

number of individual chromosomes and sets is changed
e) eukaryotic cell has more or fewer chromosomes than 2n

we observe polyploidy or aneuploidy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How many proteins are coded by genes, which are located in the human chromosome X:

A

800 to 9007

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Healthy parent have two sons; one of them is affected by daltonim. What are, genotypes of both parents?

A

XAX x XY

mother is a carrier and father does not have a gene for daltonism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The phenotypic ratio of monohybrid cross with complete dominance of a heterozygote with a recessive homozygote is:

A

1:1
50%: 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Daltonism is a genetic disorder, which is an example of:

A

recessive inheritance linked to the gonosome X
c) recessive inheritance linked to the sex chromosome X

recessive inheritance linked to the heterochromosome X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Galactosemia is a disorder, which is an example of:

A

autosomal recessive genetic disorder

recessive genetic disorder linked to a somatic chromosome/

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The genotype of a homozygous recessive individual for the following traits is:

A

aabb

aabbcc
cc
h) bbcc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Y chromosome in a karyotype means:

A

male sex in humans

male gender in humans
male genotype in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The phenotypic ratio of monohybrid cross with complete dominance of two heterozygotes is:

A

3: 1

75%: 25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The basic methods of selective breeding include:

A

hybridization

crossbreeding

mating individuals with the required characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Intermediate inheritance is:

A

case of incomplete dominance, in which both alleles are equally manifest in the heterozygote phenotype

also known as incomplete dominance/

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Both parents have a blood group AB. What blood group can their children have:

A

homozygous A )
homozygous B/
codominant AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Haemophilia A (hereditary bleeding):

A

occurs more often in men

occurs in men whose mother is a carrier occurs

in sons whose mother is a carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The term uniformity of hybrids means that:

A

all offspring in the first filial generation are the same

all offspring are heterozygous, and genotype and phenotype they have the same

all hybrids in the first filial generation are heterozygotes

D) all hybrids in the first filial generation are in complete dominancy phenotypically identica.
with one parent

all hybrids in the first filial generation, in intermediate inheritance, are not phenotypically
identical with both parents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The set of all genes in one cell is called.

A

genome

genotype in Monocytozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The material basis of the inheritance is:

A

nucleic acid

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The dihybrid genotype of the dominant homozygous for the first trait and the
recessive homozygous for the second one is:

A

ААЬЬ

CCdd
DDee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Both parents are heterozygous for blood group B. What is the probability that their children will have a blood group B:

A

75%

0.75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

In the case of incomplete dominance, what can we say about the phenotype of the heterozygote with genotype Bb:

A

it is different from BB
it is different from bb

it is different from BB and bb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The genotype of a dominant homozygous individual is:

A

AABB
e) ААВВСС
f) AA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Mutagens:

A

are agents that cause mutation in the cell

are involved in the formation of induced mutations 1
are of physical nature, e.g. ionizing radiation

are of chemical nature, e.g. ethylnitrosourea and ethidium bromide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Gene mutations:

A

changing individual genes
changing order or number of nucleotides
cause, for example, losing one or several nucleotides
cause, for example, insertion of additional nucleotide or several nucleotides
cause, for example, replacing of one nucleotide by an abnormal nucleotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What types of mutations we recognize:

A

those affecting genes. hrownsomes and chromosomal sets /
c) those affecting genes, chromosomes and genome

induced and spontaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Two children of the same parents have a blood group O. What blood groups can their parents have:

A

homozygous 0 and homozygous 0
d) homozygous 0 and heterozygous A
e) homozygous 0 and heterozygous B
1) heterozygous A and heterozygous B

heterozygous B and heterozygous B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The genetic cross of a heterozygote with a recessive homozygote is:

A

Aa x аа

AaBb x aabb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How many autosomes does the human somatic cell contain:

A

22 pairs

44

an even number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Which of the following is true about gonosomes in humans:

A

they are called chromosome X and chromosome Y
b) they are present in gametes

combination of YY normally does not exist
d) only one gonosome is present in normal gameter

somatic cell always contains the X chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Both parents have a heterozygous blood group B. Their children may have a blood group:

A

homozygous B with the 25% probability
c) heterozygous B with the 50% probability
d) homozygous 0 with the 25% probability

with the 75% probability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Mother has blood group 0 and father AB. What blood group can their children have:

A

A with the 50% probability

0 with the 0% probability
B with the 50% probability
AB with the 0% probability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Galactosemia is:

A

hereditary molecular disease
b) hereditary autosomal recessive disease
c) disease caused by lack of one of galactose degradation enzymes

an inherited disease where mutant allele has a pleiotropic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How many groups of chromosomes are in the human karyotype:

A

seven

A to G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

One parent has a heterozygous blood group A and a second parent has s heterozygous blood group B. What blood group can their child have:

A

heterozygous blood group A with the 25% probability
b) heterozygous blood group B with the 25% probability.

blood group AB with the 25% probability
(d) blood group 0 with the 25% probability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

One parent has heterozygous blood group A, the other homozygous A. Their children may have a blood group:

A

homozygous A with the 50% probability

A with the 100% probability
[e) heterozygous A with the 50% probability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

In the case of complete dominance, the genotype Aa is phenotypically:

A

identical to AA

the same as the dominant homozygote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Can the daltonic parents have a colour-blind child:

A

yes, with the 100% probability
e) all children must be colour blind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The set of genotypically and phenotypically identical individuals is called:

A

pure line if they are the result of sexual reproduction
b) inbreeding line if they are the result of breeding
c) clone that originated from vegetative reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Both parents have a heterozygous blood group A. Their children may have a blood group:

A

A with the 75% probability

homozygous A with the 25% probability heterozygous A with the 50% probability

homozygous 0 with the 25% probability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Rh factor is inherited as:

A

autosomal dominant trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

An example of Mendelian inheritance of normal human traits is:

A

blood groups
eye colour
f to become right-handed and left-handed

100
Q

The genotype of a heterozygote for one or more traits is:

A

AaBb

Aa
CeDdEe

AaBbCc

101
Q

Polyploidy is:

A

multiplication of complete chromosome sets

e.g. triploidy
f) e.g. tetraploidy

102
Q

The genetic cross scheme of two heterozygotes is:

A

Aa x Aa

AaBb x AaBb

103
Q

The change of the gene pool is caused by:

A

mutation if the carrier survives and can reproduce itself

natural selection

selection

104
Q

Genetic pool is:

A

the set of alleles for all inherited traits in a particular species
the set of alleles in the particular population members

105
Q

What is the chromosomal sex determination:

A

in mammals, males have gonosomes XY
(b) in mammals, females have gonosomes XX
c) in birds, males have gonosomes ZZ/
d) in butterflies. females have gonosomes ZW
(e) in birds, females have gonosomes ZW O in butterflies, males have gonosomes Z7

106
Q

Independent groups of factors causing variability of organisms are:

A

hereditary and non-hereditary variability
e) genotype and external environment factors

107
Q

The karyotype is:

A

the count and morphology of the chromosomes within the cell nucleus

microscopic image of the chromosomes of the eukaryotic cell that identify them

the same in the healthy individuals within the same species, but there is a difference.
between sexes

108
Q

An example of human molecular disease is:

A

galactosemia

109
Q

What are the genotypes of the parents, if their son is haemophiliac and their daughter is healthy homozygous:

A

XhX and XY

mother is a carrier and the father healthy

110
Q

X-heterochromosome-related hereditary diseases in humans include:

A

haemophilia/

colour blindness
daltonism
haemorrhagic disease, type A

111
Q

Daltonism (colour blindness) occurs:

A

more often in men

both in men and women

in all sons of the daltonic mother

112
Q

The offspring genotypic ratio of the monohybrid cross between two heterozygotes is:

A

1:2:1

25%: 50%: 25%

113
Q

The basic methods of human genetics are:

A

genealogy
population research
gemellology
research of twins

114
Q

The brother has a blood group AB and his sister has a blood group 0.
The genotypes of their parent’s blood groups are:

A

A0 and BO

heterozygous A and heterozygous B

115
Q

How many generations in humans can be objectively monitored by a geneticist:

A

four

116
Q

The phenotypic ratio in F2 at dihybridism with complete dominance is:

A

9: 3: 3: 1

117
Q

Genes:

A

are sections of DNA molecules in chromosomes

control the production of specific proteins
d) are present in full set in each individual diploid cell
e) are divided into minor and major effect genes

are found on the chromosome loci

118
Q

Why human inheritance cannot be examined by the crossing method:

A

due to ethical reasons
due to the low number of offspring due to the due to the low number of monitored generations
due to the long generation time of man

119
Q

Qualitative traits are:

A

e.g. the colour of rose petals

eye colour
hair color

120
Q

The mother has a heterozygous blood group A. Her baby has a homozygous blood group A. What a blood group the father of the child may have:

A

heterozygous A

homozygous A

homozygous A or heterozygous A

heterozygous A or homozygous A

121
Q

The grandmother has an autosomal dominant trait. Her daughter does not have this trait. What is the probability that a grandchild will have this trait if his father is recessive homozygous for this trait?

A

0%
never have it

122
Q
  1. In the offspring when crossing two heterozygotes (in monohybridism), the proportion of heterozygotes is:
A

50%
half of it

123
Q

The daughter normally recognizes red and green colouringuishing coter is colon. blind. The daughter” husband has no problems with distinguishing colours. The probability that their daughter will be colour blind:

A

their daughter will never be colour blind

124
Q

When crossing two different homozygotes (in monohybridism):

A

each creates only one gamete type
b) their offspring are uniform
c) heterozygotes are created during fertilization by gamete fusion
all offspring are the same, and they are heterozygotes
all offspring have the same phenotype as one of the parents in case of complete dominance of trait

125
Q

The grandmother has an autosomal recessive trait. Her daughter does not have this trait. What is the probability that the grandchild also will not have this trait if his father is the dominant homozygote for the trait?

A

100%
never has it

126
Q

The genotype of a dominant homozygote for the following traits is:

A

ААВВСС
d) AA

AABB

BBCCI

127
Q

The genotype of a dihybrid that is a dominant homozygote for the first trait and a heterozygote for the second trait is:

A

a) ВВСс
b) DDEe

ААВЬ
h) EEFf

128
Q

Inheritance:

A

ensures the transfer of generic traits from generation to generation

cannot be separated from variability

causes the offspring to resemble their parents
f) is the ability of living organisms to pass predisposition for traits from parents to offspring
g) is the ability of living organisms to pass predisposition for traits from generation to generation

129
Q

Mutations that change genes but do not change the structure or number of chromosomes are called:

A

gene mutations

130
Q

Children have a blood group AB and their mother has a heterozygous blood group
A. Which type of the blood group can their father have?

A

heterozygous B
d) codominant AB

homozygous B

131
Q

The grandmother has an autosomal recessive trait. Her daughter does not have this trait. What is the probability that even the grandchild will not have this trait if his father is the dominant homozygote for the trait?

A

100%

never has it

132
Q

The genotype of a heterozygote for one or more traits is:

A

CeDdEe
Aa

BbCc
g) АаВЬСс
h) CeDd

133
Q

Human chromosomal set:

A

is the same for all body cells of an individual
it is also composed of autosomes
h) is also composed of gonosomes

134
Q

Grandmother has an autosomal recessive trait. Her daughter does not have this trait. What is the probability that even the grandchild will not have this trait, if his father is recessively homozygous for the trait?

A

50%

one half

135
Q

Can the child inherit colour-blindness from parents if both of them recognize the colours normally:

A

yes, but only son

the daughter cannot, even if the mother is a carrier

daughter can not

136
Q

If a father has a blood group 0 and a mother also has a blood group 0:

A

their children may only have a blood group O

137
Q

The homozygote in monohybridism:

A

is the person, which is most often created by inbreeding

has the same parental allele for a certain trait

138
Q

If a mother has a homozygous blood group B and a father has a heterozygote blood group A, their child may have.

A

heterozygous B
d) codominant AB

B with the 50% probability

B with B0 genotype

139
Q

The pentahybrid genotype for heterozygote for the first trait, the dominant homozygote for the second trait, heterozygote for the third trait, the recessive homozygote for the fourth trait and the dominant homozygote for the fifth trait is:

A

BbCCDdeeFF
AaBBCeddEE

140
Q

In the offspring of cross two heterozygotes (in monohybridism), the proportion of recessive homozygotes is:

A

25%

one quarter

the same as dominant homozygotes

141
Q

Allelic pair:

A

is formed by two alleles
may be formed by two dominant alleles
can be formed by two recessive alleles

142
Q

In offspring of cross the heterozygote with a homozygous recessive (monohybridism), the genotype ratio of offspring is:

A

50%: 50%
1:1

143
Q

If both parents have a codominant AB blood group, then their offspring may have.

A

blood group B with the 25% probability

blood group AB with the 50% probability

blood group 0 with the 0% probability

144
Q

Genes:

A

are located in DNA macromolecules

biochemical ground for trait formation
d) are the molecular grounds of the traits
e) are embedded in cells in the ultrastructure of their chromosomes

are located in the cell nucleus

145
Q

Mutations that change the structure of chromosomes, but do not change genes the number of chromosomes are called:

A

chromosome mutations/

146
Q

Induction of active defence against infection in man occurs after:

A

active immunization
c) preventive vaccination

vaccination

147
Q

In unfavourable conditions protozoa produce on their surface:

A

cyst

envelop

148
Q

Oncogenic viruses can cause:

A

uncontrollable cell division

development of malignant tumour

149
Q

Do protozoa have simple regulations:

A

yes, it is based on enzymes

yes, all of them

150
Q

Female of Anopheles mosquito transmits etiological agent of:

A

malaria

151
Q

Viruses can consist of:

A

DNA and proteins
(b) proteins, nucleic acids and lipids
(c) RNA and proteins

nucleic acids and proteins

152
Q

Antibodies in the blood are located in:

A

blood plasma

153
Q

What kind of bacteria permanently live in the large intestine:

A

(a) fermenting bacteria
b) Escherichia coli,
c) putrid bacteria
d) non-pathogenic bacteria

154
Q

Induction of active defence against infection in organism occurs after:

A

administration with attenuated pathogenic microorganisms
c) administration with attenuated pathogenic germs
d) the infection passing /
e) administration of Mammalia with a foreign antigen

administration with killed pathogenic germs

155
Q

Antigen is:

A

foreign substance which can evocate the immunity response in the organism
c) structure from another organism which induces a specific immune response

structure evocating. after contact wit cell and production of specific antibodies

156
Q

Body louse (Pediculus humanus) can transmit etiological agent of:

A

spotted fever

157
Q

Giardia intestinalis occurs:

A

in the small intestine

in a man
in children

158
Q

Which types of N-bacteria are involved in the conversion of nitrogenous
substances:

A

nitrifying bacteria
b) nitration bacteria
c) denitrifying bacteria
d) nodule bacteria

159
Q

Hepatitis epidemica is:

A

infectious inflammation of the liver

term for the jaundice epidemic

160
Q

Fleas transmit etiological agent of:

A

plague

161
Q

Viruses are reproduced:

A

onlv in living cells

162
Q

Single-celled organisms excrete the waste:

A

by the whole surface of the cell
c) by the contractile vacuole

163
Q

Bacteria are reproduced:

A

by binary fission

asexual binary fission

164
Q

Murein is:

A

peptidoglycan/
c) chemical compound that gives strength to the cell wall of prokaryotes

a complicated chemical substance

165
Q

The amoeba that parasites in malpighian tubes is called:

A

Malpighamoeba mellificae

166
Q

Streptococci:

A

form chains

a spherical shape

167
Q

T-lymphocytes are responsible for:

A

cellular immunity

production of cytotoxic substances

168
Q

Aetiological agents of malaria are:

A

Haemosporidia

some Sporozoa

169
Q

The thin layer on the surface of the single-celled organisms is called:

A

pellicle

170
Q

Viruses in a human can cause:

A

measles
c) poliomyelitis
d) varicella
(e) hepatitis A
f parotitis
h) influenza

171
Q

Cells which are responsible for active immunization are:

A

memory cells
activated B-lymphocytes/
(e) plasmatic cells/

172
Q

Bacteria can be found:

A

in the air
b) in the soil
[c) on the surface of organisms

in the food vacuole of Infusoria

in the human large intestine

173
Q

Immunoglobulins are:

A

special proteins also called antibodies
c) products of B-lymphocytes

specific antibodies

174
Q

According to origin and function we distinguish:

A

B-lymphocytes
c) T-lymphocytes

175
Q

Vaccination is based on:

A

response of the specific immunity

antibody response of the organism
e) induction of active immunization

insertion of inactivated or attenuated germs which induce an immune reaction

176
Q

the nucleoid of prokaryotic cells bounded by biomembranes:

A

no, it is not

177
Q

Staphylococci:

A

form grape-like clusters

have a spherical form

178
Q

Prokaryotic organisms are:

A

Bacteria
b) Cyanobacteria

Cyanophyta
A Prochlorophyta

179
Q

B-lymphocytes are responsible for:

A

antibody defence
c) production of immunoglobulins

180
Q

The bacteriophage is:

A

a kind of virus

a virus that affects bacteria

181
Q

The function of T-lymphocytes in an organism is:

A

contribute to cellular immunity

that they are associated with the rejection of transplanted organs
e) the production of cytotoxic substances

the recognition of foreign cells and their destruction

182
Q

What belongs to the manifestation directly related to nonspectie cell immunity

A

phagocytosis
d) ability to absorb foreign substances
e) diapedesis of neutrophils

the production of lysozyme and other substances which destroy bacteria

183
Q

Erythrocyte antigens are:

A

called agglutinogens

are responsible for blood groups in a man
f) might cause isohaemagglutination
g) hereditary

184
Q

The average size of bacteria is:

A

approximatelv 1 micrometre

g) 0.3 - 2.0 micrometres

185
Q

What belongs to the manifestation of a specific antibody immune response:

A

the production of antibodies in B-lymphocytes

the production of specific immunoglobulins

186
Q

Protective treatment at a time when the risk of infection has not yet occurred is called:

A

prophylaxis

preventive vaccination

187
Q

Direct administration of complete antibodies to the organism is called:

A

passive immunization

188
Q

Haemosporidia perform their development:

A

in erythrocytes of man and Anopheles mosquito

in two hosts

189
Q

The pathogen responsible for tuberculosis was discovered by:

A

b) R. Koch

190
Q

What kinds of an immune response are known:

A

specific antibody )
specific cellular

nonspecific cellular

191
Q

Virus protective shell composed of proteins is called:

A

capsid

192
Q

Haemosporidia need for their development:

A

two hosts

a man and mosquito Anophele

193
Q

The specific cellular immunity is mediated:

A

by T-lymphocytes

by lymphocytes producing cytotoxic substances

194
Q

virus that consists of a head and tail is:

A

bacteriophage

195
Q

The spore of bacterium differs from the parent cell by:

A

the shape
b) the composition of a cell wall
c) the different water contents
d) sensitivity to environmental factors

activity of metabolism

196
Q

Which statement about AIDS is true:

A

it is the final and most serious stage of HIV infection
b) small scratches are enough for infection
(c) risk groups are drug users, patients treated by frequent blood transfusions and homosexuals

the cause of the patient’s death is, e.g. inflammatory diseases caused by parasites, fungi, yeasts and some viruses
development of a malignant tumour is frequent in patients with AIDS

197
Q

Which statement about agglutinogens in a man is true:

A

they are inborn

their investigation is used, for example, in anthropology and forensic medicine
they have to be determined in the patient before the transfusion treatment

198
Q

The diseases of animals or humans that are caused by viruses include:

A

influenza
hoof-and-mouth disease
cattle plague
hand-foot-and-mouth disease
poliomyelitis
AIDS
measles

199
Q

About viruses, it is known that:

A

they are intracellular parasites of other organisms /
b) they are also sorted according to the type of the cells, in which they parasite
c) they are also sorted according to the type of nucleic acid
d) they are intracellular parasites of bacteria, plants and animals

200
Q

About acquired immune deficiency syndrome in a man, it is known that:

A

it is called AIDS (short name)
b) it is a viral disease

it is based on the complete failure of immunity of an organism due to lymphocyte infection by HIV

infection insensibly spreads in the organism and causes a gradual loss of immune response
and results in the death of the patient

201
Q

Paramecin is:

A

toxic protein

202
Q

The Black Death (plague):

A

was one of the most devastating panderics in human history

is caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis

203
Q

Sleeping sickness:

A

is caused by Trypanosoma brucei

occurs in humans

204
Q

Which helminths occur in a man:

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

Fasciola hepatica

Taenia solium

Ancylostoma duodenale

205
Q

Viruses:

A

are small infectious agents that replicate only inside the living cells

can infect all types of life forms

cause diseases of plants and animals
h) are subcellular organisms

206
Q

Influenza:

A

is an infectious disease caused by an influenza virus

is a respiratory illness caused by a virus

is highly contagious

207
Q

AIDS:

A

represents a spectrum of conditions caused by infection with the human immunodeficiency virus

caused by HIV

is caused by a retrovirus

is spread primarily by unprotected sex/

208
Q

Syphilis:

A

is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum
may be transmitted from the mother to her baby during pregnancy

is a sexually transmitted infection

209
Q

Taenia solium:

A

is an intestinal zoonotic parasite
has humans as a definitive host

is the pork tapeworm belonging to cyclophyllid cestodes

210
Q

Giardia intestinalis:

A

a flagellated parasite that colonizes and reproduces in the small intestine

is also one of the most common parasites infecting cats, dogs and birds
e) reproduces via binary fission

infects humans
h) relies on glucose as its major energy source and breaks glucose down into ethanol, acetate and carbon dioxide

211
Q

Which mosquito-transmitted Plasmodium falciparum:

A

Anopheles gambiae

212
Q

Toxoplasma gondii:

A

is an obligate intracellular parasite that causes toxoplasmosis

is one of the most common parasites in developed countries

213
Q

Which plasmodia may infect humans:

A

Placebodium falciparum

Plasmodium ovale

Plasmodium malariae

Plasmodium vivax

214
Q

Sexually transmitted infectious diseases are:

A

syphilis

gonorrhoea

chancroid

215
Q

Varicella:

A

is a highly contagious disease caused by the initial infection with varicella-zoster virus

is also known as chickenpox

results in a characteristic skin rash

is an airborne disease

216
Q

Giardia intestinalis:

A

is a flagellated parasite that colonizes and reproduces in the small intestine

causes giardiasis

is a microscopic parasite that causes the diarrheal illness known as giardiasis

reproduces via binary fission

217
Q

Which statement about HPV is not true:

A

a) it is an RNA virus
c) it causes AIDS
d) it is transmitted by air
f) it affects only women
g) it cannot be spread from a mother to her baby during pregnancy
h) affects humans and animals

218
Q

Hepatitis viruses are:

A

a) hepatitis A virus
[c) hepatitis E virus
e) hepatitis B virus
f) hepatitis C virus g)
hepatitis D virus
h) hepatitis F virus

219
Q

Which statement about HIV is true:

A

a) it belongs to retroviruses

c) it contains RNA

e) it affects the human immune system
f) it causes AIDS

220
Q

HIV can be transmitted by:

A

body fluids
c) an unsafe sexual intercourse

hypodermic needle

221
Q

Which statement about HIV is not true:

A

(a) it causes genital warts

c) it contains reverse transcriptase to convert DNA into RNA/
d) it occurs only in Africa

g) it does not affect the immune system

222
Q

Which statement about HIV is not true:

A

(a) it causes genital warts

c) it contains reverse transcriptase to convert DNA into RNA/
d) it occurs only in Africa

g) it does not affect the immune system

223
Q

hpv virus

A

is transmitted by sexual intercourse
is a dna virus

can cause cervical cancer

224
Q

Hepatitis viruses:

A

can cause infectious jaundice

can be transmitted by poor hygiene

its prevention includes vaccination
health workers
small children

225
Q

Hepatitis A:

A

is an infections dis aseaf the liver caused by the virus

A raw seafood can cause hepatitis A

h)
affects humans

226
Q

Hepatitis B:

A

infection can be acute or chronic

vaccination is a form of prevention

affects men, women, children/
ha) presence of the specific antibodies in serum serves as a diagnostic method

227
Q

Hepatitis C:

A

C) is an infectious disease acquired by parenteral transmission
d) is not caused by hepatitis B virus
e) the liver is the main affected organ
1) can be transmitted by contaminated blood transfusion
g) can cause chronic damage to the liver

228
Q

HPV:

A

HPV infection belongs to sexually transmitted diseases

belongs to the group of DNA viruses
f) the most common types of HPV infection can be prevented by vaccination
g) can be spread from a mother to her child during pregnancy

229
Q

Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs):

A

b) can be caused by bacteria or parasites
c) syphilis, gonorrhoea and chlamydia are bacteria that can cause STDs
e) HIV, HPV and herpes simplex virus can cause viral STDs*

candidiasis also belongs to STDs
h) protozoa can also cause STDs.

230
Q

Which animals excrete nitrogen in the form of urea?

A

a) whales

c) placentalia
d) mammals
e) gophers

g) humans
h) bats

231
Q

Nitrogenous amino acid residues are transformed during protein degradation
in to:

A

ammonia

NH3

232
Q

Which animals excrete nitrogen in the form of urea?

A

a) whales
c) placentalia
d) mammals
e) gophers
g) humans
h) bats

233
Q

Vertebrates:

A

a) represent the overwhelming majority of the phylum Chordata
b) range in size from the frog species Paedophryne amauensis, at as little as 7.7 mm, to the blue whale, at up to 33 m
c) make up less than five percent of all described animal species
d) are the only chordate group to exhibit cephalisation,

f) include such groups as the following: jawless fishes, jawed vertebrates, tetrapods, and bony fishes
g) are built along with the basic chordate body plan - a stiff rod running through the length of the animal (vertebral column and/or notochord), with a hollow tube of the nervous tissue (the spinal cord) above it and the gastrointestinal tract below
h) originated about 525 million years ago during the Cambrian explosion

234
Q

Which structures allow black and white vision during the twilight:

A

rod cells

235
Q

What regulates the ability of lower vertebrates to change the colour of the body:

A

a) the pituitary hormone

the hormone of intermediate lobe of the hypophysis

the hormone of intermediate lobe of the pituitary gland

236
Q

Plasma proteins are formed mainly in:

A

the liver

the organ that also produces bile

237
Q

What is the medical term for alternation between inhalation and exhalation:

A

lung ventilation

238
Q

The process in which the white blood cells pass across the capillary membrane is

A

diapedesis

239
Q

Complex inborn reactions of the organism are:

A

instincts

240
Q

What happens during the spread of the impulse in the nerve fibre:

A

Nations are moving through the neuron membrane
d) K+ ions are moving through the neuron membrane
e) permeability of the membrane is changed for the K+ and Na+ ions

an action potential

241
Q

The neuron is composed of:

A

an axon

dendrites

242
Q

Where do motor nerve fibres terminate:

A

in the skeletal muscles

in the middle of the muscle fibre in the simple synapse
f in the middle of the muscle fibre in the neuromuscular junction

in the striated muscles

243
Q

Lymph nodes can catch:

A

microorganisms
b) dust particles
c) toxins

244
Q

What allows continuous blood circulation:

A

the systole and diastole

rhythmic heart contraction and relaxation

245
Q

According to a stimulus origin, receptors can be divided into:

A

interoreceptors

exteroreceptors

246
Q

Endogenous biorhythms are:

A

rhythm of breathing b)
the heartbeat rhythm
o the rhythmic aewvity of the nervous system
(d) the contraction of smooth muscles

247
Q

Exogenous biorhythms:

A

1) depend on the roguray thesomena of the external environment
b) depend on the alternation of the seasons

d) depend on the alternation of light and darkness
e) depend on the tide and outflow
f) may occur seasonally

h) are related to endogenous

med at prep (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions